USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


71: Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.


265: The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________.


409: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons.)


591: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0014

    N a. 2.82 feet
    N b. 2.97 feet
    N c. 3.15 feet
    Y d. 3.24 feet

623: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

743: In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.

    N a. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne
    Y b. the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
    N c. there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube
    N d. the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise

760: With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________.

    Y a. on most "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length
    N b. on most "T-Boats" regardless of length
    N c. only on "K-Boats"
    N d. None of the above

793: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

    N a. 6%
    Y b. 8%
    N c. 10%
    N d. 12%

915: Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels?

    N a. Protection where people or equipment can contact the pipe.
    N b. Piping must be arranged so that water backflow cannot reach the engine exhaust ports
    N c. Dry exhaust pipe ending at the transom should be located as far outboard as possible
    Y d. All of the above

1272: When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.

    Y a. low-velocity fog
    N b. high-velocity fog
    N c. a straight stream of water
    N d. foam spray

1345: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

    N a. the float-free method ONLY
    N b. breaking the weak link on the painter
    Y c. throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft
    N d. removing the securing straps

1543: The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for __________.

    N a. one year
    N b. two years
    Y c. ten years
    N d. the life of the vessel

1585: Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.

    N a. 12 hours
    N b. 1 day
    Y c. 2 days
    N d. 4 days

1687: The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of the danger due to __________.

    N a. the wind blowing stronger at this location
    Y b. the ground swell making it difficult to tack off
    N c. the current flowing directly on shore
    N d. there being less wind in the lee of the shore

1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?

    N a. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
    N b. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
    N c. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
    Y d. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit.

1706: The major lift-producing part of a sail is the __________.

    Y a. leading edge
    N b. trailing edge
    N c. head
    N d. foil

1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.

    N a. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks
    N b. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks
    N c. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
    Y d. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion

1728: What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

    N a. 5%
    Y b. 8%
    N c. 10%
    N d. 12%

1828: A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________.

    N a. ABS marine surveyor
    Y b. certified marine chemist
    N c. port engineer
    N d. Coast Guard marine inspector

1918: Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?

    N a. EPIRB's that transmit on 406 MHz
    Y b. Survival craft VHF transceivers that provide a beacon on 121.5 MHz
    N c. COSPAS-SARSAT EPIRBs
    N d. SARTs operating on 9 GHz

1992: A deep keel on a sailing vessel increases the_____________.

    Y a. resistance to lateral movement
    N b. length-depth ratio resulting in a faster hull design
    N c. height of the center of gravity above the hull resulting in a more stable vessel
    N d. mast height to compensate for increased lateral resistance

2016: Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    N a. 0.95 foot
    N b. 1.25 feet
    Y c. 1.55 feet
    N d. 1.78 feet

2031: Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn?

    N a. The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point.
    N b. The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.
    N c. The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range."
    Y d. All of the above are necessary for a combustible liquid to burn.

2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    Y a. 55 tons
    N b. 99 tons
    N c. 140 tons
    N d. 360 tons

2097: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

    Y a. becomes less
    N b. becomes larger
    N c. does not change
    N d. moves aft

2159: Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    N a. 1.76 feet
    N b. 1.93 feet
    Y c. 2.18 feet
    N d. 2.43 feet

2184: Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?

    N a. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks to eliminate free surface
    N b. Flood any empty double-bottom tanks to add weight low and down
    N c. Jettison topside weights to reduce KG and KB
    Y d. Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard

2230: To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

    N a. 0.21 foot
    N b. 0.43 foot
    Y c. 0.88 foot
    N d. 1.02 feet

2482: If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.

    N a. above the "explosive range"
    N b. within the "explosive range"
    Y c. below the "explosive range"
    N d. None of the above

2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.

    N a. mean draft
    N b. calculated draft
    N c. deep draft
    Y d. load line draft

3032: Controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system shall be mounted __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    Y a. directly outside the space protected by the system
    N b. as near the gas cylinders as possible
    N c. in the pilothouse
    N d. on the main deck near the bow

3143: The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________.

    N a. lease operator
    N b. Minerals Management Service
    Y c. Coast Guard
    N d. person-in-charge of the unit

3301: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 1.43 feet forward of amidships
    Y b. 1.38 feet forward of amidships
    N c. 0.62 foot forward of amidships
    N d. 0.57 foot forward of amidships

3318: You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. You should FIRST __________.

