This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
N a. shape N b. shallow draft N c. large sail area Y d. All of the above 148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.
N a. lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops Y b. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound N c. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops N d. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it 345: A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1,1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe?
N a. 1 gallon Y b. 5 gallons N c. 1 barrel N d. 2 barrels 424: What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?
N a. Calling all stations Y b. Charlie Quebec N c. Alpha Alpha N d. Kilo 490: Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
Y a. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system. N b. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant. N c. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore. N d. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance. 490: Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
Y a. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system. N b. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant. N c. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore. N d. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance. 499: In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be __________.
N a. open and individual tank valves open N b. open and the individual tank valves closed N c. closed and the individual tank valves closed Y d. closed and the individual tank valves open 545: The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain __________.
Y a. the name of each person designated as the person in charge of transfer N b. a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping N c. special procedures for topping off tanks N d. a description of the deck discharge containment system 558: A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partially protected waters may not have a port light below the weather deck unless __________.
Y a. its sill is at least 30 inches above the deepest load waterline N b. it opens and has a solid, inside, hinged cover N c. it is made of thick transparent plastic N d. it is sealed shut 606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.
N a. 4° Y b. 8° N c. 12° N d. 16° 731: If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will not be able to discharge __________ anywhere at sea.
Y a. plastic N b. metal N c. glass N d. paper 831: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
N a. heating surfaces adjacent to the fire N b. leaving combustibles in the endangered area Y c. shutting off the oxygen supply N d. All of the above 1106: On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines?
N a. In diesel installations only N b. In gasoline installations only Y c. In both diesel and gasoline installations N d. In neither diesel nor gasoline installations 1334: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.
N a. cutting the straps that enclose the container N b. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container N c. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap Y d. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release 1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The person in charge Y b. An approved servicing facility N c. Shipyard personnel N d. A certificated lifeboatman 1652: An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least __________.
Y a. one barrel N b. two barrels N c. five barrels N d. ten barrels 1727: Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?
N a. Exhaust gas pressure from the stack Y b. High capacity fan N c. Inert gas compressor N d. Natural aspiration 1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
N a. 030947C MAR N b. 03094703 N c. 06470303Z Y d. 030647Z MAR 1830: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
N a. 030947K MAR N b. 094703K Y c. 022347Z N d. 234703Z 2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
N a. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable INMARSAT unit. N b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. Y c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them to the survival craft. N d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. 2094: Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?
N a. 1.4 feet N b. 2.1 feet Y c. 2.5 feet N d. 2.9 feet 2124: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02", AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?
Y a. 73° N b. 79° N c. 87° N d. 98° 2163: You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?
N a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water. Y b. Keep clear of the vessel because it is engaged in pair trawling. N c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it requires assistance. N d. Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down. 2324: How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?
Y a. One B-II N b. Two B-II N c. One B-V N d. Two A-II 2336: While loading bulk oil in a barge, you notice oil on the water alongside. What should you do FIRST?
N a. Search the vessel for leaks. N b. Notify the terminal superintendent. Y c. Stop loading. N d. Notify the Coast Guard. 2428: What is the flash point of iso - Hexane?
Y a. -10°Fahrenheit N b. 20°Centigrade N c. 68°Fahrenheit N d. 152°Centigrade 2539: If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you should be aware that it is __________.
N a. highly toxic when absorbed through the skin N b. a blood poison N c. a nerve poison Y d. All of the above 2596: Drinking salt water will __________.
Y a. dehydrate you N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water N d. protect against heat cramps 2651: Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.
N a. lifesaving equipment Y b. stability N c. mooring tension N d. riser tension 2793: The mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.
Y a. midway between the forward and aft draft marks N b. at the center of flotation N c. at the load line N d. at the center of buoyancy 2865: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
N a. It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts. N b. It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline. N c. It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel. Y d. The correction decreases as the draft increases 2873: As shown, the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made is __________. (D041DG )
Y a. 5 N b. 4 N c. 3 N d. 1 2968: Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. must be approved for marine use N b. must have a double fan installation N c. must be filled with fresh water Y d. are permitted on vessels less than 65 feet carrying not more than 12 passengers 3118: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.72 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0107
Y a. LCG-FP 268.3 feet N b. LCG-FP 265.4 feet N c. LCG-FP 261.2 feet N d. LCG-FP 256.9 feet 3134: Which is a B-II fire extinguisher? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. A 2-1/2 gallon water (stored pressure) extinguisher Y b. A 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher N c. A 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher N d. A 1-1/4 gallon foam extinguisher 3178: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)
N a. 2930 tons N b. 3110 tons N c. 3170 tons Y d. 3240 tons 3390: Non-required lifesaving equipment carried as additional equipment aboard small passenger vessels __________.
