This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
34: Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?
N a. D N b. E N c. S Y d. All of the above 232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
Y a. One N b. Two N c. Three N d. Four 295: The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________.
N a. straw Y b. booms N c. skimmers N d. chemical dispersants 613: The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
N a. shorter than the rowing oars N b. the same length as the rowing oars Y c. longer than the rowing oars N d. unrelated to the length of the rowing oars 615: The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________.
N a. the name of each person designated as a person in charge N b. the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection Y c. cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations N d. hose information not marked on the hose 675: Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?
N a. The U.S. Coast Guard N b. The manager of the shore facility Y c. The person(s) designated in-charge N d. The American Bureau of Shipping 749: Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with life floats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate __________.
Y a. at least 50% of all persons on board or meet certain construction standards N b. 100% of the crew and 50% of all passengers allowed to be carried N c. not less than 50% of all passengers on board at the time N d. All persons on board (100% of all passengers and crew) 781: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
N a. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track. N b. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped. Y c. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. N d. It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and reacting with a chemical therein. 810: When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will __________.
Y a. trim by the stern N b. trim by the head N c. be on an even keel N d. be tender 843: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.
N a. 3 short blasts of the ship's whistle Y b. specified on the muster list (station bill) N c. 3 long blasts of the ship's whistle N d. 1 long blast of the ship's whistle 863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
N a. The moment of inertia would remain unchanged. Y b. The moment of inertia would be 1/4 its original value. N c. The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value. N d. None of the above 1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
Y a. a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge N b. An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel N c. A good air vent of sufficient diameter N d. A glass tube to visually observe the fuel 1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.
N a. must be located at the lowest portion of the tank N b. must have only a gravity-forced flow N c. must be extended to an external area of the hull Y d. are permitted 1194: Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
N a. Open the liferaft casing. N b. Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation. Y c. Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side. N d. After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft. 1216: After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by __________.
N a. opening the automatic drain plugs N b. draining the water pockets N c. using the electric bilge pump Y d. using the bailers and cellulose sponge 1346: The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should __________.
Y a. go into place as the raft is inflated N b. be put up after everyone is aboard N c. be put up only in severe weather N d. be used as a sail if the wind is blowing 1423: A weight of 250 tons is loaded on your vessel 95 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1000 ft-tons. What is the total change of trim?
N a. 11.90 inches N b. 18.75 inches Y c. 23.75 inches N d. 38.01 inches 1557: When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.
N a. completely stop the lifeboat from drifting Y b. help to prevent broaching N c. prevent the lifeboat from pitching N d. None of the above 1931: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 17'-03", AFT 19'-03". The KG is 23.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
N a. 3.0° Y b. 4.4° N c. 6.0° N d. 7.5° 2000: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Phosphoric acid Y b. Nonane N c. Methyl ethyl ketone N d. Sulfur (molten) 2130: You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 108 tons N b. 124 tons Y c. 162 tons N d. 342 tons 2235: You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.
Y a. 1650 feet (500 meters) N b. 1750 feet (533 meters) N c. 1970 feet (600 meters) N d. 2500 feet (762 meters) 2390: According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard?
N a. It breaks down into highly toxic fumes of bromides. N b. It reacts with water to provide flammable vapors. Y c. It does not need oxygen for combustion. N d. Its flash point is 80.4°F. 2548: According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?
N a. B only N b. B or C N c. C or D Y d. D or E 2654: Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration.
N a. It increases its volume. Y b. It reduces its volume. N c. It has less product per volume. N d. None of the above 2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 62 tons N b. 65 tons N c. 72 tons Y d. 75 tons 2756: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 26° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.0 foot off center.
N a. 0.0 feet N b. 0.4 foot Y c. 0.8 foot N d. 1.7 feet 2776: The lubber's line of a magnetic compass __________.
N a. always shows true north direction Y b. indicates the vessel's heading N c. is always parallel to the vessel's transom N d. is located on the compass card 2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
N a. be tender N b. have a slow and easy motion Y c. be stiff N d. have a tendency to yaw 3057: Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be __________.
Y a. Coast Guard Approved N b. marked with the name of the unit N c. equipped with a waterlight N d. All of the above 3094: A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of __________.
N a. 15 lbs N b. 25 lbs Y c. 35 lbs N d. 45 lbs 3108: A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.
N a. used at the earliest opportunity N b. hydro tested Y c. recharged N d. weighed again in one month 3165: The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank of a MODU should be removed in case it is decided to __________.
Y a. pump from the damaged tank N b. fight a fire N c. abandon the rig N d. use the crossover system 3192: Which statement is FALSE concerning the use of approved buoyant work vests on board uninspected towboats? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life preservers. N b. They shall be of an approved type. N c. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment. N d. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water. 3354: Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.
N a. fuel tanks N b. spark plugs Y c. carburetors N d. distributors 3527: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.
N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons Y b. mooring chain N c. lower hull fuel N d. eight anchor buoys 3564: The sea painter of a rescue boat should be led __________.
Y a. forward and outboard of all obstructions N b. forward and inboard of all obstructions N c. up and down from the main deck N d. to the foremost point on the vessel 3620: How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. OCK TOW BER N b. O RI AN Y c. OSS CAH N d. OA KAM 3640: How should the number "2" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. NUM-BER-TOO Y b. BEES-SOH-TOO N c. DOS-SOH-TU N d. NEM-MARL-TWO 3730: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.
N a. slow and strong pulse N b. flushed and dry skin N c. slow and deep breathing Y d. pale and clammy skin 3760: Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.
N a. fever and thirst Y b. nausea and dizziness N c. stomach cramps and diarrhea N d. reddening of skin and hives 4006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0152
N a. FWD 18'-11", AFT 20'-02" N b. FWD 19'-01", AFT 20'-00" N c. FWD 19'-03", AFT 19'-10" Y d. FWD 19'-05", AFT 19'-08" 4132: When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?
N a. The pumps go to full stroke. N b. The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump. N c. Both port and starboard cables are energized. Y d. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion. 4143: While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What would be the new draft?
Y a. 56.69 feet N b. 58.14 feet N c. 59.14 feet N d. 63.31 feet 4158: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-02", AFT 20'-10". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No. 8 hatch.
N a. FWD 19'-00.4", AFT 20'-08.6" Y b. FWD 18'-10.8", AFT 20'-10.4" N c. FWD 19'-03.4", AFT 20'-05.6" N d. FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 20'-03.4" 4199: A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads in the tropical zone?
N a. 376 Y b. 472 N c. 762 N d. 1016 5037: Where will you find the requirements for the signals that must be sounded by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed through an area of restricted visibility?
Y a. COLREGS N b. MMS Rules N c. SOLAS Convention N d. Coast Pilot 5341: For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.
Y a. center of each lower hull guide N b. center of each upper hull guide N c. top of the jack house N d. bottom of the hull 5434: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
N a. 4.11 N b. 4.54 Y c. 4.98 N d. 5.13 6475: The pneumatic containers which store bulk dry mud additives and cement on a MODU are called __________.
N a. mud hoppers N b. bulk bins Y c. P-tanks N d. mud tanks 7385: To assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU, preparation should include __________.
N a. load testing the davit arm and the painter system Y b. removing any side protective rails and checking that the overside and surface level are clear N c. testing the spring loaded drum to assure it will retract the fall release hook N d. testing to assure that the required lamps are functioning properly 8205: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 12.38 feet to __________.
N a. 48.12 feet Y b. 60.50 feet N c. 68.50 feet N d. 78.50 feet 8373: How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?
N a. Cylinder head valves Y b. Ports N c. Turbo chargers N d. Bleeder valves 8675: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons. What is the new draft?
N a. 56 feet Y b. 58 feet N c. 60 feet N d. 62 feet 8903: The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.
N a. apply ointment to the burned area Y b. flood the affected area with water N c. wrap the burn with sterile dressing N d. apply an ice pack to the burned area 8981: The important initial stability parameter, GM, is the __________.
Y a. metacentric height N b. height of the metacenter above the keel N c. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel N d. height of the center of gravity above the keel 9125: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________.
N a. remote operated valve Y b. fusible link N c. CO2 system pressure switch N d. heat or smoke detector 9291: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?
N a. 9.00 feet port Y b. 0.50 foot starboard N c. 0.50 foot port N d. 1.00 foot port 9593: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 717,500 cubic feet. What is the displacement?
N a. 11,211 long tons N b. 11,498 long tons N c. 19,977 long tons Y d. 20,500 long tons 9631: Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.
N a. the same control releasing the CO2 Y b. a separate control to release the CO2 N c. two separate controls to release the CO2 N d. three separate controls to release the CO2