USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.


80: What represents the metacentric height? (D001SA )


165: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?


251: Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.

    Y a. length and width of space
    N b. length of space only
    N c. width of space only
    N d. neither length nor width

330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.

    N a. reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG
    N b. not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG
    Y c. reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
    N d. not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG

510: A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________.

    N a. within one week
    N b. within 24 hours
    N c. on reporting day if it occurs within normal work hours
    Y d. before sailing

770: A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

    N a. has no more than two compartments
    N b. has two compartments in addition to the engine room
    N c. will sink if any two compartments are flooded
    Y d. will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded

958: Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion?

    N a. Coal
    N b. Scrap rubber
    N c. Leather
    Y d. All of the above

1171: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0029

    N a. 2.62 feet
    N b. 2.82 feet
    Y c. 2.97 feet
    N d. 3.15 feet

1208: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.

    N a. decrease in KM is equal to the loss of draft
    N b. virtual rise of G is directly proportional to the remaining draft
    N c. lost buoyancy method is used to calculate KM, and KB is reduced
    Y d. displacement lost acts at the point where the ship is aground

1362: On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.

    N a. all electric motors
    N b. turbocharged diesel engines
    Y c. gasoline engines
    N d. both A and C

1433: You should NOT use a power tool if __________.

    N a. it has a three-prong plug
    Y b. the insulation of the power wires is worn
    N c. hand tools can be used instead
    N d. the power source is alternating current

1489: The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is __________.

    Y a. "Oars"
    N b. "Up oars"
    N c. "Way enough"
    N d. "Hold water"

1538: Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________.

    Y a. collecting and discharging garbage
    N b. disposing waste from marine sanitation devices
    N c. reducing the amount of shipboard waste
    N d. segregating the different types of shipboard waste

1672: Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation?

    Y a. Vessel heels until water enters a hatch.
    N b. Vessel in collision floods through a damaged area above the waterline.
    N c. Vessel takes on water due to the hatches being left open in heavy rain.
    N d. Vessel takes on water by the propeller shaft due to failure of the stern gland.

1748: In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound?

    N a. 70%
    N b. 80%
    Y c. 90%
    N d. 95%

1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________.

    N a. on a close reach
    Y b. on a broad reach
    N c. on a starboard tack
    N d. running before the wind

1933: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

    N a. within 12 hours of departure
    N b. within 24 hours of departure
    Y c. within a few hours before or after departure
    N d. prior to departure

1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?

    N a. AMVER
    Y b. SafetyNET
    N c. NAVTEX
    N d. INMARSAT-M SES

2012: What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?

    N a. DSC provides reception of weather and navigational warnings plus search and rescue information.
    N b. DSC provides low-cost, routine communications for the vessel operator.
    Y c. DSC is to be used for transmitting and receiving distress alerts to and from other ships or coast radio stations via radio.
    N d. This aids SAR authorities in tracking a vessel's position by satellite.

2140: You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    Y a. 20 tons
    N b. 50 tons
    N c. 80 tons
    N d. 210 tons

2242: An example of a grade B product is __________.

    Y a. piperyline
    N b. motor gasoline
    N c. kerosene
    N d. mineral spirits

2261: If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________.

    Y a. that the fuel valve is open
    N b. if the air supply system is open
    N c. if the water sprinkler system is open
    N d. if the limit switch is on

2329: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0059

    N a. Available GM 3.2 ft
    Y b. Available GM 3.9 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.8 ft
    N d. Available GM 5.3 ft

2511: When lowering a personnel net to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel basket should be __________.

    Y a. lowered over open water
    N b. tied to the vessel with a tag line
    N c. dropped in the water
    N d. tied to the rig with a tag line

2542: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 15 inches? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 72 tons
    N b. 77 tons
    Y c. 82 tons
    N d. 87 tons

2563: The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the __________.

    N a. personnel line
    Y b. whip line
    N c. main hoist line
    N d. pendant

2563: The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the __________.

    N a. personnel line
    Y b. whip line
    N c. main hoist line
    N d. pendant

2766: How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. As many as possible
    Y b. The amount on the Certificate of Inspection
    N c. Use your own judgment
    N d. No more than 40 passengers

2830: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 14° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 13'-01", AFT 13'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

    Y a. -0.7 foot
    N b. -0.4 foot
    N c. -0.3 foot
    N d. -0.1 foot

3143: The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________.

    N a. lease operator
    N b. Minerals Management Service
    Y c. Coast Guard
    N d. person-in-charge of the unit

3159: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

    N a. a break-glass and pull-cable system
    N b. electrical controls on the bridge
    N c. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
    Y d. the heat of a fire melting the link

3309: The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.

    N a. bilge water may enter the exhaust pipe
    N b. entry of air may cause vapor lock
    Y c. carbon monoxide may enter the interior of the vessel
    N d. the joint gaskets may be blown

3347: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of the righting moment?

    N a. 18,118 foot-tons
    N b. 9,059 foot-tons
    N c. 4,529 foot-tons
    Y d. 0 foot-tons

3415: A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same affect on stability as __________.

    Y a. weight that is off-center to starboard
    N b. increasing the draft
    N c. reducing the freeboard
    N d. increasing the trim

3441: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the trim?

    N a. -1.0 foot
    N b. -2.0 feet
    Y c. -4.0 feet
    N d. -8.0 feet

3532: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch.

    N a. FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-06"
    N b. FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-07"
    N c. FWD 18'-11", AFT 21'-09"
    Y d. FWD 22'-00", AFT 19'-02"

3567: What are the maximum vertical moments including free surface moments permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are greater than 70 knots?

    Y a. 942,120 foot-tons
    N b. 946,271 foot-tons
    N c. 974,441 foot-tons
    N d. 1,059,885 foot-tons

3848: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replacement power source must be replaced __________.

    N a. every six months after initial installation
    N b. every 12 months after initial installation
    N c. every 24 months after initial installation
    Y d. on or before the expiration date of the power source

4064: If you are the Master of a towing vessel whose only working radar no longer functions, what must you do?

    Y a. Notify the Captain of the Port (COTP) if you cannot repair it within 96 hours.
    N b. Notify the Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection (OCMI) if you cannot repair it within 48 hours.
    N c. Moor the vessel until it is repaired.
    N d. Anchor the vessel until it is repaired.

4175: How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet.

    N a. 461.9 long tons
    Y b. 457.5 long tons
    N c. 388.8 long tons
    N d. 323.1 long tons

4595: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    N a. 4,956 kips
    N b. 5,063 kips
    Y c. 5,104 kips
    N d. 5,233 kips

4645: What is the change in the vertical moments (excluding free surface effects) for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

    N a. 253 foot-kips
    N b. 56 foot-kips
    Y c. -253 foot-kips
    N d. -411 foot-kips

4814: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

    N a. 19'-00"
    N b. 18'-07"
    N c. 18'-04"
    Y d. 18'-01"

5191: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should __________.

    Y a. continue towing operations and carefully monitor vessel motions
    N b. alter course into the wind to improve motion characteristics
    N c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motion at the new draft
    N d. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and check vessel motion at the new draft

5505: Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used mooring chain?

    N a. Cracks
    N b. Elongation
    N c. Loose studs
    Y d. Fatigue

5565: What is the bow type anchor shackle primarily used for?

    N a. Chain to chain connections
    N b. Chain to anchor connections
    N c. Kenter link to anchor connections
    Y d. Wire rope connections

5601: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moving onto a location in shallow water with a very hard bottom. What is the most effective means of maintaining your position at this location during severe weather?

    N a. Running out all the anchor chain available
    Y b. Piggyback all anchors and pretension to above the expected tensions
    N c. Install fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors
    N d. Remove fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors

5644: You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________.

    N a. containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents
    Y b. a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet
    N c. at least two pumps that may be put in line
    N d. at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck

5911: What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list?

    N a. Names of all crew members
    N b. Use and application of special equipment
    N c. Listing of approved emergency equipment
    Y d. Duties and station of each person during emergencies

6084: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    Y a. 1050 foot-tons
    N b. 1065 foot-tons
    N c. 1090 foot-tons
    N d. 1130 foot-tons

6545: Flammable liquids should have what kind of label?

    N a. Skull and crossbones
    N b. Yellow
    Y c. Red
    N d. White

6547: Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label?

    N a. Skull and crossbones
    N b. White
    Y c. Green
    N d. Red

6737: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

    N a. week
    N b. two weeks
    Y c. month
    N d. two months

7051: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.

    N a. give the patient a laxative to relieve pain
    N b. give the patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain
    Y c. confine to bed until helicopter arrives
    N d. give the patient aspirin with a glass of water

7407: Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?

    N a. 7A
    N b. 8
    N c. 9
    Y d. 16

8275: In a wire rope mooring system, the fairlead sheave should be a minimum of __________.

    N a. 10-18 times the diameter of the wire rope
    Y b. 18-36 times the diameter of the wire rope
    N c. 36-50 times the diameter of the wire rope
    N d. 50-75 times the diameter of the wire rope

8515: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________.

    N a. 4,536 kips
    N b. 4,698 kips
    Y c. 4,725 kips
    N d. 4,890 kips

8893: AMVER is a system which provides __________.

    N a. satellite communications
    N b. navigational information
    N c. weather information
    Y d. position reporting service

9237: A MODU floating in sea water while displacing 20,000 long tons has transverse free surface moments of 7,500 ft-long tons and longitudinal free surface moments of 10,000 ft-long tons. The maximum virtual rise in the height of the center of gravity due to free surfaces is __________.

    N a. 0.35 foot
    Y b. 0.50 foot
    N c. 0.88 foot
    N d. 2.00 feet