This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
91: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
Y a. removing the fuel N b. interrupting the chain reaction N c. removing the oxygen N d. removing the heat 264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it, the station can hoist the flag signal __________.
N a. ZP Y b. ZL N c. ZR N d. ZK 270: When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.
Y a. center of gravity will move upwards N b. GM will increase N c. center of buoyancy will move downward N d. All of the above 464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.
N a. speech N b. signaling tones N c. a busy signal Y d. All of the above 504: If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.
N a. Mayday N b. Pan-pan Y c. Securite N d. Safety 739: A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of alcohol with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 30 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water, S.G. is 1.026?
N a. .36 ft N b. .46 ft Y c. .72 ft N d. .82 ft 882: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.
N a. closing the compartment except for the ventilators Y b. completely closing the compartment N c. leaving the compartment open to the air N d. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers 1081: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
N a. heat N b. oxygen N c. fuel Y d. electricity 1243: What is TRUE about hoisting operations?
N a. Personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they are alert and wear hard hats. N b. If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning if the load is within reach. N c. If tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should be secured to the deck. Y d. Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area. 1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.
N a. spray directly on the base of the fire Y b. flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface N c. sweep the fire with the foam N d. spray directly on the surface of the fire 1341: Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to __________.
Y a. induce vomiting N b. absorb the poison from the blood N c. neutralize the poison in the blood N d. increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison 1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?
N a. A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you. N b. Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities. N c. You should always wear a gas mask. Y d. After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside. 1390: Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?
N a. Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines N b. Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines N c. Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake Y d. Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants 1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
N a. cool the bulkhead around the fire Y b. close all openings to the area N c. shut off all electrical power N d. remove combustibles from direct exposure 1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The person in charge Y b. An approved servicing facility N c. Shipyard personnel N d. A certificated lifeboatman 1585: Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.
N a. 12 hours N b. 1 day Y c. 2 days N d. 4 days 1763: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and a leg becomes stuck on the bottom, you should __________.
N a. raise the free legs all the way N b. use the engines to rotate about the leg that is stuck Y c. jack the barge down part way to pull the leg free N d. submerge the barge completely to give added pull 1778: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.
N a. after the first position report N b. 24 hours prior to departure N c. 24 hours after departure Y d. within a few hours before or after departure 1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.
N a. red and white N b. yellow and white Y c. yellow and blue N d. yellow and red 1834: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
N a. .09 foot N b. .45 foot Y c. .88 foot N d. 1.35 feet 1848: Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons?
N a. 6.43 feet N b. 6.75 feet N c. 6.99 feet Y d. 7.25 feet 2092: According to regulations, cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade A, B, C, or D liquid cargo, shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________. (vessel constructed 1970)
N a. cofferdams N b. general cargo spaces N c. passageways or living quarters Y d. gastight bulkheads 2208: Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.
N a. slack the jib sheet Y b. slack the mizzen sheet N c. put your rudder hard to port N d. All of the above 2681: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.
Y a. official number N b. home port N c. Master N d. next port-of-call 2685: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is determined by the __________.
N a. Minerals Management Service N b. Corps of Engineers Y c. Coast Guard N d. American Bureau of Shipping 2798: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.9 foot off the centerline.
N a. 1.5 feet Y b. 2.8 feet N c. 3.6 feet N d. 4.3 feet 2820: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0082
N a. FWD 26'-02", AFT 26'-08" Y b. FWD 25'-09", AFT 27'-02" N c. FWD 25'-03", AFT 28'-09" N d. FWD 24'-11", AFT 29'-11" 3052: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger vessel?
N a. They may be worn during drills N b. They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required life jackets on board N c. They need not be an approved type Y d. They must be stowed separately from approved life jackets 3081: A person who observes an individual fall overboard from an OSV should __________.
N a. immediately jump into the water to assist the individual Y b. call for help and keep the individual in sight N c. run to the radio room to send an emergency message N d. go to the control room for the distress flares 3089: What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge?
N a. Enforcement of smoking restrictions N b. Restricting vessels from coming alongside the barge Y c. Insuring that a combustible gas indicator is aboard N d. Protecting cargo hose with chafing gear 3169: Which license or document enable a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge which is transferring cargo?
