This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
N a. has fired a torpedo during a drill Y b. is about to rise to periscope depth N c. is on the bottom in distress N d. is disabled and unable to surface 147: Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is __________.
Y a. one N b. three N c. six N d. twelve 252: What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?
N a. Nitrogen N b. Sodium Y c. Oxygen N d. Carbon dioxide 427: Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least __________.
N a. 4 years from date of entry Y b. 3 years from date of entry N c. 2 years from date of entry N d. 1 year from date of entry 772: What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel?
N a. It be operated at one and one half times normal operating pressure for ten minutes. N b. Safety and/or relief valves settings be checked at two and one half times normal operating pressures. Y c. It be installed to the satisfaction of the cognizant OCMI N d. All of the above 813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
N a. abandon ship N b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations Y c. fire and emergency N d. man overboard 862: Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by __________.
N a. cooling N b. smothering N c. oxygen dilution Y d. breaking the chain reaction 948: Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as class __________.
N a. A N b. B N c. C Y d. D 1394: In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?
N a. No equipment is provided. N b. Glue and rubber patches Y c. Several various-sized sealing clamps N d. Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches 1477: A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST __________.
N a. stop the ventilation Y b. sound the general alarm N c. determine the source of the fire N d. attempt to extinguish the fire 1813: On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas, recreational and hospital areas that are adjacent to or immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint locker, washroom, or toilet space must be made __________.
N a. watertight N b. weathertight Y c. odorproof N d. soundproof 1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50° on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. If you slack the mizzen sheet, the center of effort will move aft. N b. If you slack the main sheet, the lift to drag ratio of the mainsail will increase. N c. If you sheet in the mainsail without changing course, the vessel will heel farther and speed up. Y d. If you strike the mainsail, the center of effort of the whole rig will move down. 2131: When a person is in shock, their skin will be __________.
N a. warm and dry N b. warm and damp N c. cold and dry Y d. cold and damp 2175: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.
Y a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water N b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air N c. remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors N d. sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes 2199: Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
N a. 1.62 feet Y b. 1.85 feet N c. 2.10 feet N d. 2.46 feet 2251: What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
N a. Topside icing N b. Running with a following sea N c. Using 35% of the fuel in a full tank Y d. Lowering a weight suspended by a boom onto the deck 2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.
N a. daily testing Y b. either A or C N c. operational use of the equipment N d. testing at least every 48 hours 2394: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 122 tons are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships, 128 tons are discharged 54 feet forward of amidships, and 68 tons of fuel is pumped 48 feet aft.
N a. FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-08" N b. FWD 24'-02", AFT 26'-11" Y c. FWD 24'-04", AFT 26'-08" N d. FWD 24'-05", AFT 26'-02" 2520: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)?
N a. Aluminum N b. Nickel Y c. Copper or copper alloys N d. Stainless steel 2559: What is NOT a grade B flammable liquid?
N a. tert-Butylamine N b. Allyl chloride Y c. Ethyl chloride N d. Carbon disulfide 2573: Medical treatment aboard a MODU should not go beyond examination and emergency care without first consulting __________.
N a. the designated medic aboard N b. the shore based superintendent Y c. a medical doctor N d. the approved company medical manual 2668: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.
Y a. remains aligned with compass north N b. also turns to starboard N c. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port N d. turns counterclockwise to port 2817: A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.
N a. 112.5° N b. 135.0° Y c. 157.5° N d. 180.0° 2983: The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the __________.
Y a. draft and beam of the drilling unit N b. displacement and deadweight of the drilling unit N c. buoyancy and trim of the drilling unit N d. tonnage and deadweight of the drilling unit 3016: Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months?
N a. 18 months N b. 24 months Y c. 42 months N d. 60 months 3052: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger vessel?
N a. They may be worn during drills N b. They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required life jackets on board N c. They need not be an approved type Y d. They must be stowed separately from approved life jackets 3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 1/2 inch high N b. 1 inch high Y c. Height not specified N d. 1-1/2 inches high 3167: Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers __________.
N a. is usually below the center of gravity and has little effect on stability N b. will cause water on deck to pocket and increase stability Y c. may decrease stability by increasing free surface effect due to water on deck N d. increases the effective freeboard and increases the wind-heel affect 3259: Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?
N a. To keep visitors away from the barge N b. To prohibit smoking N c. To prohibit open lights Y d. All of the above 3361: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.
N a. 48,000 ft-tons N b. 6,000 ft-tons Y c. 3,000 ft-tons N d. 0 ft-tons 3372: Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?
N a. All engines, motors, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling. N b. All windows, doors, hatches, etc. should be closed. N c. A fire extinguisher should be kept nearby. Y d. Fuel tanks should be topped off with no room for expansion. 3580: How should the letter "V" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Y a. VIK TAH N b. VIC TO RE N c. VIX TOO RE N d. VEE 3644: When should distress flares and rockets be used?
