USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


115: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?


116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?


239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?


294: If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist it should __________.

    N a. hoist ZQ
    N b. hoist ZL
    Y c. keep the answering pennant at the dip
    N d. raise and lower the answering pennant

314: The flag hoist 1.33 would be sent as __________.

    N a. 1, answer pennant, 3, first substitute
    Y b. 1, answer pennant, 3, second substitute
    N c. 1, answer pennant, 3, third substitute
    N d. N, 1, answer pennant, 3

367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________.

    N a. U.S. Coast Guard
    Y b. Federal Communications Commission
    N c. Radio Technical Commission for Marine Services
    N d. Maritime Mobile Service Commission

523: The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the __________.

    N a. sheer strake
    N b. bilge strake
    Y c. garboard strake
    N d. keel rib

610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

    N a. initial stability
    N b. free surface
    N c. permeability
    Y d. stability at large angles of inclination

657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?

    Y a. 1 watt or less
    N b. 5 watts
    N c. 10 watts
    N d. 20 watts

660: Reserve buoyancy is __________.

    Y a. the watertight part of a vessel above the waterline
    N b. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight
    N c. transverse watertight bulkheads
    N d. a measure of metacentric height

885: Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

    N a. Type I
    N b. Type II
    Y c. Type III
    N d. Type IV

979: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

    N a. After 12 hours
    Y b. After 24 hours
    N c. Within 48 hours
    N d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later.

988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?

    Y a. Carbon dioxide
    N b. Water (stored pressure)
    N c. Foam
    N d. Carbon tetrachloride

1349: What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker?

    N a. Hydraulic oil
    Y b. Water-antifreeze mixture
    N c. Distilled water
    N d. Oil from the cargo

1350: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0036

    N a. 2.45 feet
    N b. 1.95 feet
    Y c. 1.05 feet
    N d. 0.90 foot

1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

    N a. cool the bulkhead around the fire
    Y b. close all openings to the area
    N c. shut off all electrical power
    N d. remove combustibles from direct exposure

1491: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? (D006SA )

    Y a. C
    N b. D
    N c. E
    N d. G

1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?

    Y a. A bolt must be used in every hole.
    N b. 6
    N c. 4
    N d. 3

1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

    Y a. one mast
    N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast

2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships.

    N a. FWD 19'-07", AFT 20'-10"
    Y b. FWD 19'-09", AFT 21'-01"
    N c. FWD 20'-00", AFT 21'-00"
    N d. FWD 20'-01", AFT 21'-05"

2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

    Y a. On a ketch, you will most likely strike the jib before making your final approach.
    N b. On a yawl, the last sail you will strike after you have picked up the mooring will normally be the mainsail.
    N c. On a sloop, if your initial approach is to be downwind you could slow your approach by striking the jib and letting your main sheet out as far as it will go.
    N d. All of the above are correct.

2452: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 20,790 foot-tons
    N b. 22,200 foot-tons
    Y c. 25,520 foot-tons
    N d. 28,080 foot-tons

2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45° inclination.

    N a. 1.8 feet
    N b. 2.6 feet
    N c. 2.9 feet
    Y d. 3.6 feet

2816: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. 30 feet long
    Y b. 60 feet long
    N c. 90 feet long
    N d. 120 feet long

2832: Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. Kerosene
    N b. Coal
    N c. Wood
    Y d. Gasoline

2835: A vessel heading NNE is on a course of __________.

    Y a. 022.5°
    N b. 045.0°
    N c. 067.5°
    N d. 090.0°

2868: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-06", AFT 17'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0085

    N a. 0.52 foot
    N b. 0.70 foot
    Y c. 0.84 foot
    N d. 1.10 feet

2877: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars is __________.

    N a. 2
    Y b. 3
    N c. 4
    N d. 5

2930: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 16'-08". If you then load 1225 tons of cargo in the lower hold (VCG 12 feet) and 875 tons of cargo in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 0.0 feet
    Y b. 0.8 foot
    N c. 1.2 feet
    N d. 1.9 feet

3319: If you have a liquefied flammable gas barge in tow, which is NOT required of you with respect to the barge and its cargo?

    N a. Make periodic inspections of bilges.
    N b. Keep the barge under constant surveillance.
    N c. Have a properly certificated tankerman or at least one licensed officer on board the towing vessel.
    Y d. Verify ullage readings.

3327: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 20,000 long tons. LCB is 3.0 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 40 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 3.64 feet forward of amidships
    N b. 2.45 feet forward of amidships
    Y c. 2.36 feet forward of amidships
    N d. 0.55 foot forward of amidships

3383: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 45 feet, has a three-foot trim by the stern and a two-foot list to port. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?

    Y a. 42.5 feet
    N b. 44.5 feet
    N c. 45.5 feet
    N d. 47.5 feet

3605: While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4. Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?

