This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
N a. KG will increase Y b. Metacentric height will increase N c. KB will increase N d. Reserve buoyancy will decrease 484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________.
N a. routine message N b. urgent message N c. distress message Y d. safety message 722: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0016
N a. FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-00" Y b. FWD 23'-07", AFT 26'-07" N c. FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-02" N d. FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-10" 791: During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. The smoke's color will be __________.
Y a. black N b. red N c. orange N d. yellow 813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
N a. abandon ship N b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations Y c. fire and emergency N d. man overboard 865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.
N a. be connected at the highest point in the tank N b. terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion resistant wire screen of at least 30x30 mesh N c. be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from being trapped in the line Y d. All of the above 894: Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by __________.
N a. whistle N b. flag hoist N c. radiotelephone Y d. radiotelegraph 1006: An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) __________.
N a. air bottle for breathing N b. orange smoke canister Y c. whistle, light and retroreflective material N d. sea dye marker 1028: Symptoms of heat stroke are __________.
N a. cold and moist skin, high body temperature N b. cold and dry skin, low body temperature N c. hot and moist skin, high body temperature Y d. hot and dry skin, high body temperature 1058: Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?
N a. Both are higher than normal burning temperatures. N b. The flash point is always higher. Y c. The ignition temperature is always higher. N d. They are not necessarily related. 1263: When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is __________.
N a. a hard hat N b. gloves Y c. goggles N d. a long sleeve shirt 1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.
N a. put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will go N b. take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy sea Y c. head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage N d. place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow heavy 1392: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
N a. removing the heat N b. removing the oxygen Y c. removing the fuel N d. interrupting the chain reaction 1405: When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.
Y a. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel N b. not fastened to anything N c. secured to the hydrostatic release N d. fastened to the raft container 1511: Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?
N a. Ration food and water supplies. Y b. Take anti-seasickness pills, if available. N c. Determine position and closest point of land. N d. Check pyrotechnic supplies. 1572: Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board?
N a. 3 red parachute flares N b. 6 red hand flares Y c. 1 electric distress light N d. 3 orange smoke signals 1617: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.
N a. be wetter Y b. be lighter N c. be more heat resistant N d. not cling to vertical surfaces 1720: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 6 Y b. 5 N c. 3 N d. 3 STARBOARD 1838: When a sail is reefed, the sail area is _______ .
Y a. reduced N b. increased N c. widened N d. unchanged 1997: Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________.
N a. 5 nautical miles from nearest land N b. 12 nautical miles from nearest land N c. 25 nautical miles from nearest land Y d. None of the above 2004: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
Y a. 60 tons N b. 100 tons N c. 180 tons N d. 240 tons 2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?
N a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency. Y b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. N c. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. N d. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. 2109: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.
Y a. change course and put the stern to the wind N b. remain on course and hold speed N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed N d. remain on course but slack the speed 2331: What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing?
N a. Shaft seal Y b. Water flinger N c. Drain hole N d. Lantern ring 2347: Which references should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?
N a. ITU list of Equipment Operations Y b. The manufacturer's operating manuals N c. 47 CFR Part 80 N d. Information available through SafetyNET channels 2444: When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.
N a. position will automatically be sent Y b. position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert N c. MMSI will indicate its ocean region N d. None of the above 2468: What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid?
N a. Methyl alcohol N b. Heptane Y c. Mineral spirits N d. iso-Hexane 2637: The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.
Y a. Load Line mark N b. Certificate of Inspection N c. Muster List ("Station Bill") N d. Tonnage mark 2647: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?
N a. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. N b. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. Y c. Communications involving safety of life at sea do not have to be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. N d. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an onboard licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline.
Y a. 0.0 feet N b. 0.5 foot N c. 1.2 feet N d. 1.7 feet 2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
N a. only when there is positive stability N b. only when there is negative stability N c. only when there is neutral stability Y d. at all times 2956: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-10.6", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0089
N a. FWD 22'-00.1", AFT 23'-00.1" N b. FWD 21'-11.0", AFT 23'-01.2" Y c. FWD 21'-10.0", AFT 22'-10.0" N d. FWD 21'-08.9", AFT 22'-11.1" 2964: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03".
