This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
25: You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of compliance with MARPOL 73/78. Y b. The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years. N c. An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized thereon. N d. AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification. 78: Before CPR is started, you should __________.
Y a. establish an open airway N b. treat any bleeding wounds N c. insure the victim is conscious N d. make the victim comfortable 151: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0002
Y a. 1.50 feet N b. 1.96 feet N c. 2.21 feet N d. 2.78 feet 262: Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?
N a. Manual fire detection system Y b. Automatic fire detection system N c. Smoke detection system N d. Watchman's supervisory system 289: You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to "head up". You should __________.
N a. turn the wheel to port if you are steering with a wheel N b. push the tiller to starboard if you are steering with a tiller Y c. turn the rudder to starboard N d. All of the above are correct 328: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?
N a. Dermal burn Y b. Third-degree burn N c. Major burn N d. Lethal burn 350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
N a. flowing from side to side within the vessel N b. flowing from fore to aft within a vessel Y c. flowing in and out of a holed wing tank N d. pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels 398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.
Y a. immerse the burn in cold water N b. administer aspirin N c. apply petroleum jelly N d. apply a bandage to exclude air 531: A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.
N a. reading the gage pressure Y b. weighing the extinguisher N c. discharging a small amount of CO2 N d. seeing if the seal has been broken 693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.
N a. produce high-velocity fog Y b. produce low-velocity fog N c. produce a straight stream N d. shut off the water 860: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.
N a. at the bow N b. in the lower holds Y c. amidships N d. at the ends 900: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT __________.
N a. mean draft Y b. trim N c. displacement N d. deadweight 1299: In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?
Y a. Giving stimulants N b. Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere N c. Applying artificial respiration and massage N d. Keeping the patient warm and comfortable 1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
N a. Spliced into the ring on the stem post N b. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart Y c. Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls N d. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls 1374: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.
Y a. sealing clamps N b. repair tape N c. a tube patch N d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit 1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.
N a. compression stress N b. racking stress N c. shear stress Y d. tension stress 1500: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0040
N a. Available GM 6.9 ft N b. Available GM 5.3 ft Y c. Available GM 4.1 ft N d. Available GM 3.8 ft 1781: Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?
N a. 406 MHz via EPIRB N b. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via INMARSAT N c. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies Y d. All of the above 1851: When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate the signal __________.
Y a. on the downwind side N b. on the upwind side N c. inside the boat N d. at the stern 1963: How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?
N a. All INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for immediate action. N b. By adding the word "DISTRESS" in the first line of the message's preamble Y c. Certain INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for immediate action, while other systems provide menu-driven features. N d. By transmitting the distress message on the U.S. Coast Guard's dedicated monitoring channel. 2008: Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
N a. 1.14 feet N b. 1.36 feet Y c. 1.55 feet N d. 1.96 feet 2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
Y a. 2.4 feet (0.70 meters) N b. 2.8 feet (0.85 meters) N c. 3.0 feet (0.90 meters) N d. 3.2 feet (0.98 meters) 2195: Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and(or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. Rig superintendent N b. Tool Pusher N c. Company man Y d. Designated person in charge 2294: Which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a cyclohexane fire?
N a. Foam N b. Carbon dioxide N c. Dry chemical Y d. Water fog 2398: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.
N a. understanding the GMDSS console's normal operational indicators N b. maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log N c. responding to and comprehending alarms Y d. All of the above 2514: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 5,800 foot-tons N b. 7,600 foot-tons Y c. 9,272 foot-tons N d. 11,200 foot-tons 2527: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0070
N a. 1171.5 tons N b. 1311.0 tons Y c. 1503.0 tons N d. 1710.5 tons 2603: Where is the keel generally located on a MODU?
N a. Along the midships axis Y b. Along the centerline of the lower hulls N c. Along the roll axis of the hull N d. Along the axis of rotation of the hull 2649: Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________.
N a. alkalies Y b. concentrated nitric acid N c. saltwater N d. organic acids 2704: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?
Y a. Pressure gauge N b. Strainer N c. Reduction valve N d. International shore connection 2743: Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the __________.
N a. Ballast Control Operator N b. Barge Supervisor Y c. Master or Offshore Installation Manager N d. operators representative 2881: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected towing vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. 2 N b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 5 3351: In good weather, you should deploy the sea anchor from the liferaft to __________.
N a. keep the liferaft from capsizing N b. navigate against the current N c. keep personnel from getting seasick Y d. stay in the general location 3390: Non-required lifesaving equipment carried as additional equipment aboard small passenger vessels __________.
N a. must be removed when carrying passengers Y b. must be approved by the Commandant N c. may be substituted for not more than 5% of the required lifejackets N d. may be carried regardless of approval or condition, if in excess of required lifesaving equipment 3428: Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently displayed?
N a. A 200 GT vessel carrying more than 50 passengers N b. A 325 GT vessel on a voyage in excess of 8 hours N c. A 550 GT vessel with sleeping accommodations Y d. A 1100 GT vessel making daylight excursion trips only 3558: Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________.
Y a. stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position N b. limit the amount of cable on the drum N c. limit the ascent rate N d. stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit 3560: How should the number "4" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. QUAD-ROS-FOOR N b. NUM-ERL-FOUR N c. NUMB-ER-FOWER Y d. KAR-TAY-FOWER 3642: When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?
N a. Out Y b. Over N c. Roger N d. Wilco 3843: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this quantity of ballast?
N a. 729 ft-long tons N b. 6,707 ft-long tons N c. 19,609 ft-long tons Y d. 27,652 ft-long tons 3960: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________.
N a. rigid liferaft Y b. life float N c. inflatable liferaft N d. survival capsule 4047: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the centerline. What is the improvement in KGT?
N a. 0.68 foot N b. 0.99 foot Y c. 1.16 feet N d. 2.07 feet 4546: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
N a. direct contact N b. radiation N c. conduction Y d. convection 4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.
N a. OIM's quarters N b. OIM's office N c. control house Y d. bilge pit 4697: A tank with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with fresh water weighing 62.4 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?
N a. 54.4 kips N b. 64.7 kips N c. 95.8 kips Y d. 124.8 kips 5075: What lighting characteristic is required of an obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf?
N a. Fixed N b. Flashing Y c. Quick-flashing N d. Occulting 5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed __________.
Y a. at the anchor end of the line N b. at the wildcat end of the line N c. midway between the anchor and the wildcat N d. through the anchor buoy 5857: In towing it is desirable for the tug and the MODU to ride wave crests simultaneously because __________.
Y a. shock loading on the tow line is reduced N b. towing speed is improved N c. the MODU is more visible from the tug N d. the catenary of the tow line is reduced 5915: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system on board an offshore rig?
N a. The fire pump N b. Exposed hard piping N c. The hydrant valve Y d. The fire hose 6042: Canvas sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.
N a. left in the sunlight Y b. stowed wet N c. folded frequently N d. washed with soap and water 6685: On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?
N a. To replace a damaged life preserver N b. For use during fire drills N c. For use during boat drills Y d. At no time 6737: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.
N a. week N b. two weeks Y c. month N d. two months 8125: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the starboard pump room. Both starboard bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the performance of the bilge pumps by using the __________.
N a. starboard saltwater service pump Y b. starboard drill water pump N c. starboard ballast pump N d. port ballast pump and crossover system 8191: During a severe storm while the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, on board loads must be shifted so that the TCG is on the centerline and the LCG is __________.
N a. 40.00 feet AF0 N b. 68.33 feet AF0 Y c. 119.44 feet AF0 N d. 160.33 feet AF0 8327: When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?
N a. 20 Y b. 50 N c. 100 N d. 200 8583: After cranes have been installed on offshore drilling units the hooks, hook block, slings, rib and other rigging must be load tested. This test must be performed once each __________.
N a. 12 months N b. 24 months N c. 36 months Y d. 48 months 8827: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the heel?
N a. 1 foot to starboard N b. 2 feet to starboard Y c. 2 feet to port N d. 1 foot to port 8851: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has an allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the GML?
N a. 1.43 feet N b. 7.56 feet N c. 7.80 feet Y d. 9.03 feet 9251: For well control, the American Petroleum Institute recommends that hydraulic units have sufficient horsepower to close the annular preventer in __________.
N a. 15 seconds Y b. 30 seconds N c. 45 seconds N d. 60 seconds 9425: Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?
N a. KM + GM N b. KM - GM Y c. KM - KG N d. KB + BM 9447: When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.
N a. free surface moments N b. righting arm Y c. height of the metacenter N d. corrected height of the center of gravity