This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
15: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.
N a. you first start to receive fuel N b. hoses are being blown down Y c. final topping off is occurring N d. hoses are being disconnected 93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________.
N a. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued N b. get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel N c. immediately head for the nearest land Y d. remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position 128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
N a. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. N b. Apply a compression bandage. N c. Use temporary stitches of sail twine. Y d. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. 511: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0011
Y a. 696 tons N b. 520 tons N c. 473 tons N d. 444 tons 600: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.
N a. initial stability N b. free surface Y c. stability at large angles of inclination N d. permeability 693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.
N a. produce high-velocity fog Y b. produce low-velocity fog N c. produce a straight stream N d. shut off the water 763: Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?
Y a. A red parachute flare N b. A red hand-held flare N c. A flashlight N d. A lantern 773: When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.
N a. set it on the centerline of the boat N b. apply the correction for compass error N c. keep metal objects away from it Y d. All of the above 886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?
Y a. Two N b. Three N c. Four N d. Five 990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.
Y a. negative GM N b. off-center weight N c. pocketing of free surface N d. excessive freeboard 1020: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
N a. Towing vessels 25 feet in length or less Y b. Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying one or more passengers for hire N c. Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length N d. All of the above 1027: What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?
N a. Weight N b. Temperature Y c. Electrical nonconductivity N d. Cost 1032: When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.
Y a. is effective if used promptly on an oil fire N b. has a greater cooling effect than water N c. is lighter than air N d. is harmless to cargo and crew 1123: On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with __________.
N a. mechanical air supply fans and natural exhaust Y b. natural air supply and mechanical exhaust fans N c. cowls and scoops which can be closed during foul weather N d. air conditioning to control moisture 1162: Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?
N a. A flame safety lamp Y b. A combustible gas indicator N c. A liquid cargo meter N d. All of the above 1182: An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is __________.
Y a. sufficient oxygen in a compartment to support life N b. combustible gases present N c. hydrogen gas present N d. All of the above 1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.
N a. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day N b. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water N c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain Y d. under no conditions 1695: In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?
Y a. Hard rubber N b. Canvas N c. Leather N d. Sponge rubber 1854: How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?
N a. Give each crewmember a copy of ANNEX V of MARPOL. N b. Call an all hands meeting before sailing. Y c. Keep placards prominently posted. N d. Have each person read and sign a copy of the regulations. 1910: Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?
N a. Hand-held red flare N b. Self-contained rocket-propelled parachute red flare Y c. Hand-held orange smoke distress flare N d. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare 2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 22 tons N b. 48 tons Y c. 94 tons N d. 239 tons 2239: You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________.
N a. put the wind off the beam and sheet in N b. put the wind off the stern and ease all sheets Y c. bring the vessel's head into the wind and let the sails luff N d. raise the centerboard when running before the wind 2258: According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong?
N a. Unsaturated hydrocarbons N b. Esters N c. Phosphorus Y d. Olefins 2344: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 23'-01"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?
N a. 92° N b. 77° Y c. 68° N d. 61° 2451: The end of the joint with the exterior threads is called the __________.
Y a. pin N b. stem N c. box N d. stand 2667: Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________.
N a. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted six months before expiration N b. only once every five years, with a letter submitted six months before expiration N c. and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, six months before expiration Y d. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted to the Coast Guard within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval 2845: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0084
N a. FWD 27'-01", AFT 25'-08" N b. FWD 29'-09", AFT 25'-09" N c. FWD 25'-09", AFT 30'-05" Y d. FWD 25'-06", AFT 30'-00" 2866: If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. operated only in daylight hours N b. provided with gasoline or kerosene lights N c. equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment Y d. equipped with individual battery-powered lights 2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.
N a. 9° N b. 12° N c. 15° Y d. 19° 2999: The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless __________.
N a. the pumproom is gas-free N b. spaces with bulkheads common to the pumproom are either gas-free, inert, filled with water, or contain grade E liquid N c. all other compartments in which flammable vapors and gases may exist are closed and secured Y d. All of the above 3359: You are making tow. A loaded, open-hopper barge with independent tanks has placards, with alternating red and white quadrants, located at each side and end. You inspect the barge and find slight traces of water in the wing voids due to condensation. What should you do?
N a. Refuse to accept the barge until all wing voids are dry. N b. Accept the barge and when weather conditions permit run with the wing voids open to ventilate the spaces. Y c. Accept the barge and periodically check the wing voids. N d. Return the barge to the fleet and depart without the barge. 3369: Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046°T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications?
N a. CS Y b. RQ A046 N c. VF N d. YQ3 A046 3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.
N a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire Y b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system N c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system N d. use high-expansion foam 3645: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.
N a. a rocket shoulder rifle N b. an oil lantern Y c. red flares N d. an air horn 3673: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.
N a. 2S N b. 9S Y c. C2BS N d. C2BP 3678: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
N a. 4 N b. 8 Y c. 12 N d. 20 3881: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.
N a. 3 Y b. 5 N c. 6 N d. 7 3916: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
N a. pushing up on one side Y b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards N c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder N d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate 4435: The COASTAL DRILLER has sufficient reserve stability to overcome damage due to flooding of any one watertight compartment in winds to __________.
N a. 36 knots Y b. 50 knots N c. 70 knots N d. 100 knots 4557: The sounding level of 12 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 1S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 5.5 feet. What is the weight of the mud?
N a. 104.53 kips Y b. 114.37 kips N c. 116.45 kips N d. 127.41 kips 4567: When elevated, placing the LCG and TCG at the leg centroid provides __________.
N a. reduced scour rates N b. higher variable loading during preloading N c. higher drilling loads Y d. equal leg reactions 4691: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no list, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. LM is 1,699,463 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?
N a. Transfer 106.2 kips aft from #1 to #25 and #26 Y b. Transfer 53.1 kips each from #25 and #26 forward to #1 N c. Transfer 612 kips from #25 to #26 N d. Vessel is level; no need to transfer 4706: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
N a. 4.82 Y b. 4.64 N c. 4.30 N d. 3.97 5273: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
N a. pump from 10S N b. counterflood in 1P Y c. pump from 8S N d. pump from C3S 6021: Semi-portable extinguishers used on MODU's are sizes __________.
N a. II, III, and IV N b. I, II, and III Y c. III, IV, and V N d. IV and V 6193: What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?
N a. Automatic sprinkler system N b. Steam smothering system N c. Dry chemical system Y d. Carbon dioxide system 6795: Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have an official logbook shall __________.
N a. maintain a logbook on Form CG-706 N b. not be required to maintain a logbook Y c. maintain an unofficial logbook N d. report only major events to the OCMI 8073: A person who holds a foreign license can serve as the ballast control operator to meet manning requirements on a MODU on waters outside U.S. jurisdiction until the __________.
N a. MODU's contract is completed N b. Certificate of Inspection is renewed Y c. MODU returns to a U.S. port N d. Operations Manual is revised 8081: What additional precautions should be taken when making temporary repairs to a MODU that is operating when hydrogen sulfide is present?
N a. Seal off all tank and compartment ventilation. N b. Remove all bulk materials from the P-tanks. Y c. Provide respiratory protection and monitoring. N d. All of the above 8155: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.
N a. 48,000 ft-tons N b. 6,000 ft-tons Y c. 3,000 ft-tons N d. 0 ft-tons 8205: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 12.38 feet to __________.
N a. 48.12 feet Y b. 60.50 feet N c. 68.50 feet N d. 78.50 feet 8222: Which will improve stability?
N a. Closing watertight doors Y b. Pumping the bilges N c. Loading cargo on deck N d. Consuming fuel from a full tank 8333: Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.
N a. unusually large concentrations of H2S Y b. smaller than normal concentrations of H2S N c. moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions N d. longer exposure to H2S concentrations 8375: Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.
N a. fuel/water separators N b. day tanks N c. an injector test stand Y d. fuel filters 8833: A jack-up level at 12.5 feet draft transfers 100 kips of drill water from a tank with a TCG of -30 feet to a starboard tank with a TCG of 70 feet. The resulting starboard draft is 13 feet. The moment required to change list one inch (MCL1") is __________.
N a. 667 foot-kips Y b. 833 foot-kips N c. 1,400 foot-kips N d. 1,667 foot-kips 9113: After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be __________.
N a. put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains N b. repainted N c. discarded Y d. recharged 9235: The longitudinal free surface moments of a drilling mud pit aboard a MODU displacing 24,000 long tons in sea water is 1,200 ft-long tons. If the sounding level in the mud pit is reduced from 8 to 6 feet and the mud weight increases from 10 to 12 lbs/gallon, what is the new FSML for the mud pit?
N a. 750 ft-long tons N b. 1,000 ft-long tons Y c. 1,440 ft-long tons N d. 1,920 ft-long tons 9295: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the bow to level the jack-up if 150 kips are loaded at the transom?
N a. 50 kips Y b. 75 kips N c. 100 kips N d. 200 kips 9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
N a. 4 of each N b. 3 of each Y c. 2 of each N d. 1 of each 9624: You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.
N a. begin breaking out the nearest fire hose N b. secure ventilation to the room N c. close the door to the room Y d. acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus