This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
N a. 6° N b. 12° Y c. 20° N d. 25° 238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.
N a. the bone has been set Y b. the fracture is immobilized N c. radio advice has been obtained N d. the wound has been washed 264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it, the station can hoist the flag signal __________.
N a. ZP Y b. ZL N c. ZR N d. ZK 311: Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.
N a. an unprotected drop-light bulb Y b. careless disposal or storage of material N c. smoking in bed N d. worn electrical wires on power tools 381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
N a. The distance is 325 miles. Y b. The longitude is 3°25'. N c. The course is 325°. N d. Change course to 325°. 408: If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source and then __________.
N a. administer ammonia smelling salts N b. check for serious burns on the body Y c. determine if he is breathing N d. massage vigorously to restore circulation 463: When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system __________.
N a. pump must operate whenever the engine is operating N b. must have a suitable hull strainer in the raw water intake N c. may use a closed fresh water system Y d. All of the above 481: How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. DUKE N b. DA VID N c. DOG Y d. DELL TAH 581: You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. All flammable liquids must be stowed in the paint locker or specially constructed integral tanks. Y b. The label of a hazardous ships' store must include instructions for safe stowage. N c. Replacement CO2 cylinders for the fixed fire fighting system must have been tested within 8 years of receipt. N d. Cartridges for the line throwing appliance must be stored in the portable magazine chest after receipt. 752: Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?
N a. The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire. Y b. The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction. N c. The powder forms a solid coating over the surface. N d. The dry chemical smothers the fire. 840: If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?
Y a. Compression N b. Tension N c. Thrust N d. Racking 922: An upright vessel has negative GM. GM becomes positive at the angle of loll because the __________.
N a. free surface effects are reduced due to pocketing N b. KG is reduced as the vessel seeks the angle of loll Y c. effective beam is increased causing BM to increase N d. underwater volume of the hull is increased 969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.
Y a. tipping center N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of gravity N d. turning center 1007: What is the BEST conductor of electricity?
N a. Carbon dioxide N b. Distilled water N c. Fresh water Y d. Salt water 1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
N a. before the gripes are released N b. before the boat is moved from the davits Y c. at the embarkation deck N d. after the boat is in the water 1217: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?
Y a. Dry chemical and carbon dioxide N b. Foam (stored pressure) and soda-acid N c. Carbon dioxide and foam (stored pressure) N d. Dry chemical and soda-acid 1466: You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds __________.
N a. one percent of the weight of the charge N b. five percent of the weight of the charge N c. seven percent of the weight of the charge Y d. ten percent of the weight of the charge 1488: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.
N a. be dryer N b. be lighter Y c. be more heat resistant N d. cling to vertical surfaces 1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?
N a. Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process. Y b. The threads on the male end are protected by the hose. N c. Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings. N d. Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose. 1630: A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?
N a. Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container. N b. Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel. Y c. Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly. N d. Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded. 1673: In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________.
N a. 39°Fahrenheit or less N b. 44°Fahrenheit or less N c. 49°Fahrenheit or less Y d. 59°Fahrenheit or less 1788: Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?
N a. Channel 6 N b. Channel 13 Y c. Channel 16 N d. Channel 70 1923: Except as provided by approved special examinations, each offshore drilling unit must be dry-docked at least once during every __________.
N a. 12 month period N b. 18 month period Y c. 24 month period N d. 36 month period 2183: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.
Y a. name and port of the unit N b. owner and port of the unit N c. drilling location N d. builder 2204: Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?
N a. Radio direction finding Y b. Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue coordination, on-scene communications, signals for locating, Maritime Safety Information, general and bridge-to-bridge communications. N c. Communications in each of the operational ocean areas N d. All communications possible within the International Safety-NET service 2237: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
N a. displacement N b. free surface N c. draft Y d. KG 2309: Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft; KG is 20.5 ft. The angle of list when the weight is lifted will be __________.
N a. 1.4° N b. 2.8° N c. 3.4° Y d. 5.8° 2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.
N a. aluminum riser N b. tapered riser Y c. buoyant riser N d. intermediate tensioner 2631: In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam to a __________.
N a. bulkhead Y b. frame N c. stanchion N d. deck longitudinal 2650: Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin?
N a. Sulfuric acid N b. Nitric acid N c. Isocyanates Y d. Ammonia 2930: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 16'-08". If you then load 1225 tons of cargo in the lower hold (VCG 12 feet) and 875 tons of cargo in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 0.0 feet Y b. 0.8 foot N c. 1.2 feet N d. 1.9 feet 2993: Convection spreads a fire by __________.
N a. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space N b. burning liquids flowing into another space N c. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal Y d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems 3040: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-10". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
Y a. 4819 tons N b. 4982 tons N c. 5012 tons N d. 5099 tons 3154: How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. Two N b. Three N c. Four N d. Five 3413: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 61.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG?
N a. -0.12 foot N b. 0.12 foot Y c. 2.11 feet N d. 2.35 feet 3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.
N a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire Y b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system N c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system N d. use high-expansion foam 3567: What are the maximum vertical moments including free surface moments permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are greater than 70 knots?
Y a. 942,120 foot-tons N b. 946,271 foot-tons N c. 974,441 foot-tons N d. 1,059,885 foot-tons 3576: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0141
N a. 1220 tons N b. 840 tons N c. 460 tons Y d. 344 tons 3592: When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning an OSV?
Y a. Immediately N b. After one hour N c. Only when another vessel is in sight N d. Only after sunset 3727: The DEEP DRILLER is engaged in wire line logging. You have 10,000 feet of drill pipe and bottom hole assembly in the set back. Marine weather forecasts are predicting weather with winds in excess of 70 knots. Your first step to prepare for the storm should be to __________.
Y a. suspend wire line operations and run the drill string into the hole N b. continue wire line operations and bring the rig to a 45 foot draft N c. suspend wire line operations and dump your mud pits overboard N d. increase tension on all anchor chains to minimize movement of the rig 3778: When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________.
N a. separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection N b. transfer all supplies to one raft N c. transfer all the injured to one raft Y d. secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart 3786: When using the rainwater collection tubes of a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be __________.
N a. passed around so all can drink Y b. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy N c. saved to be used at a later time N d. used to boil food 3793: When the ullage is 6.4 feet in P-Tank #5 for the Deep Driller, what is the value of the longitudinal moment?
N a. -2,254 foot-tons N b. -2,949 foot-tons N c. -3,392 foot-tons Y d. -4,249 foot-tons 3822: In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________.
N a. thirsty Y b. sick or injured N c. wet N d. awake 3849: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.
N a. examining the Certificate of Inspection Y b. examining the plate on the outside of the raft container N c. referring to the Muster List ("Station Bill") N d. referring to the shipping articles 3916: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
N a. pushing up on one side Y b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards N c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder N d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate 4026: When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to carry portable fuel systems on board?
N a. When used for outboard engines N b. When permanently attached to portable equipment such as bilge and fire pumps N c. If the portable tanks used for portable equipment meet published safety standards Y d. All of the above 4133: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the unit?
Y a. 526.87 long tons N b. 276.87 long tons N c. 241.50 long tons N d. 189.51 long tons 4743: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?
N a. 46 feet AFO Y b. 84 feet AFO N c. 189 feet AFO N d. 217 feet AFO 4748: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 3885 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 278.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0168
N a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet Y b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet N c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet N d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet 4755: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in vertical moments with this transfer?
N a. 81 ft-kips increase N b. 31 ft-kips increase Y c. 26 ft-kips decrease N d. 47 ft-kips decrease 5085: A mobile offshore drilling unit must display obstruction lights when it is on the waters over the Outer Continental Shelf and is __________.
N a. under tow Y b. fixed to the seabed N c. underway N d. All of the above 5507: The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for __________.
N a. anchor chain N b. wire rope Y c. connecting links N d. pendant wires 5722: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?
N a. 25.1 feet Y b. 25.4 feet N c. 25.7 feet N d. 26.0 feet 6071: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must withstand a bursting pressure of at least __________.
N a. 5,000 pounds per square inch Y b. 6,000 pounds per square inch N c. 8,000 pounds per square inch N d. 10,000 pounds per square inch 6858: A hydraulic accumulator is designed to __________.
Y a. store fluid under pressure N b. act as a fluid reservoir N c. provide overpressure relief N d. replenish fluid to a system 6937: A casualty report of an intentional grounding of a MODU is required under what condition?
N a. Under any condition N b. If the grounding lasts over 24 hours Y c. If it creates a hazard to the environment N d. At the owner's discretion 7343: What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?
N a. One watt N b. Five watts N c. 15 watts Y d. 25 watts 8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
Y a. 10P N b. 9P N c. 10S N d. 1P 8849: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently bolted flange oil hose coupling?
N a. 3 N b. 4 N c. 6 Y d. A bolt must be used in every hole.