USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


51: On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?


67: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.


116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?


177: Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source __________.

    N a. is used by a city
    N b. has been treated with chlorine
    Y c. is approved by the Public Health Service
    N d. is not from surface water

197: Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.

    N a. fire-main system
    N b. feed-water system
    N c. freshwater sanitary system
    Y d. domestic water tank

198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________.

    N a. be assisted in walking around
    N b. be examined then walked to a bunk
    Y c. not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
    N d. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk

333: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal flotation devices)?

    N a. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
    Y b. Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water.
    N c. Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
    N d. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used.

415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?

    N a. A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard
    Y b. A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
    N c. A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
    N d. A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility

550: The normal tendency for a loaded tanker is to __________.

    N a. hog
    Y b. sag
    N c. have a permanent list
    N d. be very tender

747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?

    N a. The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire.
    N b. They can be used only when the compartment is gas free.
    Y c. They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps.
    N d. No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed.

786: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?

    Y a. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required.
    N b. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the only distress signals required.
    N c. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provided.
    N d. A Very pistol with twelve flares is required.

834: After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".

    N a. Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours
    Y b. Commence artificial respiration immediately
    N c. Give enema
    N d. Pass catheter into bladder

1276: The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate __________.

    N a. by turning the globe clockwise
    N b. by a switch at each light
    N c. by a light sensor
    Y d. automatically when the raft is inflated

1319: Where should muster lists be posted?

    N a. In crew's accommodation spaces
    N b. On the navigating bridge
    N c. In the engine room
    Y d. All of the above

1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the __________.

    Y a. bow
    N b. mid-section
    N c. stern
    N d. All of the above

1760: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Your next course of action should be to __________.

    Y a. jack the vessel back up to a safe height
    N b. proceed on to your next destination since the list is unimportant
    N c. pump out all ballast to gain reserve buoyancy
    N d. notify the U. S. Coast Guard

1839: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020° relative would be __________.

    Y a. coming about
    N b. close hauled on the port tack
    N c. running before the wind
    N d. on a broad reach on the starboard tack

1947: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is under sail at night displaying sidelights, stern light, and a red light over a green light at the masthead. If you start the auxiliary engine and engage the propeller, you must_______.

    N a. turn your stern light off
    N b. show two green lights instead of a red and green at the masthead
    N c. display a white light in sufficient time to prevent collision
    Y d. turn off the red over green, turn on the white masthead light

1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.

    N a. one hour
    Y b. two hours
    N c. ten hours
    N d. four hours

2103: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.

    Y a. year
    N b. 18 months
    N c. two years
    N d. 30 months

2150: You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)

    Y a. 0.1 foot
    N b. 0.3 foot
    N c. 0.5 foot
    N d. 0.9 foot

2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

    Y a. On a ketch, you will most likely strike the jib before making your final approach.
    N b. On a yawl, the last sail you will strike after you have picked up the mooring will normally be the mainsail.
    N c. On a sloop, if your initial approach is to be downwind you could slow your approach by striking the jib and letting your main sheet out as far as it will go.
    N d. All of the above are correct.

2351: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower?

    N a. 5
    N b. 4
    Y c. 3
    N d. 2

2401: A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

    N a. using a 2-1/2 inch hose
    Y b. there is an outlet for the smoke and heat
    N c. the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure
    N d. at least two fog streams can be used

2458: To find the product Valeral in the Chemical Data Guide, you would have to look up the product __________.

    N a. Acrylic acid
    N b. iso-Valeraldehyde
    Y c. n-Valeraldehyde
    N d. Vinyl acetate

2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

    N a. B only
    N b. B or C
    N c. C or D
    Y d. D or E

2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

    N a. B only
    N b. B or C
    N c. C or D
    Y d. D or E

2480: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire?

    N a. CO2
    Y b. Alcohol foam
    N c. Dry chemical
    N d. Water fog

2485: A drilling bit which is doughnut shaped to permit recovery of the center portion of the hole drilled is called a __________.

    N a. diverter bit
    N b. hole reamer
    Y c. core bit
    N d. conventional bit

2592: Which signal is detected as originating from a SART?

    N a. The Morse code distress series S-O-S repeated 3 times followed by DE and the vessel's call sign
    Y b. A line of blip code on a radar screen outward from the SART's position along its line of bearing
    N c. A line of blip code on a radar screen inward from the SART's position to its own ship along its line of bearing
    N d. None of these

2602: In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

    N a. Acetic oxide
    N b. Carbinol
    N c. Carbon bisulfide
    Y d. Phenol

2690: Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________.

    N a. more harmful to sea life than lighter oils
    N b. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils
    Y c. less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
    N d. not a real threat to marine life

2780: The carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154 must be approved by the __________.