N a. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel Y b. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by a rescue vessel N c. At one hour intervals N d. At half hour intervals 3817: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?
Y a. 10,944 foot-tons decrease N b. 7,761 foot-tons decrease N c. 6,707 foot-tons decrease N d. 155 foot-tons decrease 3988: In the illustration shown, the weak link is item number __________. (D015SA )
Y a. 8 N b. 6 N c. 4 N d. 1 4050: The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged ___________ .
Y a. when a new Master assumes command N b. daily, at 0800 local zone time N c. weekly, before 2400 Saturday N d. immediately after assuming the watch 4082: A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is ____________ .
Y a. used solely for assistance towing N b. under 65 feet in length N c. used exclusively on the Western Rivers N d. pushing ahead 4153: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?
N a. 60 feet 9.6 inches N b. 59 feet 2.7 inches N c. 57 feet 11.5 inches Y d. 56 feet 10.9 inches 4178: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0156
N a. 229.8 ft N b. 234.3 ft N c. 244.6 ft Y d. 253.5 ft 4189: You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)
N a. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to sea. Y b. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany. N c. You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to compensate. N d. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical mark upon arrival in the tropical zone. 4235: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as __________.
Y a. variable loads N b. stationary loads N c. fixed loads N d. basic loads 4249: How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?
N a. Run it at minimum speed until warmed to operating temperature. Y b. Idle for a brief period of time and then warm up at half speed. N c. Bring it up to top speed immediately and run until warmed up. N d. Inject ether into the air intake to shorten warm up time. 4525: Preload tank 22B on the COASTAL DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of preload. It is decided to complete filling the tank. What is the TCG of the added liquid?
N a. 65.60 feet N b. 65.74 feet N c. 65.77 feet Y d. 65.83 feet 4587: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the bow leg reaction?
N a. 4,737 kips N b. 4,916 kips Y c. 5,063 kips N d. 5,145 kips 4847: The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.
N a. pressure differences in the atmosphere N b. the length of the hose attached to the facepiece Y c. the physical exertion of the person wearing the device N d. spaces containing poisonous vapors 5042: What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?
N a. The longitude is 10°35'. N b. I am altering course to 103.5°T. Y c. Can you proceed at 1035 local time? N d. Is the latitude 10°35'? 5053: Which shape shown would be displayed by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed more than 200 meters astern of a towing vessel? (DIAGRAM 16 )
N a. A Y b. B N c. C N d. D 5201: If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________.
Y a. saltwater eductor system N b. raw water tower pumps N c. mud pumps N d. preload pumps 5941: Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.
N a. fireman's outfit Y b. low-velocity spray applicator N c. marine strainer N d. pick axe 6067: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must discharge at least 85 percent of the required amount of CO2 within __________.
N a. 1 minute Y b. 2 minutes N c. 3 minutes N d. 4 minutes 6291: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must either reposition it at greater range or __________.
N a. adjust the tensiometer N b. reduce the conductor tension Y c. use a piggyback (backing) anchor N d. increase the riser tension 6577: According to the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, "industrial personnel" are considered to be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole purpose of carrying out the industrial business of the unit, except for __________.
N a. the operator's representative Y b. the crew required by the Certificate of Inspection N c. the galley personnel N d. the designated person in charge 6585: When weight-testing a davit launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the deadweight equivalent for each person in the allowed capacity of the raft is __________.
N a. 155 pounds Y b. 165 pounds N c. 175 pounds N d. 185 pounds 6661: On a self-elevating drilling unit, draft marks must be located __________.
Y a. near each corner of the hull N b. at frame O, port and starboard N c. at bow and stern on the centerline N d. on each leg 8103: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.
Y a. 20 feet N b. 30 feet N c. 35 feet N d. 40 feet 8147: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 53.16 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. Although there are no environmental forces, trim is 2.0 feet by the stern. What is the value of LCG?
Y a. 2.16 feet N b. 2.26 feet N c. 2.36 feet N d. 2.46 feet 8183: When extracting the legs from the soil, the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER may be pulled down until the draft is __________.
N a. at the maximum load line draft N b. one foot less than maximum load line draft N c. one foot deeper than maximum load line draft Y d. one foot deeper than calculated afloat draft 8597: On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested __________.
N a. daily N b. weekly Y c. monthly N d. yearly 8761: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks N b. satisfactory, continue tripping Y c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. satisfactory, but prepare to hang off 9192: The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be __________.
N a. located in close proximity to the bridge N b. equipped with battery powered emergency lighting Y c. marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS" N d. All of the above