This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
108: Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
N a. speed healing Y b. prevent infection N c. reduce inflammation N d. increase blood circulation 136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
Y a. Hand-portable fire extinguisher N b. Life preserver N c. Immersion suit N d. Lifeboat oar 330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
N a. reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG N b. not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG Y c. reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG N d. not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG 462: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will __________.
Y a. produce high-velocity fog N b. produce low-velocity fog N c. produce a straight stream N d. shut off the water 548: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.
Y a. perform the Heimlich maneuver N b. make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the brain N c. immediately administer CPR N d. do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious 756: A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of __________.
N a. 12 hours N b. 18 hours Y c. 24 hours N d. 36 hours 1075: Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the __________.
N a. oars N b. sail Y c. boat plug N d. life preservers 1091: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0026
N a. 2.49 feet Y b. 2.38 feet N c. 2.27 feet N d. 2.05 feet 1138: What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?
N a. Static electricity N b. An open running electric motor N c. Loose wiring Y d. Explosion proof lights 1158: Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________.
N a. an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites N b. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance Y c. chemical action within a substance N d. All of the above 1445: When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________.
N a. arch the back to add strength to the muscles Y b. bend his knees and lift with his legs N c. bend his back and stoop N d. bend his back and stoop with arms straight 1605: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?
N a. MD Y b. MT N c. PA N d. NURSE 1868: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
N a. 0.56 foot N b. 0.96 foot Y c. 1.18 feet N d. 1.43 feet 1888: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of the tanks being slack?
N a. .08 foot Y b. .16 foot N c. .45 foot N d. .90 foot 1973: To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?
N a. 2 N b. 4 N c. 6 Y d. 8 2099: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least __________.
N a. 75 psi N b. 100 psi N c. 120 psi Y d. 150 psi 2126: Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?
N a. Pump rooms N b. Enclosed deck spaces N c. Cofferdams Y d. Navigation spaces 2218: The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.
N a. floodable length N b. factor of subdivision N c. compartment standard Y d. permissible length 2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.
N a. 1.6 feet N b. 2.9 feet N c. 3.8 feet Y d. 4.6 feet 2853: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a confined space?
N a. Flame safety lamp N b. Combustible gas indicator Y c. Oxygen indicator N d. H2S meter 2864: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-08", AFT 23'-04" and the GM is 4.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 20° inclination.
Y a. 2.1 feet N b. 2.4 feet N c. 2.8 feet N d. 3.2 feet 2865: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
N a. It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts. N b. It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline. N c. It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel. Y d. The correction decreases as the draft increases 2866: If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. operated only in daylight hours N b. provided with gasoline or kerosene lights N c. equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment Y d. equipped with individual battery-powered lights 2889: Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Watertight. N b. Grounded to the main engine on a wooden hulled boat. Y c. The dead-front type, totally enclosed N d. Equipped with switch locks 2913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-09.5", AFT 22'-09.5". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0087
N a. FWD 21'-06.3", AFT 22'-06.6" Y b. FWD 21'-11.3", AFT 23'-01.8" N c. FWD 22'-06.6", AFT 21'-06.9" N d. FWD 23'-00.2", AFT 22'-00.4" 2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
N a. positive N b. negative Y c. zero N d. vertical 3136: Where should the tops of vents from gasoline tanks terminate?
Y a. In open air N b. Inside cabins near the overhead N c. In the machinery space near the engine air intake N d. Underwater 3157: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.
N a. C1S Y b. 9S N c. 9P N d. 2P 3163: A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.
N a. negative GM Y b. progressive flooding N c. structural failure N d. an immediate need to counterflood 3193: Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.
N a. ballast control alarms N b. excessive draft N c. excessive list or trim Y d. a continual worsening of list or trim 3363: What must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?
N a. It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link. Y b. Depress the hydrostatic release button. N c. It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps. N d. It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel. 3431: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet?
N a. 2.0 feet by the head Y b. 4.0 feet by the head N c. 4.0 feet by the stern N d. 8.0 feet by the stern 3569: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. steer a course for the nearest land N c. steer a course for the nearest sea lane Y d. shut down the engines if installed and put out the sea anchor 3571: The DEEP DRILLER is anchoring in 600 feet of water. In the absence of environmental forces, the mooring lines should be adjusted to __________.
