USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


145: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE?


178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.


276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is approximately __________.


454: Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.

    N a. 13
    Y b. 16
    N c. 19
    N d. 23

625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________.

    N a. is always effective immediately
    Y b. includes a statement of each condition requiring corrective action
    N c. must be in writing before it takes effect
    N d. All of the above

654: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

    N a. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz.
    N b. Channel 16 (156.8 MHz) may be used for distress messages.
    N c. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency available.
    Y d. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration.

761: Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

    Y a. Oxygen
    N b. Carbon dioxide
    N c. Sodium
    N d. Nitrogen

788: Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?

    N a. Classes A and B
    Y b. Classes B and C
    N c. Classes C and D
    N d. Classes A and D

790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?

    N a. Lighter draft
    N b. Raised fo'c'sle head
    N c. Raised poop
    Y d. Higher bulwark

846: If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?

    Y a. 80 feet
    N b. 160 feet
    N c. Sufficiently long enough to reach the water when the vessel has an adverse list of 15°
    N d. One third the length from the bow to where the lifeboat is stowed

871: The bilge pump on a fishing vessel __________.

    Y a. must be fixed if the vessel exceeds 12 meters in length
    N b. may be used as a fire pump
    N c. must be portable if there are more than 4 watertight compartments
    N d. must be capable of pumping at least 450 gpm

917: Foam-type portable fire extinguishers are most useful in combating fires involving __________.

    N a. solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
    Y b. flammable liquids
    N c. electrical equipment
    N d. metallic solids

1242: The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord __________.

    Y a. serves as a sea painter
    N b. detaches from the liferaft automatically
    N c. is used to rig the boarding ladder
    N d. is cut immediately as it is of no further use

1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

    N a. put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will go
    N b. take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy sea
    Y c. head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage
    N d. place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow heavy

1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________.

    N a. cutting the restraining strap
    N b. unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle
    N c. lifting one end of the raft
    Y d. pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release

1336: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.

    N a. lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet
    N b. straps from the overhead
    Y c. lifelines on the inside of the raft
    N d. ridges in the floor of the raft

1415: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the mean water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft?

    Y a. 8'06"
    N b. 8'03"
    N c. 8'00"
    N d. 7'06"

1447: Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?

    N a. The dry chemical is a conductor.
    Y b. The dry chemical leaves a residue.
    N c. CO2 will not dissipate in air.
    N d. It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area.

1766: You are operating a liftboat. In preparation for jacking you should __________.

    N a. make sure walkway is hanging over the bow
    N b. make sure that all boats alongside are securely fast
    Y c. check that all equipment on deck is secured
    N d. have all personnel remain in their quarters

1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

    Y a. one mast
    N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast

1809: For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?

    N a. Vessels over 500 gross tons must carry at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators.
    N b. Passenger vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry only one licensed GMDSS Radio Operator, but passenger vessels larger than 500 must carry two licensed Operators.
    Y c. Vessels larger than 500 gross tons must carry certain additional GMDSS equipment than what a vessel between 300-500 gross tons must carry.
    N d. Vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry no more than one EPIRB, SART and survival craft transceiver, but vessels larger than 500 gross tons must carry two of each unit.

1854: How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?

    N a. Give each crewmember a copy of ANNEX V of MARPOL.
    N b. Call an all hands meeting before sailing.
    Y c. Keep placards prominently posted.
    N d. Have each person read and sign a copy of the regulations.

2109: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    Y a. change course and put the stern to the wind
    N b. remain on course and hold speed
    N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    N d. remain on course but slack the speed

2229: To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that __________.

    N a. the jib is on one side of the vessel and the mainsail on the other
    Y b. an air slot is formed between the two sails
    N c. one sail is as close to a right angle as possible to the other
    N d. as much of a gap as possible exists between the two sails in order to catch the most wind

2580: If your JP-5 barge has operated in saltwater for less than 1 month in the 12 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

    Y a. 60 months since last dry-docking
    N b. 36 months since last dry-docking
    N c. 24 months since last dry-docking
    N d. 12 months since last dry-docking

2626: Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?

    N a. Navigational warnings
    N b. Meteorological warnings
    N c. Search and Rescue information
    Y d. All of the above

2654: Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration.

    N a. It increases its volume.
    Y b. It reduces its volume.
    N c. It has less product per volume.
    N d. None of the above

2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45° inclination.

    N a. 1.8 feet
    N b. 2.6 feet
    N c. 2.9 feet
    Y d. 3.6 feet

2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

2758: A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?