    N a. vessel owner
    Y b. Commandant (G-MTH)
    N c. American Bureau of Shipping
    N d. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection

2961: The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    Y a. posted on board under glass, if practical
    N b. posted on the dock where passengers are embarked
    N c. retained at the owner's principal place of business
    N d. kept on file by the Collector of Customs

3078: If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.

    N a. throw him/her a life buoy
    N b. hail "man overboard"
    N c. pass the word to the bridge
    Y d. All of the above

3095: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.

    Y a. when the craft clears the water
    N b. when the cable has been attached
    N c. on approach to the platform
    N d. at the embarkation

3439: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.

    N a. cutting the straps that enclose the container
    N b. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container
    N c. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap
    Y d. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release

3615: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #3 is 200 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?

    N a. 59.1 long tons
    Y b. 60.9 long tons
    N c. 89.3 long tons
    N d. 487.2 long tons

3863: On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?

    N a. One ring life buoy
    Y b. One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV
    N c. Three ring life buoys
    N d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV

4016: Fire protection regulations apply to those towing vessels __________.

    N a. used only for pollution response
    N b. owned and operated by the US government
    N c. used only within a barge fleeting area
    Y d. used only on inland waters

4116: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations will you find the answer?

    N a. Subchapter D
    N b. Subchapter G
    Y c. Subchapter T
    N d. Subchapter U

4219: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eleven days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    N a. 85 inches
    Y b. 82 inches
    N c. 80 inches
    N d. 78 inches

4375: On the COASTAL DRILLER, what is NOT considered a drilling load?

    N a. Hook load
    Y b. Cantilever pipe rack
    N c. Conductor tension
    N d. Setback

4723: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?

    N a. 2.02 degrees by the stern
    N b. 1.51 degrees by the stern
    N c. 0.98 degrees by the stern
    Y d. 0.61 degrees by the stern

5121: What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a MODU?

    N a. Heavy rains could cause downflooding.
    N b. Visibility could be restricted by low clouds.
    N c. Large waves could cause structural damage.
    Y d. Personnel may be injured by loose deck gear blown by the wind.

5361: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?

    Y a. 7,026 kips
    N b. 7,099 kips
    N c. 7,144 kips
    N d. 7,180 kips

5515: What should be done after repairing a surface crack on a link of anchor chain by grinding?

    Y a. Examine the area by magnetic particle inspection
    N b. Replace the chain in service
    N c. Galvanize the area
    N d. Post heat the area

5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

    N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
    N b. satisfactory, continue tripping
    Y c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft
    N d. satisfactory, place unit in standby

6395: The term "lost circulation" refers to situations when drilling fluid is lost by __________.

    N a. overflowing the drill nipple
    N b. making drill string connections
    Y c. flowing into drilled formations
    N d. an overflow in the mud pits

6907: On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for __________.

    Y a. any amount of time
    N b. more than 24 hours
    N c. more than 36 hours
    N d. more than 72 hours

7027: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.

    N a. administer artificial respiration
    N b. put him in a tub of ice water
    Y c. give him sips of cool water
    N d. cover him with a light cloth

8321: The maximum concentration of H2S to which workers may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is __________.

    N a. 10 ppm
    Y b. 20 ppm
    N c. 40 ppm
    N d. 80 ppm

8405: The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

    Y a. causes corrosion
    N b. reduces the effectiveness of the coolant
    N c. can form air pockets which exclude coolant contact with hot surfaces
    N d. accelerates formation of hydrogen peroxide deposits

8555: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.

    N a. gate valve
    Y b. pressure gauge
    N c. check valve
    N d. strainer

8735: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of FSML for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank #5P are transferred to Tank #5S?

    N a. 3,645 ft-tons
    N b. 3,328 ft-tons
    Y c. 317 ft-tons
    N d. 0 ft-tons

8767: In securing deck loads for an ocean tow, drill pipe should be __________.

    N a. galvanized to protect against corrosion
    N b. held in place with heavy materials such as spare pendant wire
    N c. limited to no more than five courses high
    Y d. provided with bulwarks at both ends of their bays

9477: The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.

    N a. effort
    N b. flotation
    N c. gravity
    Y d. buoyancy

9622: You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

    Y a. Attempt to determine what is burning.
    N b. Acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus.
    N c. Break out the nearest fire hose.
    N d. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed.

9641: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

    N a. 1 long ton
    Y b. 300 pounds
    N c. 900 pounds
    N d. 1,500 pounds

9661: In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2 __________.

    N a. from inside the engine room
    N b. from the bridge
    N c. from the cargo control station
    Y d. at the cylinder location