N a. must be removed when carrying passengers Y b. must be approved by the Commandant N c. may be substituted for not more than 5% of the required lifejackets N d. may be carried regardless of approval or condition, if in excess of required lifesaving equipment 3610: A passenger vessel is underway. When may passengers visit the pilothouse?
Y a. Passengers are excluded from the pilothouse while underway. N b. Passengers are permitted in the pilothouse during daylight hours only. N c. Passengers are permitted to visit the pilothouse when authorized by the Master and officer of the watch. N d. Passengers are permitted in the pilothouse when they are escorted by a ship's officer. 3665: The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened with heavy weather, while under tow, is about __________.
Y a. 2 hours N b. 3 hours N c. 4 hours N d. 5 hours 3841: What is the change in the vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 3P to an empty ballast tank 10P?
N a. 43 ft-tons increase N b. 69 ft-tons decrease Y c. 556 ft-tons decrease N d. 5,575 ft-tons decrease 3850: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.
N a. every six months after initial installation N b. every 12 months after initial installation N c. every 24 months after initial installation Y d. on or before the expiration date of the power source 3851: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.
N a. 33 Starboard Y b. 36 Starboard N c. 33 Port N d. 36 Port 4087: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KMT = 375.38 feet)
N a. 375.38 feet N b. 345.23 feet N c. 319.66 feet Y d. 306.79 feet 4104: The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. once every 6 months Y b. once every year N c. once every 2 years with a minimum of one reinspection during that period N d. once every 3 years with a minimum of two reinspections during that period 4383: In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of elevating the unit with a loading of __________.
N a. 14,158 kips N b. 14,400 kips Y c. 17,280 kips N d. 21,297 kips 4465: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and KGL less than __________.
N a. the height of the righting arm Y b. the maximum allowed N c. GMT and GML N d. BMT and BML 5137: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly greater than the angle of loll, she will __________.
N a. capsize N b. incline further N c. flop to the other side Y d. return to the angle of loll 5301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in VCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?
N a. 0.19 foot down N b. 0.44 foot down Y c. 0.63 foot down N d. 1.19 feet down 5412: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0177
Y a. 0.62 foot N b. 0.80 foot N c. 0.85 foot N d. 0.99 foot 5811: The unit used to measure anchor line tensions in the offshore drilling industry is the __________.
N a. long ton N b. short ton N c. metric ton Y d. Kip 6274: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
N a. at the main body of the fire N b. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire N c. over the top of the fire Y d. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge 7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.
N a. fixed foam systems to be ineffective N b. faster cooling of the fire N c. the accumulation of explosive gases Y d. the fire to spread through the ventilation system 7097: What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?
Y a. Check the corresponding (left versus right) parts of the body. N b. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body. N c. Look for discoloration of the patient's skin. N d. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body. 8849: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently bolted flange oil hose coupling?
N a. 3 N b. 4 N c. 6 Y d. A bolt must be used in every hole. 9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.
N a. indication of broken bones Y b. breathing and heartbeat N c. symptoms of concussion N d. bleeding injuries 9391: Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?
N a. Small sips at regular intervals during the day N b. The complete daily ration at one time during the day Y c. One-third the daily ration three times daily N d. Small sips only after sunset 9397: CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.
Y a. orbiting satellites in space N b. commercial radio stations N c. private, commercial, and military aircraft N d. Both A & C 9611: A crew member reports that the high-pressure alarm light of a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is illuminated. The most probable cause of this condition would be that __________.
N a. an air leak has developed in the tank Y b. the tank cooling system has malfunctioned N c. the pilot cylinder discharge valve is leaking N d. an excessive amount of insulation has been installed on the tank and piping 9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
N a. 10 minutes N b. 15 minutes Y c. 30 minutes N d. 45 minutes 9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
N a. 10 minutes N b. 15 minutes Y c. 30 minutes N d. 45 minutes