    N a. activate the CO2 system
    N b. make a temporary repair with canvas or tape
    N c. start the bilge pump
    Y d. close the fuel valve at the tank

3351: In good weather, you should deploy the sea anchor from the liferaft to __________.

    N a. keep the liferaft from capsizing
    N b. navigate against the current
    N c. keep personnel from getting seasick
    Y d. stay in the general location

3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?

    N a. Once each day
    N b. Once each week
    Y c. Once each month
    N d. Once each trip

3753: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    N a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    N b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    N c. administer oxygen
    Y d. immediately start CPR

3755: To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.

    N a. bicarbonate of soda
    N b. paregoric
    Y c. aspirin
    N d. aromatic spirits of ammonia

4014: Towing vessel fire protection regulations apply to vessels operated __________.

    N a. for restricted service such as making up or breaking up larger tows
    N b. for assistance towing
    N c. for pollution response
    Y d. on the Western Rivers

4019: The regulations for a general alarm system on a towing vessel require all of the following EXCEPT that it ___________ .

    N a. be capable of notifying persons in any accommodation, work space and the engine room
    N b. have a contact maker at the operating station
    N c. have a flashing red light in areas that have high background noise
    Y d. be used instead of the public address system

4105: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    Y a. 0.06 foot aft
    N b. 0.14 foot aft
    N c. 0.27 foot aft
    N d. 0.40 foot aft

4112: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    N a. remain on course and hold speed
    N b. remain on course but slack the speed
    N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    Y d. change course and put the stern to the wind

4175: How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet.

    N a. 461.9 long tons
    Y b. 457.5 long tons
    N c. 388.8 long tons
    N d. 323.1 long tons

4240: Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system are required to protect the engine room on towing vessels whose construction was contracted for on or after __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. February 1, 2002
    Y b. August 27, 2003
    N c. April 29, 2004
    N d. April 29, 2005

4255: What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever?

    N a. 450 kips
    Y b. 529 kips
    N c. 550 kips
    N d. 750 kips

4279: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

    N a. on lookout on the fore deck
    N b. on the bridge wing
    N c. always in the pilothouse
    Y d. in or near the pilothouse

4572: You are underway at sea. A fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

    N a. remain on course and hold speed
    Y b. change course and put the stern to the wind
    N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    N d. remain on course but decrease speed

5341: For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.

    Y a. center of each lower hull guide
    N b. center of each upper hull guide
    N c. top of the jack house
    N d. bottom of the hull

5415: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload), dumps the preload. However, 138.4 kips remained on board. The LM for the remaining preload is 17,992 ft-kips. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 119.33 feet AFO
    N b. 119.44 feet AFO
    Y c. 119.54 feet AFO
    N d. 119.66 feet AFO

5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed __________.

    Y a. at the anchor end of the line
    N b. at the wildcat end of the line
    N c. midway between the anchor and the wildcat
    N d. through the anchor buoy

5643: When evacuating the DEEP DRILLER, preparations should include __________.

    N a. putting the unit at transit draft
    Y b. activating the emergency power system
    N c. jettisoning all combustible materials
    N d. removing all tension from the mooring lines

5824: The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of __________.

    N a. stability at all angles of inclination
    Y b. initial stability
    N c. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability
    N d. stability at angles less than the downflooding angle

6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    N a. Once a week
    N b. Once a month
    Y c. Once a year
    N d. During each drill

7055: Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

    N a. stomach
    N b. lower intestines
    Y c. inner ear
    N d. bladder

7695: Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.

    N a. KM
    N b. GM
    N c. KGT
    Y d. KGL

8156: Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________.

    N a. small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes
    N b. all deep draft vessels
    Y c. fishing industry vessels
    N d. small passenger vessels

8687: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 200 long tons on board. What is the new draft?

    N a. 56.55 feet
    Y b. 59.45 feet
    N c. 60.00 feet
    N d. 75.41 feet

8737: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the mud weight was changed from 16 to 14 pounds per gallon?

    N a. No change
    Y b. 93.34 long tons
    N c. 121.91 long tons
    N d. 135.13 long tons

9537: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is __________.

    N a. stable
    N b. neutral
    Y c. unstable
    N d. negative

9604: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

    N a. removing the oxygen
    Y b. removing the fuel
    N c. interrupting the chain reaction
    N d. removing the heat