This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
278: What is a treatment for traumatic shock?
N a. Administer CPR. Y b. Administer fluids. N c. Open clothing to allow cooling of the body. N d. Keep the victim in a sitting position. 333: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal flotation devices)?
N a. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets. Y b. Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. N c. Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. N d. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used. 418: Treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) of __________.
Y a. moving to a shaded area and laying down N b. bathing with rubbing alcohol N c. placing the patient in a tub of cold water N d. All of the above 456: On a vessel of 900 GT, the minimum number of fire axes required is __________.
N a. 2 N b. 4 Y c. 6 N d. 8 515: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?
N a. It is required on all vessels. N b. It may be located in a conspicuous place in the wheelhouse. Y c. It may be located at the bilge and ballast pump control station. N d. All of the above 684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is __________.
N a. 2132 kilohertz Y b. 2182 kilohertz N c. 2670 kilohertz N d. 2750 kilohertz 792: What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?
N a. It has a greater duration. N b. It provides a heat shield for the operator. N c. It is nontoxic. Y d. It offers lasting, effective protection against burn-back. 842: As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?
N a. Cleaner N b. Effective on metal fires Y c. Greater range N d. More cooling effect 874: If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", he would be telling you __________.
N a. that he has his engines in reverse N b. that he is shortening the distance between vessels Y c. to shorten the distance between vessels N d. that his vessel is healthy 933: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 40 feet and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?
N a. 0.3 ft. N b. 0.5 ft. Y c. 0.8 ft. N d. 1.1 ft. 945: The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance is __________.
N a. white N b. green Y c. red N d. yellow 977: Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?
Y a. Classes A & B N b. Classes A & C N c. Classes B & C N d. All of the above 1040: General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log are that __________.
N a. logs must be kept in an orderly manner N b. erasures are not allowed N c. it must identify the vessel's name and official number Y d. All of the above 1204: Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________.
Y a. towing bridle N b. main weather cover N c. external lifelines N d. righting strap 1233: The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is __________.
N a. property damage less than $25,000 N b. no injury which requires more than first aid treatment N c. death or injury to a shipyard worker or harbor worker not resulting from the vessel casualty Y d. All of the above 1390: Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?
N a. Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines N b. Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines N c. Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake Y d. Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants 1519: All oil spills must be reported to the __________.
N a. U.S. Corps of Engineers Y b. U.S. Coast Guard N c. local police N d. local fire department 1567: Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels?
N a. Three Y b. Four N c. Twelve N d. Sixteen 1589: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3284 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0043
N a. KG 25.0 feet Y b. KG 25.5 feet N c. KG 26.1 feet N d. KG 26.7 feet 1706: The major lift-producing part of a sail is the __________.
Y a. leading edge N b. trailing edge N c. head N d. foil 1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.
Y a. a weather deck N b. the main deck N c. the control house N d. the escape capsules 1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.
N a. ventilation avoids CO2 build up N b. ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery Y c. ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation N d. less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge 2149: On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?
N a. The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection Y b. The certificated tankerman on duty N c. The vessel owner N d. Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation. 2257: The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________.
N a. kerosene N b. unleaded gasoline Y c. diesel oil N d. liquefied gas 2287: The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.
Y a. stop the winch just before the craft reaches the final stowage position N b. limit the amount of cable on the drum N c. limit the ascent rate N d. stop the winch in case the craft weighs too much 2346: Grade E liquids are those having a flash point of __________.
N a. 150°F and below N b. below 150° and above 80°F N c. below 80°F Y d. 150°F and above 2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the __________.
N a. vertical position Y b. horizontal position N c. boom stop angle N d. minimum radius angle 2623: Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by __________.
Y a. stanchions N b. brackets N c. web frames N d. deck stringers 2640: What is NOT a grade E product?
N a. Dioctyl-phthalate Y b. Gasoline N c. Formic acid N d. Creosote coal tar 2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 2846: A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________.
N a. 6 months Y b. 12 months N c. 36 months N d. 60 months 2983: The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the __________.
Y a. draft and beam of the drilling unit N b. displacement and deadweight of the drilling unit N c. buoyancy and trim of the drilling unit N d. tonnage and deadweight of the drilling unit 3217: Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?
N a. The hydrostatic release N b. A shear pin N c. A rottmer release Y d. A weak link in the painter 3227: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 18,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 80 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?