    N a. 1,218 feet
    Y b. 1,398 feet
    N c. 1,752 feet
    N d. 1,844 feet

3673: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    N a. 2S
    N b. 9S
    Y c. C2BS
    N d. C2BP

3682: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?

    N a. 4 to 6 times per minute
    Y b. 12 to 15 times per minute
    N c. 20 to 30 times per minute
    N d. At least 30 times per minute

3731: If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to __________.

    Y a. 50 knots
    N b. 70 knots
    N c. 90 knots
    N d. 100 knots

3867: Each OSV must carry __________.

    N a. one category I 406 Mhz satellite EPIRB
    N b. at least one life buoy on each side of the vessel fitted with a buoyant life line
    N c. at least 12 rocket parachute flares
    Y d. All of the above

3892: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

    N a. 24 months
    N b. 36 months
    Y c. 42 months
    N d. 54 months

3992: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3300 brake horsepower?

    N a. 2
    N b. 3
    Y c. 4
    N d. 5

4089: Which piece of navigational safety equipment is NOT required on towing vessels over 12 meters in length, provided that the vessel remains within the navigable waters of the U.S.?

    N a. VHF-FM radio(s)
    Y b. LORAN-C or GPS receiver
    N c. Charts or maps of the areas to be transited
    N d. Searchlight

4491: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a displacement of 13,553 kips, has a draft of __________.

    N a. 10.5 feet
    N b. 11 feet 6 inches
    N c. 11 feet 2 inches
    Y d. 10 feet 5 inches

4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.

    Y a. environmental loading
    N b. variable loading
    N c. fixed loading
    N d. basic loading

4616: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

    Y a. 19'-00"
    N b. 19'-04"
    N c. 19'-09"
    N d. 20'-01"

4737: In the COASTAL DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.

    N a. adding the sum of the weights
    N b. subtracting the sum of the weights
    N c. multiplying by the sum of the weights
    Y d. dividing by the sum of the weights

5535: What effect is achieved from soaking an anchor?

    Y a. It allows the bottom soil to consolidate.
    N b. It gives the palms time to trip the anchor.
    N c. It stabilizes the mooring system.
    N d. It lubricates the anchor for better tripping.

5574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0181

    Y a. Available GM 2.8 ft
    N b. Available GM 3.2 ft
    N c. Available GM 3.5 ft
    N d. Available GM 3.8 ft

5691: In a storm, the windward lines of a MODU's mooring system provide __________.

    N a. a positive righting moment
    N b. an increase in KM
    N c. a negative restoring force
    Y d. a positive restoring force

5905: The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated __________.

    N a. at each alarm bell
    N b. at each alarm actuator
    N c. near all exits
    Y d. on the Muster List ("Station Bill")

5931: If the charted water depth is 200 feet, the limits of service for the COASTAL DRILLER require an air gap of __________.

    N a. 35 feet
    N b. 32 feet
    Y c. 30 feet
    N d. 25 feet

6665: On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.

    Y a. posted with instructions on the operation of the system
    N b. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
    N c. painted with red and black diagonal stripes
    N d. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting

6677: The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU must be approved by the __________.

    N a. lease operator
    N b. Minerals Management Service
    Y c. Coast Guard
    N d. person-in-charge of the unit

6765: A qualified person must be assigned as the second in command of a lifeboat on a MODU if the lifeboat has a capacity of more than __________.

    N a. 20 persons
    N b. 30 persons
    Y c. 40 persons
    N d. 50 persons

7593: The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called the __________.

    Y a. righting arm
    N b. metacentric height
    N c. metacentric radius
    N d. height of the center of buoyancy

8184: What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?

    Y a. Less fuel consumption per SHP
    N b. Diesel fuel costs less than bunker C or its equivalent
    N c. Less routine maintenance required
    N d. Less weight per SHP

8695: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new displacement?

    N a. 16,263 long tons
    Y b. 17,642 long tons
    N c. 17,842 long tons
    N d. 18,118 long tons

8823: The draft at the forward draft mark of a jack-up is 11 feet 3 inches while the draft at the aft draft mark is 12 feet 9 inches. The value of trim is __________.

    N a. six inches to the stern
    Y b. 1 foot 6 inches to the stern
    N c. 3 feet to the stern
    N d. 24 feet to the stern

9253: At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well head, __________.

    N a. the total weight in air of the casing string is removed from the MODU
    Y b. the hook load (weight of the casing string) is removed from the MODU
    N c. the weight of the casing inside the riser is removed from the MODU
    N d. the weight of the casing string added to the weight of the fill-up mud is removed from the MODU

9311: Basic emergency care for third degree electrical burn is to __________.

    N a. flood the burned area with warm water for two minutes
    N b. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area
    Y c. cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility
    N d. apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth

9471: What is used as an indicator of initial stability?

    Y a. GM
    N b. KG
    N c. KM
    N d. GZ

9581: The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.

    Y a. break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control
    N b. sound evacuation alarm, pull handle
    N c. open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle
    N d. open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm