This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________.
N a. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued N b. get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel N c. immediately head for the nearest land Y d. remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position 108: Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
N a. speed healing Y b. prevent infection N c. reduce inflammation N d. increase blood circulation 343: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using __________.
N a. a boat bucket N b. an air tank filled with water N c. an oar and canvas weighted down Y d. All of the above 757: Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?
N a. A 1,000 GT tanker on a coastwise voyage Y b. A 200 GT tanker on an international voyage N c. A 300 GT tanker on an intercoastal voyage N d. All of the above 795: The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations rests with the __________.
N a. nearest Coast Guard office N b. Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection N c. Area Commander Y d. Captain of the Port 812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
Y a. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge N b. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire N c. over the top of the fire N d. at the main body of the fire 835: No person may serve as the person in charge of both the vessel and the facility during oil transfer operations unless __________.
N a. there is ready access between the two N b. the vessel and facility are immediately adjacent N c. the person in charge has a rapid means of transportation between the two Y d. the Captain of the Port authorizes such procedure 940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.
N a. shape of the vessel's underwater hull remains the same N b. vessel's center of gravity shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull Y c. vessel's center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull N d. vessel's mean draft increases 1031: What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system?
N a. Relieves excessive pressures from the system. Y b. Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas. N c. Prevents the flow of inert gas into closed or isolated tanks. N d. Removes any leftover water or soot after the gas has been scrubbed. 1079: Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?
Y a. Low oxygen alarm N b. Low pressure alarm N c. Scrubber high water level alarm N d. Deck seal low water alarm 1428: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the pressure drops below how many psi?
N a. 360 N b. 352 N c. 336 Y d. 324 1442: If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will __________.
N a. increase the righting moment N b. increase the righting arm N c. increase list or trim Y d. decrease list or trim 1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.
N a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode N b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft N c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB Y d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB 1678: Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. The coaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except an exposed forecastle deck) must be at least __________.
N a. 6" high N b. 12" high N c. 24" high Y d. Not required 1814: Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons?
N a. 8.76 feet N b. 8.93 feet N c. 9.04 feet Y d. 9.27 feet 1817: Offshore drilling units that carry twelve or more persons on a voyage of more than three days must have a __________.
N a. recreation room N b. radar room Y c. hospital space N d. navigation space 1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
N a. 030947C MAR N b. 03094703 N c. 06470303Z Y d. 030647Z MAR 1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.
N a. close hauled on the starboard tack N b. close hauled on the port tack N c. on a broad reach on a port tack Y d. running before the wind 1892: What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?
N a. 8 hours N b. 2 days N c. 3 days Y d. 4 days 1908: Your vessel displaces 750 tons and measures 151'L by 35'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (60'L by 31'B by 10'D) is filled with 3.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 53.1 tons)
N a. 4.14 feet N b. 4.38 feet Y c. 4.55 feet N d. 4.94 feet 1944: You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (see illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )
N a. 1.24 feet N b. 1.65 feet N c. 1.98 feet Y d. 2.46 feet 2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than __________.
N a. 1.5 inches N b. 2.0 inches Y c. 2.5 inches N d. 3.0 inches 2187: What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?
N a. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. N b. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements that are determined by where the vessel sails. N c. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts. Y d. All of the above 2251: What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
N a. Topside icing N b. Running with a following sea N c. Using 35% of the fuel in a full tank Y d. Lowering a weight suspended by a boom onto the deck 2256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0054
N a. Available GM 6.8 ft N b. Available GM 5.4 ft N c. Available GM 4.1 ft Y d. Available GM 3.6 ft 2523: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?
Y a. 2 N b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 5 2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 62 tons N b. 65 tons N c. 72 tons Y d. 75 tons 2782: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 22.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 20° inclination.
N a. 0.5 foot N b. 0.8 foot Y c. 1.4 feet N d. 2.2 feet 2800: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 8° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.
N a. 0.0 foot Y b. -0.2 foot N c. -0.8 foot N d. -1.0 foot 2843: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.