N a. 245 kips Y b. 222 kips N c. 237 kips N d. 194 kips 3677: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 8S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.
N a. 1S Y b. 1P N c. C2BP N d. 10P 3814: If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________.
Y a. remain in the immediate vicinity N b. head for the nearest land N c. head for the closest sea-lanes N d. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision 3924: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.
Y a. remain in the immediate vicinity N b. head for the nearest land N c. head for the closest sea-lanes N d. let the persons in the boat vote on what to do 4233: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in Section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, with the rotary 36 feet aft of the transom and 4 feet to port of the centerline, and with 300 kips in the setback, the maximum hook load is limited to __________.
N a. 870 kips N b. 635 kips N c. 335 kips Y d. 314 kips 4253: What is the maximum weight permitted on the cantilever pipe racks for the COASTAL DRILLER?
N a. 450 kips Y b. 500 kips N c. 750 kips N d. 1000 kips 4255: What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever?
N a. 450 kips Y b. 529 kips N c. 550 kips N d. 750 kips 4404: The letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate the __________.
Y a. class of fire and size of the extinguisher N b. class of fire and location aboard vessel N c. extinguishing agent and relative size of the extinguisher N d. extinguishing agent and location aboard vessel 4663: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #7 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new TCG?
N a. -0.15 foot N b. 0.00 foot Y c. 0.15 foot N d. 0.29 foot 5451: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and aft. Strong wind and high waves are on the port bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 5 or 6 Y b. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2 N c. leak in ballast tank 9P N d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10S 5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks N b. satisfactory, continue tripping Y c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. satisfactory, place unit in standby 5637: While in transit during heavy weather, the crew aboard a semisubmersible should be alert to repeated pounding of waves on the lower bracing. If necessary, the unit should be __________.
N a. deballasted to a shallower draft Y b. ballasted to survival draft N c. ballasted to a draft in which the KG exceeds the maximum allowed N d. towed in the trough of the waves 6102: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0191
N a. LCG-FP 271.79 feet Y b. LCG-FP 272.87 feet N c. LCG-FP 274.04 feet N d. LCG-FP 275.13 feet 6467: The series of valves used to control the return flow in well control operations is called the __________.
N a. valve assembly N b. standpipe manifold N c. accumulator manifold Y d. choke manifold 6577: According to the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, "industrial personnel" are considered to be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole purpose of carrying out the industrial business of the unit, except for __________.
N a. the operator's representative Y b. the crew required by the Certificate of Inspection N c. the galley personnel N d. the designated person in charge 6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.
Y a. the name of the person conducting the test N b. the weight of the charge N c. recommendations for the next test N d. All of the above 6987: Severe airway burns can cause __________.
N a. nausea N b. reddening of cheeks Y c. complete obstruction of respiratory passages N d. nosebleed 7127: Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an alarm which sounds __________.
N a. for the first 20 seconds CO2 is being released into the space Y b. for at least 20 seconds prior to release of CO2 N c. during the entire period that CO2 is being released N d. if all doors and ventilation are not secured 7951: What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system for powering drilling rig machinery?
N a. Commutators are eliminated. N b. Several machines can be operated from a DC bus. N c. SCR systems are simpler. Y d. Required power can be drawn from a common AC bus. 8183: When extracting the legs from the soil, the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER may be pulled down until the draft is __________.
N a. at the maximum load line draft N b. one foot less than maximum load line draft N c. one foot deeper than maximum load line draft Y d. one foot deeper than calculated afloat draft 8392: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.
N a. decrease the GM N b. give the vessel a gentler roll Y c. increase the metacentric height N d. decrease the reserve buoyancy 8627: What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?
N a. 0.62 foot aft Y b. 0.65 foot aft N c. 0.68 foot aft N d. 0.71 foot aft 9125: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________.
N a. remote operated valve Y b. fusible link N c. CO2 system pressure switch N d. heat or smoke detector 9412: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.
N a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal N b. burning liquids flowing into another space N c. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems Y d. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space 9431: Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.
N a. BL N b. GMT N c. FSCT Y d. KG 9513: In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
N a. center of gravity Y b. metacenter N c. center of flotation N d. keel 9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
N a. the midships house Y b. in the pumproom N c. at the vent header N d. at the main deck manifold