N a. 0.02 foot starboard of centerline N b. 0.32 foot starboard of centerline Y c. 1.74 feet starboard of centerline N d. 1.78 feet starboard of centerline 3284: Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 20% of the passengers carried Y b. 10% of the total number of persons carried N c. 10% of the passengers carried N d. 20% of the total number of persons carried 3955: The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________.
N a. week N b. two months Y c. three months N d. six months 4040: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require training in all of the following, EXCEPT _____________ .
N a. putting on a fireman's outfit, if the vessel is so equipped N b. donning a self-contained breathing apparatus, if the vessel is so equipped N c. activating the general alarm and reporting inoperative alarm systems and fire-detection systems Y d. refilling and servicing all expended fire extinguishing equipment 4056: Which installed equipment must be tested and logged when a new Master assumes command?
N a. Internal communications, including sound-powered telephones N b. Navigational lights and search lights N c. Vessel control alarms Y d. All of the above must be tested 4060: After an item of required safety equipment on a towing vessel fails, the owner or Master must consider all of these factors before continuing the voyage, EXCEPT the ___________ .
N a. weather conditions, including visibility Y b. estimated time of arrival promised to the customer N c. safety of the vessel, considering the other traffic in the area N d. dictates of good seamanship 4106: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.
N a. conduction N b. ventilation N c. radiation Y d. convection 4279: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.
N a. on lookout on the fore deck N b. on the bridge wing N c. always in the pilothouse Y d. in or near the pilothouse 5175: The DEEP DRILLER, in transit at a seawater draft of 19 feet, enters a fresh water port. What is the new draft?
N a. 19.03 feet Y b. 19.40 feet N c. 19.63 feet N d. 21.16 feet 5196: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8560 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 95' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 55' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
Y a. 3.74 ft. N b. 3.96 ft. N c. 4.16 ft. N d. 4.35 ft. 5388: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
Y a. in the pumproom N b. at the vent header N c. at the main deck manifold N d. the midships house 5617: Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________.
N a. lessening the effect of environmental forces Y b. even and symmetrical variable loading N c. local concentration of heavy consumables N d. increasing the metacentric height 5733: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be __________.
Y a. shorter N b. identical N c. longer N d. indeterminable 5795: What is the length of the catenary when the DEEP DRILLER is anchored in 600 feet of water and the anchor line tension is 170 kips?
N a. 891 feet N b. 1348 feet Y c. 1493 feet N d. 1657 feet 5905: The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated __________.
N a. at each alarm bell N b. at each alarm actuator N c. near all exits Y d. on the Muster List ("Station Bill") 5941: Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.
N a. fireman's outfit Y b. low-velocity spray applicator N c. marine strainer N d. pick axe 6615: Where are self-closing doors required on a MODU?
N a. In the galley Y b. In each stair tower N c. To each sleeping room N d. To the engine room 6901: In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is responsible to make records available to the Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty?
N a. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection N b. The person who caused the casualty N c. The company man Y d. The owner 6947: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a MODU?
N a. Preventive maintenance log Y b. Storage plans N c. Oil Record Book N d. Repair record book 6957: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board for at least 3 months after a MODU is involved in a casualty or until advised that they are no longer needed on board by the __________.
N a. owner N b. Master N c. person in charge Y d. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection 7387: Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of excess __________.
N a. hydrocarbon gas N b. carbon monoxide gas Y c. carbon dioxide gas N d. freon gas 7603: Initial stability refers to stability __________.
Y a. at small angles of inclination N b. when loaded with minimum deck load N c. when at transit draft N d. when GZ is zero 9002: On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of each accommodation space must be located above __________.
N a. the operating draft N b. the survival draft N c. the transit draft Y d. the deepest load line 9491: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.
N a. KB N b. KG N c. KM Y d. GM 9621: You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?
N a. Protect the adjacent spaces on the same deck as the laundry room. Y b. Locate and use the nearest portable extinguisher, if conditions permit. N c. Protect the compartment directly above the laundry room. N d. Go to the nearest fire station and break out the hose. 9633: Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
N a. Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve. N b. Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space. N c. An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied. Y d. All of the above 9700: The regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel are found in __________.
N a. 46 CFR subchapter S N b. 46 CFR subchapter T N c. 46 CFR subchapter B Y d. 46 CFR subchapter I