Y a. two years N b. one year N c. until the next Coast Guard inspection N d. until the end of the voyage 2896: Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 50 adult life jackets N b. 40 adult life jackets and 10 child life jackets Y c. 50 adult life jackets and 5 child life jackets N d. 50 adult life jackets and 2 child life jackets 2899: All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. 3 red hand flare distress signals and 3 orange smoke hand distress signals N b. 8 red hand flare distress signals and 8 orange smoke hand distress signals N c. 6 red hand flare distress signals and 6 orange smoke hand distress signals N d. None of the above 2901: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?
Y a. Identify the person in charge. N b. Gather up useful floating objects. N c. Prepare for arrival of rescue units. N d. Arrange watches and duties. 2941: The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.
N a. metacenter N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of flotation Y d. center of gravity 3097: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.
N a. that all personnel are seated in the craft Y b. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum N c. which way the wind is blowing N d. the hydraulic fuel level before lifting 3259: Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?
N a. To keep visitors away from the barge N b. To prohibit smoking N c. To prohibit open lights Y d. All of the above 3304: If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________.
N a. filed in the ship's office N b. posted in a passenger area N c. posted adjacent to the Certificate of Inspection Y d. posted in the pilothouse 3420: How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. OO-NO Y b. OO-NAH-WUN N c. NUM-EV-WUN N d. NEW-MAL-WON 3497: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?
Y a. To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks N b. To inflate the raft automatically N c. To test the rafts hydrostatically N d. None of the above 3914: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.
Y a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed 3981: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy?
N a. 0.00 feet N b. 1.69 feet N c. 2.25 feet Y d. 2.29 feet 4135: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?
N a. 561.87 long tons Y b. 461.87 long tons N c. 281.34 long tons N d. 192.59 long tons 4200: A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)
N a. 27' 07.5" N b. 27' 08.5" N c. 28' 03.5" Y d. 28' 04.5" 4265: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is __________.
N a. 545 kips N b. 450 kips N c. 245 kips Y d. 224 kips 4486: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.
N a. Maritime Advisory Council Y b. International Maritime Organization N c. International Association of Shipping N d. Association of Seafaring Nations 5611: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 8 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks Y b. satisfactory, continue tripping N c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 5863: If a MODU under tow starts jumping on its tow line, the most appropriate action to alleviate the condition is to __________.
N a. change course N b. slow down N c. heave to Y d. adjust tow line length 5958: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you are advancing?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6305: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must back it up with a piggyback (backing) anchor or __________.
N a. reduce the riser tension Y b. reposition it at a greater range N c. change the winch N d. change the anchor heading 6677: The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU must be approved by the __________.
N a. lease operator N b. Minerals Management Service Y c. Coast Guard N d. person-in-charge of the unit 7041: A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should __________.
N a. give the victim artificial respiration N b. completely restrain the victim N c. give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbital Y d. keep the victim from injuring him or herself 7687: When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.
N a. increase N b. decrease N c. are inversely proportional Y d. remain unchanged 8035: When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.
Y a. synchronous rolling occurs N b. roll period decreases N c. roll period increases N d. roll amplitude is dampened 8157: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?
N a. 50.00 feet N b. 25.00 feet N c. 0.04 foot Y d. 0.02 foot 8493: What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?
N a. 59.63 feet N b. 60.16 feet N c. 61.68 feet Y d. 61.13 feet 8691: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new draft?
N a. 55.55 feet Y b. 56.55 feet N c. 57.05 feet N d. 59.45 feet 9295: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the bow to level the jack-up if 150 kips are loaded at the transom?
N a. 50 kips Y b. 75 kips N c. 100 kips N d. 200 kips 9377: After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________.
N a. keep the liferaft from capsizing N b. navigate against the current N c. keep personnel from getting seasick Y d. stay in the general location 9427: In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to __________.
N a. heel until the angle of loll is reached Y b. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity N c. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal N d. decrease draft at the center of flotation 9455: The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.
Y a. metacentric height is positive N b. metacentric radius is positive N c. KG exceeds maximum allowable limits N d. free surfaces are excessive