Y a. 26° N b. 30° N c. 34° N d. 53° 3036: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0098
N a. 262.3 ft N b. 264.9 ft Y c. 268.1 ft N d. 270.3 ft 3102: Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. Carbon dioxide N b. Steam smothering N c. Chemical foam N d. All of the above 3461: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface correction is __________.
N a. 1.25 feet N b. 0.82 foot N c. 0.34 foot Y d. 0.18 foot 3591: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the starboard drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the port drafts is 61.0 feet. KGT is 52.84 feet. What is the value of TCG?
N a. -2.00 feet N b. -1.00 foot Y c. -0.16 foot N d. -0.10 foot 3595: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of TCG?
Y a. 0.00 on the centerline N b. 2.23 feet forward of amidships N c. 2.26 feet forward of amidships N d. 2.31 feet forward of amidships 3605: While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4. Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?
N a. 1,218 feet Y b. 1,398 feet N c. 1,752 feet N d. 1,844 feet 3865: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean service?
N a. 4 Y b. 8 N c. 12 N d. 16 3909: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?
N a. It shall be fired at least once in every three months. Y b. A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months. N c. Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually. N d. No drills are required. 3921: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has -3,600 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 10P and 10S to level the unit in list?
Y a. 25.1 long tons N b. 50.2 long tons N c. 62.8 long tons N d. 252.1 long tons 4121: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the weight of the missing load?
N a. 220.7 long tons N b. 235.3 long tons N c. 253.7 long tons Y d. 272.7 long tons 4188: You are the operator of a 295 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Which type of fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel, if its construction was contracted for before August 27, 2003? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. Type B-V semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system N b. Type B-IV semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system N c. Type B-III semi-portable AND a fixed fire-extinguishing system N d. Fixed CO2, AND another fixed fire-extinguishing system 4190: You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance. N b. You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B. N c. You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance. Y d. You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering the winter zone. 4203: While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________.
N a. 0.8 second N b. 6.2 seconds Y c. 13.0 seconds N d. 17.0 seconds 4417: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in an ocean transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 8 degrees. What is the minimum period of motion which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?
Y a. 10 seconds N b. 8 seconds N c. 6 seconds N d. 4 seconds 4591: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 100 feet of water with 0 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 50 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.
N a. 6,180 kips N b. 6,320 kips Y c. 6,440 kips N d. 6,520 kips 4655: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the drill water in drill water tanks #6 and #25 are discharged, what is the new draft?
N a. 8.26 feet Y b. 10.66 feet N c. 10.88 feet N d. 11.10 feet 4658: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.
N a. 18'-06" N b. 18'-02" Y c. 17'-11" N d. 17'-08" 4677: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?
N a. 47.49 feet N b. 49.16 feet Y c. 50.82 feet N d. 50.93 feet 4813: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KML if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?
N a. 253.90 feet N b. 253.24 feet Y c. 252.92 feet N d. 252.24 feet 5567: What is the most important difference between the bow type anchor shackle and the D-type anchor shackle?
N a. The bow type shackle provides a superior connection. N b. The D-type shackle is weaker than the bow type. Y c. The bow type shackle is weaker than the D-type. N d. The D-type shackle provides an inferior connection. 5907: The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.
Y a. person in charge N b. Coast Guard marine inspection officer N c. company safety director N d. entire crew 7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
N a. water depth N b. keel N c. center of flotation Y d. center of buoyancy 8213: What fitting should you install in the rig piping to a pump to facilitate disconnecting the pump for servicing?
N a. Coupling Y b. Union N c. Flange N d. Nipple 8355: What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?
Y a. Volatility N b. Viscosity N c. Flash point N d. Specific heat 9205: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed __________.
N a. horizontally and directly abeam of your vessel N b. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract N c. into the wind Y d. at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon 9277: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?
N a. 100.0 feet N b. 109.2 feet Y c. 110.4 feet N d. 119.2 feet 9483: A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.
N a. pressed Y b. slack N c. inertial N d. elemental