N a. Operator of Uninspected Towing Vessels Y b. Certified Tankerman N c. Able Seaman N d. Ordinary Seaman/Wiper 3265: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. Ballast added to maintain draft has a VCG of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?
N a. 0.49 foot increase N b. 0.50 foot decrease Y c. 1.50 feet decrease N d. 1.80 feet decrease 3439: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.
N a. cutting the straps that enclose the container N b. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container N c. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap Y d. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release 3575: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 65.00 feet. What is the GML?
N a. 7.55 feet N b. 5.42 feet N c. 5.30 feet Y d. 5.10 feet 3676: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.
N a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode N b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft N c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB Y d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB 3770: The abandon ship signal is __________.
N a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds N b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells N d. a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle 4133: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the unit?
Y a. 526.87 long tons N b. 276.87 long tons N c. 241.50 long tons N d. 189.51 long tons 4149: Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.
Y a. rudder angle indicator N b. follow-up gear N c. telemotor position N d. Rapson slide indicator 4234: Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Dry chemical Y b. Water mist N c. Chemical foam N d. Steam smothering 4243: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the load limits in the hook, setback, conductor tension, and __________.
N a. wind loads N b. wave loads N c. pipe rack loads Y d. rotary loads 4603: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated while preparing for the passage of a severe storm. With ideal loading, the static loading on each of the three legs would be 4,715 kips. However, the LCG is 121 feet AFO and TCG is 0.5 foot to starboard of the centerline. By how many kips does the starboard leg reaction exceed the ideal loading?
N a. 00 kips N b. 32 kips Y c. 149 kips N d. 181 kips 5283: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use __________.
Y a. starboard drill water pump N b. starboard saltwater service pump N c. starboard ballast pumps N d. port ballast pumps and crossover system 5536: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?
N a. 3240 N b. 2731 N c. 2390 Y d. 2024 6035: On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________.
N a. during abandon drill Y b. during fire drill N c. weekly N d. when the rig is being moved 6605: All fire hoses on mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at least __________.
N a. 100 psi Y b. 110 psi N c. 120 psi N d. 130 psi 7007: What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?
N a. Water should be applied in a fine spray. N b. The burned area should be immersed in water. N c. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment. Y d. Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently. 7365: What is the minimum required GMT for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?
N a. 0.17 foot N b. 2.62 feet Y c. 4.34 feet N d. 9.12 feet 7385: To assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU, preparation should include __________.
N a. load testing the davit arm and the painter system Y b. removing any side protective rails and checking that the overside and surface level are clear N c. testing the spring loaded drum to assure it will retract the fall release hook N d. testing to assure that the required lamps are functioning properly 7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
N a. water depth N b. keel N c. center of flotation Y d. center of buoyancy 7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
N a. water depth N b. keel N c. center of flotation Y d. center of buoyancy 7693: Increasing the number of slack liquid tanks has the effect of raising the __________.
N a. uncorrected KG N b. maximum allowed KG Y c. virtual height of the center of gravity N d. metacentric height 7786: The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________.
N a. shield fire fighters from radiant heat Y b. break up burning material N c. get the most water possible on the fire N d. drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters 8225: On what type of pump would you find an impeller?
Y a. Centrifugal N b. Gear N c. Piston N d. Vane 8375: Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.
N a. fuel/water separators N b. day tanks N c. an injector test stand Y d. fuel filters 8441: The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not apply to MODU's that __________.
N a. are on an international voyage N b. are on a voyage of more than 24 hours N c. have a valid International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate Y d. have a valid National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit 8655: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped on the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10S has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.
N a. deballast from tank 9P N b. dump the mud N c. counterflood into 2P Y d. place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 10S 8687: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 200 long tons on board. What is the new draft?
N a. 56.55 feet Y b. 59.45 feet N c. 60.00 feet N d. 75.41 feet 8873: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new KGL?
N a. 54.76 feet N b. 55.76 feet N c. 57.22 feet Y d. 61.16 feet 9473: What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies?
Y a. metacentric height N b. metacentric radius N c. height of the metacenter N d. righting arm 9633: Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
N a. Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve. N b. Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space. N c. An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied. Y d. All of the above