USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.


236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?


275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using __________.


304: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute?

    Y a. F2131
    N b. F2132
    N c. F213213
    N d. F213F213

377: The regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the __________.

    N a. Department of Transportation
    Y b. Federal Communications Commission
    N c. U.S. Coast Guard
    N d. Department of Defense

420: The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.

    N a. depth
    N b. length
    N c. displacement
    Y d. breadth

627: Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels __________.

    N a. are not required aboard vessels on runs of less than 30 minutes duration
    N b. must be Coast Guard approved and stowed in a portable, watertight container
    N c. must be marked with an expiration date not more than 42 months from the date of manufacture
    Y d. All of the above

844: If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?

    N a. MPO
    Y b. MPR
    N c. MPK
    N d. MPJ

874: If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", he would be telling you __________.

    N a. that he has his engines in reverse
    N b. that he is shortening the distance between vessels
    Y c. to shorten the distance between vessels
    N d. that his vessel is healthy

892: While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________.

    N a. secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders
    N b. continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2
    Y c. retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning
    N d. make sure all doors and vents are secured

939: CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every __________.

    N a. year
    N b. 2 years
    N c. 6 years
    Y d. 12 years

983: Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. Your average rolling period will be __________.

    N a. 20 seconds
    N b. 23 seconds
    Y c. 25 seconds
    N d. 35 seconds

1010: Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?

    Y a. Ballasting the double bottom tanks
    N b. Deballasting the deep tanks
    N c. Positioning a heavy lift cargo on the main deck
    N d. Raising the cargo booms to the upright position

1083: On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be __________.

    Y a. made of non-ferrous metal, and be a flare or non-bite flareless type
    N b. an interlocking type
    N c. a silver-soldered type
    N d. an asbestos covered type

1117: Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.

    N a. increases the size of foam bubbles formed
    N b. increases the rate of foam production
    N c. improves the extinguishing properties of foam
    Y d. gives the nozzleman more freedom of movement, since it can be placed anywhere in the hose line

1480: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0039

    N a. 2.23 feet
    N b. 1.93 feet
    N c. 1.82 feet
    Y d. 1.38 feet

1511: Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?

    N a. Ration food and water supplies.
    Y b. Take anti-seasickness pills, if available.
    N c. Determine position and closest point of land.
    N d. Check pyrotechnic supplies.

1560: The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a liferaft is to __________.

    N a. assist in sleeping
    N b. reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
    Y c. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
    N d. prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness

1625: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    N a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    N b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    N c. administer oxygen
    Y d. immediately start CPR

1870: When should a fire be ventilated?

    Y a. When attacking the fire directly
    N b. When using a steam smothering system
    N c. When using the fixed CO2 system
    N d. All of the above

1925: A construction portfolio prepared for each new offshore drilling unit must be approved by the __________.

    N a. American Bureau of Shipping
    N b. National Cargo Bureau
    Y c. U.S. Coast Guard
    N d. Minerals Management Service

2121: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

    N a. smoke flares
    Y b. a life line
    N c. a hydrostatic release
    N d. a signal mirror

2152: You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

    N a. 1.06 feet
    N b. 1.32 feet
    N c. 1.65 feet
    Y d. 1.90 feet

2153: On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's __________.

    Y a. name and port of registry
    N b. owner and port of registry
    N c. port of registry and identification number
    N d. name and owner

2326: In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required?

    N a. I
    N b. II
    Y c. III
    N d. IV

2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?

    N a. Each cargo tank must have a vent.
    N b. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve.
    Y c. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter.
    N d. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.

2419: Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship?

    N a. In the Captain's office
    N b. In the sea cabin
    Y c. At the GMDSS operating position
    N d. Anywhere on board the vessel

2430: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

    N a. Ethylene dibromide
    N b. Methyl alcohol
    N c. Nonyl phenol
    Y d. Pentane

2663: Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.

    Y a. stringers
    N b. side frames
    N c. side stiffeners
    N d. intercostals

2729: You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?

    N a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a pilot.
    Y b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone and begin a search because the vessel has a man overboard.
    N c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it is disabled.
    N d. Approach with caution because the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.

2913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-09.5", AFT 22'-09.5". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0087

    N a. FWD 21'-06.3", AFT 22'-06.6"
    Y b. FWD 21'-11.3", AFT 23'-01.8"
    N c. FWD 22'-06.6", AFT 21'-06.9"
    N d. FWD 23'-00.2", AFT 22'-00.4"

3075: Although KG for a MODU in lightweight is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________.

    N a. KM is small
    Y b. KM is high
    N c. BL is small
    N d. KB is large

3104: An emergency check-off list is required on vessels carrying six or fewer passengers for hire. The list must contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. precautions for rough weather
    Y b. actions required in the event of accident
    N c. procedures for man overboard emergencies
    N d. emergency procedures for fire at sea

3247: A semisubmersible with displacement of 19,700 long tons and KG of 50.96 feet loads 300 long tons of barite into P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?

    N a. 0.79 foot upward
    N b. 1.00 foot upward
    Y c. 1.04 feet upward
    N d. 1.83 feet upward

3271: A MODU displacing 29,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?

    N a. 2.5 feet upward
    N b. 2.0 feet upward
    Y c. 1.5 feet upward
    N d. 1.0 foot upward

3435: Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________.

    N a. for all persons on board
    N b. for not less than 67% of all persons permitted on board
    Y c. for not less than 100% of all persons permitted on board
    N d. in place of ring life buoys

3523: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    Y a. derrick
    N b. lower hull fuel
    N c. eight anchor buoys
    N d. normal food supplies for 79 persons

3547: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0139

    Y a. Available GM 3.5 ft
    N b. Available GM 3.9 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.3 ft
    N d. Available GM 4.8 ft

3780: One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.

    N a. stream the sea anchor
    Y b. take an anti-seasickness pill
    N c. open the pressure relief valve
    N d. drink at least one can of water

3812: If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________.

    Y a. remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
    N b. head for the closest land
    N c. head for the closest sea-lanes
    N d. get a majority opinion

3851: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.

    N a. 33 Starboard
    Y b. 36 Starboard
    N c. 33 Port
    N d. 36 Port

3928: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.

    Y a. survivors in the water
    N b. food and water
    N c. land
    N d. bad weather

4025: When is direct voice communication allowed in place of an internal communication system on a towing vessel?

    N a. When the vessel is less than 20 meters in length
    N b. When the vessel is ruled to be an "existing vessel"
    Y c. When the controls at the operation station are within 3 meters (10 feet) of the engine room access
    N d. When it is easier to shout than use a radio or telephone

4203: While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________.

    N a. 0.8 second
    N b. 6.2 seconds
    Y c. 13.0 seconds
    N d. 17.0 seconds

4263: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 38 feet aft of transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.

    N a. 1000 kips
    N b. 445 kips
    Y c. 424 kips
    N d. 346 kips

4465: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and KGL less than __________.

    N a. the height of the righting arm
    Y b. the maximum allowed
    N c. GMT and GML
    N d. BMT and BML

4523: The capacity of the COASTAL DRILLER preload tanks is __________.

    N a. 21,297.0 kips
    N b. 11,777.2 kips
    N c. 9,753.7 kips
    Y d. 8,708.0 kips

5038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater.

    N a. FWD 22'-10.7", AFT 25'-00.9"
    N b. FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 25'-00.3"
    N c. FWD 22'-11.9", AFT 24'-11.7"
    Y d. FWD 23'-00.5", AFT 24'-11.1"

5425: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), dumps all the mud in pits 1, 2, 3, and 4. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 122.02 feet AFO
    N b. 125.03 feet AFO
    Y c. 125.63 feet AFO
    N d. 131.46 feet AFO

5901: With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the __________.

    Y a. tug losing power
    N b. tow line parting
    N c. bridle twisting
    N d. rig broaching

6033: During a fire drill on a MODU, what action is required?

    Y a. Start each fire pump
    N b. Launch and run a lifeboat
    N c. Inventory rescue and fire equipment
    N d. Inspect fire hoses

6051: The connection facilities for the international shore connection required on board offshore drilling units in international service must be located to provide access __________.

    Y a. to each side of the drilling unit
    N b. as close as possible to the control house
    N c. on the drill floor
    N d. on each level of the accommodation space

6837: With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile offshore drilling units, what must the Master or person in charge log?

    N a. The name of each person berthed in each space
    Y b. The date of each inspection of each space
    N c. The condition of each space at the beginning of a trip
    N d. The number of persons assigned to each space

7027: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.

    N a. administer artificial respiration
    N b. put him in a tub of ice water
    Y c. give him sips of cool water
    N d. cover him with a light cloth

7068: Deballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG?

    Y a. KG is increased.
    N b. KG is decreased.
    N c. KG is not affected.
    N d. KG increases at light drafts and decreases at deep drafts.

8053: At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last __________.

    N a. 8 hours
    N b. 12 hours
    Y c. 24 hours
    N d. 48 hours

8063: Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguishers used on MODU's should have the propellant cartridge weighed every __________.

    N a. 3 months
    N b. 6 months
    Y c. 12 months
    N d. 2 years

8121: While at operating draft, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps with the __________.

    N a. starboard ballast pump and crossover system
    N b. port ballast pump
    N c. port saltwater service pump
    Y d. port drill water pump

8315: The airborne concentrations of substances (such as H2S) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.

    N a. exposure limits
    N b. concentration limits
    Y c. threshold limit values
    N d. substance limit values

9453: At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.

    Y a. vertically above the center of buoyancy
    N b. vertically above the center of gravity
    N c. at the intersection of the upright vertical centerline and the line of action of the buoyant force
    N d. at the geometric center of the underwater volume