This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
N a. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth N b. keeping the head elevated Y c. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth N d. holding the jaw down firmly 239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
N a. It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts. N b. It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline. N c. It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel. Y d. The correction decreases as the draft increases due to loading dry cargo. 276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is approximately __________.
N a. 35 psi Y b. 50 psi N c. 70 psi N d. 100 psi 276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is approximately __________.
N a. 35 psi Y b. 50 psi N c. 70 psi N d. 100 psi 586: On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration?
N a. Cast bronze N b. Plastic Y c. Cast iron N d. Stainless steel 599: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.
N a. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water N b. drain water from the lungs before ventilating Y c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible N d. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting 661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________.
N a. day N b. week Y c. month N d. 3 months 707: If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must __________.
N a. immediately anchor your vessel and arrange for repairs to the system N b. moor your vessel at the nearest dock available and arrange for repairs to the system N c. arrange for the repair of the system to be completed within 48 hours Y d. exercise due diligence to restore the system at the earliest practicable time 786: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
Y a. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required. N b. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the only distress signals required. N c. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provided. N d. A Very pistol with twelve flares is required. 799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.
N a. conspicuously marked N b. stowed anywhere N c. left on deck Y d. secured or stowed out of the way 813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
N a. abandon ship N b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations Y c. fire and emergency N d. man overboard 864: A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain?
N a. MNJ N b. MNM Y c. MNO N d. MNI 888: An oil fire is classified as class __________.
N a. A Y b. B N c. C N d. D 978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?
N a. It will explode if exposed to a flame. Y b. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal. N c. It will burn rapidly once ignited. N d. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride. 1025: Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73°25'North"?
N a. G17325N Y b. L7325N N c. LA7325N N d. N7325 1124: Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________.
N a. air is heavier than gas fumes N b. oil and water mix there N c. it prevents air from entering or leaving the space Y d. Gasoline vapors are heavier than air, tend to settle in the bilges, and create an explosion hazard 1310: Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________.
Y a. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level N b. secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position N c. hold the lifeboat to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed N d. be used as a safety line in an emergency 1496: Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use which method?
N a. Compartment standard method N b. Lost buoyancy method N c. Factor of subdivision method Y d. Added weight method 1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.
N a. take measures to maintain morale N b. prepare and use radio equipment N c. identify the person in charge of liferaft Y d. search for survivors 1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.
N a. 24 hours prior to departure Y b. within a few hours before or after departure N c. 24 hours after departure N d. after the first position report 1785: What is a GMDSS functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?
N a. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) licensed GMDSS operators N b. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements that are determined by where the vessel sails. N c. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts. Y d. All of the above 1917: How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?
Y a. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. N b. It informs survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened. N c. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode. N d. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. 1956: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )
N a. 1.96 feet Y b. 2.28 feet N c. 2.65 feet N d. 2.93 feet 1976: A capsized small sail vessel is best righted when what part of the vessel is downwind?
N a. Stern N b. Bow N c. Centerboard Y d. Mast 2114: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
N a. Open the equipment pack. N b. Inflate the liferaft floor. N c. Decide on food and water rations. Y d. Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel. 2164: Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?
N a. Jettison any off-center topside weights to lower GM and correct the list. N b. Pump out any slack after double-bottom tanks to reduce free surface and increase freeboard aft. N c. Pump out the after peak and fill the forepeak to change the trim. Y d. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty. 2359: An example of a grade D product is __________.
N a. heavy fuel oil N b. aviation gas grade 115/145 Y c. kerosene N d. commercial gasoline 2675: The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.
N a. stiffener N b. beam Y c. stringer N d. doubler 2680: You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the cleanup procedure?
N a. Alcohol N b. Sodium bisulfite Y c. Sodium carbonate N d. Soda ash solution 2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.
N a. submerged hulls Y b. column void spaces N c. dry mud tanks N d. ballast tanks 2778: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 17.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 75° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.5 feet off the centerline.
N a. 2.5 feet N b. 3.3 feet Y c. 5.4 feet N d. 9.7 feet 2826: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
N a. cool the bulkhead around the fire N b. remove combustibles from direct exposure Y c. close all openings to the area N d. shut off all electrical power 3023: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to have __________.
Y a. KML less than KGL N b. an off-center LCG N c. LCG greater than LCB N d. KML greater than KMT 3137: With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the preservation of __________.
N a. bilge pumping capacity Y b. reserve buoyancy N c. level attitude N d. instability 3237: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.
N a. 1.09 feet N b. 1.60 feet Y c. 1.64 feet N d. 2.73 feet 3313: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to __________.
N a. set the water lights on immersion N b. release the dye marker from the liferaft Y c. free the liferaft from the vessel N d. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder 3338: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)
N a. 1410 tons N b. 1450 tons N c. 1490 tons Y d. 1520 tons 3371: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?
N a. 66.0 feet N b. 60.5 feet Y c. 59.5 feet N d. 55.0 feet 3460: How should the letter "T" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. TEE N b. TA HO Y c. TANG GO N d. TU TU 3625: The DEEP DRILLER is on location during a storm. Windward anchor tensions begin to exceed the test tensions. To reduce tensions while minimizing offset over the well, you should __________.
N a. increase tension on the leeward chain N b. pay out more chain on the windward side Y c. reduce tension on the leeward chains N d. connect an emergency tow wire to the work boat 3708: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.
N a. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation N b. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth N c. switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation Y d. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation 3849: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.
N a. examining the Certificate of Inspection Y b. examining the plate on the outside of the raft container N c. referring to the Muster List ("Station Bill") N d. referring to the shipping articles 3876: What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel?
N a. A drill should be conducted every three months. Y b. A regular service line must be used when it's fired. N c. A regular projectile must be used when it's fired. N d. The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. 3949: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
N a. After 12 hours Y b. After 24 hours N c. Within 48 hours N d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later 4232: The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 120% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection N b. 90% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection N c. 90% of the number of persons on board at the time Y d. the number of persons on board at the time 4735: In the COASTAL DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.
N a. adding the sum of the weights N b. subtracting the sum of the weights N c. multiplying by the sum of the weights Y d. dividing by the sum of the weights 5073: An obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf, shall have a lens that is visible over an arc of __________.
N a. 60° N b. 90° N c. 180° Y d. 360° 5307: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
N a. 26.8 feet N b. 26.3 feet N c. 1.8 feet Y d. 1.3 feet 5535: What effect is achieved from soaking an anchor?
Y a. It allows the bottom soil to consolidate. N b. It gives the palms time to trip the anchor. N c. It stabilizes the mooring system. N d. It lubricates the anchor for better tripping. 5536: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?
N a. 3240 N b. 2731 N c. 2390 Y d. 2024 5631: In deballasting to survival draft because of extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.
Y a. reduce windward mooring line tensions N b. reduce leeward mooring line tensions N c. increase leeward mooring line tensions N d. maintain constant mooring line tensions 5694: What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?
N a. This is the call sign of a vessel registered in Latvia. Y b. Is anchoring prohibited? N c. Will you lead me to a safe anchorage? N d. Interrogative 5786: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0185
N a. Available GM 2.8 ft N b. Available GM 3.2 ft N c. Available GM 3.5 ft Y d. Available GM 3.8 ft 6673: Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with __________.
Y a. the letter "E" N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit N c. a no-smoking symbol N d. the word "DANGER" 6817: How long must the records of tests and inspections of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU be retained on board?
N a. 6 months N b. 1 year N c. 3 years Y d. Until the next inspection for certification 8891: Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
N a. U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA) N b. Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA) N c. Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) Y d. Pressure-Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) 8973: For a floating vessel, the result of subtracting KG from KM is the __________.
N a. height of the metacenter N b. height of the righting arm N c. height of the center of buoyancy Y d. metacentric height 9129: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.
N a. heat or smoke detector Y b. fusible link N c. remote operated valve N d. C02 system pressure switch 9427: In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to __________.
N a. heel until the angle of loll is reached Y b. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity N c. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal N d. decrease draft at the center of flotation