    N a. The tanks lie above the waterline and are filled.
    N b. The tanks are partially filled with dry cargo.
    Y c. The tanks are partially filled with liquid cargo.
    N d. The tanks are filled and lie below the waterline.

2880: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1150 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.0 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    Y a. 1.8 feet
    N b. 2.4 feet
    N c. 2.8 feet
    N d. 3.1 feet

3008: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0095

    N a. 280.2 ft
    N b. 284.1 ft
    N c. 285.3 ft
    Y d. 286.2 ft

3105: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.

    N a. GM
    Y b. GMT
    N c. KGT
    N d. KMT

3468: Handholds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.

    Y a. to right the raft if it capsizes
    N b. to carry the raft around on deck
    N c. for crewmen to hang on to
    N d. to hang the raft for drying

3490: According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?

    N a. 2.5
    N b. 3
    N c. 4
    Y d. 5

3507: The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    N a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    N b. 9,733 ft-long tons
    N c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    Y d. -6,716 ft-long tons

3608: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

    Y a. comes over the bow
    N b. blows the fire back toward the vessel
    N c. comes over the stern
    N d. comes over either beam

3829: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.

    N a. 12 months
    N b. 15 months
    Y c. 17 months
    N d. 18 months

3930: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.

    N a. take measures to maintain morale
    N b. prepare and use radio equipment
    N c. identify the person in charge of liferaft
    Y d. search for survivors

4121: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the weight of the missing load?

    N a. 220.7 long tons
    N b. 235.3 long tons
    N c. 253.7 long tons
    Y d. 272.7 long tons

4174: Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

    N a. week
    N b. two weeks
    Y c. month
    N d. quarter

4297: The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should be at __________.

    N a. 0.00 feet (flush with bottom of hull)
    N b. 1.20 feet
    Y c. 12.38 feet
    N d. 60.50 feet

4305: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on location?

    N a. 45 feet
    Y b. 95 feet
    N c. 145 feet
    N d. 245 feet

4387: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wind for drilling?

    N a. 45 knots
    Y b. 50 knots
    N c. 57 knots
    N d. 62 knots

4416: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

    N a. white
    N b. yellow
    N c. red
    Y d. green

4734: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    N a. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    N b. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    Y c. under no conditions
    N d. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water

5495: Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to __________.

    Y a. fatigue
    N b. corrosion
    N c. distortion
    N d. abrasion

5617: Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________.

    N a. lessening the effect of environmental forces
    Y b. even and symmetrical variable loading
    N c. local concentration of heavy consumables
    N d. increasing the metacentric height

5673: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

    N a. critical motion limits have been exceeded
    N b. waves approach within two feet of the spider deck
    Y c. the maximum wave height is less than 64 feet
    N d. winds are greater than 70 knots

6013: On a MODU, size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.

    N a. hand portable
    N b. all purpose
    N c. fixed extinguishers
    Y d. semi-portable

6193: What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?

    N a. Automatic sprinkler system
    N b. Steam smothering system
    N c. Dry chemical system
    Y d. Carbon dioxide system

6515: While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in strength and changes direction significantly, you should __________.

    N a. expedite off-loading
    N b. stop off-loading, but keep the offshore supply vessel in the present location
    N c. continue off-loading with no changes
    Y d. move the offshore supply vessel to the downwind side

6991: The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.

    N a. move him to a cool location
    Y b. maintain an open airway
    N c. apply a cool damp dressing to his neck
    N d. have him drink cool liquids

8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.

    Y a. when there is no load on the cable
    N b. when there is a load on the cable
    N c. only when the doors are closed
    N d. when the engine is started

8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?

    N a. 12 percent
    N b. 15 percent
    N c. 18 percent
    Y d. 21 percent

8493: What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?

    N a. 59.63 feet
    N b. 60.16 feet
    N c. 61.68 feet
    Y d. 61.13 feet

8895: The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by the __________.

    Y a. U.S. Coast Guard
    N b. Minerals Management Service
    N c. Department of Energy
    N d. Corps of Engineers

9527: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability?

    N a. Stable
    N b. Neutral
    Y c. Negative
    N d. Positive

9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

    N a. the midships house
    Y b. in the pumproom
    N c. at the vent header
    N d. at the main deck manifold

9613: When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?

    N a. The number of discharge nozzles in the space determines the quantity released.
    N b. The discharge will continue until the temperature of the space returns to its normal ambient temperature.
    N c. The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections that are individually designated for each of the protected spaces.
    Y d. A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve, and is preset for each space.