USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


47: What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?


60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.


222: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.


464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.

    N a. speech
    N b. signaling tones
    N c. a busy signal
    Y d. All of the above

551: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 20 ft. wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with saltwater below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?

    N a. .29 feet
    Y b. .33 feet
    N c. .38 feet
    N d. .42 feet

586: On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration?

    N a. Cast bronze
    N b. Plastic
    Y c. Cast iron
    N d. Stainless steel

616: Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.

    N a. 6 times the diameter of the wire rope
    N b. 8 times the diameter of the wire rope
    N c. 12 times the diameter of the wire rope
    Y d. 16 times the diameter of the wire rope

724: Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.

    N a. MAYDAY
    N b. PAN-PAN
    Y c. SECURITE
    N d. SOS

787: To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should __________.

    Y a. refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
    N b. examine the cargo tanks and fittings
    N c. ask the terminal supervisor or his representative
    N d. check the loading order

841: Blood flowing from a cut artery appears __________.

    N a. dark red with a steady flow
    N b. bright red with a steady flow
    Y c. bright red and in spurts
    N d. dark red and in spurts

1086: Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________.

    N a. kept on board no more than 2 years
    N b. inspected and serviced every 6 months
    N c. destroyed if more than 5 years old
    Y d. maintained in good and serviceable condition

1125: What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?

    N a. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
    Y b. Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
    N c. Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat.
    N d. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind about broad on the quarter of your ship.

1189: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0032

    N a. 2.62 feet
    Y b. 2.82 feet
    N c. 2.97 feet
    N d. 3.15 feet

1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

    N a. white
    Y b. green
    N c. yellow
    N d. red

1564: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

    Y a. Insure the chemical is powdery.
    N b. Replace the cartridge.
    N c. Pressure test the discharge hose.
    N d. Test the pressure gauge for proper operation.

1588: How should longitude 119°16.7'E be written when preparing an AMVER report?

    Y a. 11917E
    N b. Q193
    N c. 119.3°E
    N d. 119E

1640: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the weight drops below how many pounds of liquid?

    N a. 90
    N b. 92
    Y c. 95
    N d. 98

1665: Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?

    Y a. Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it up.
    N b. Roll the hose starting at the female end.
    N c. Roll the hose starting at the male end.
    N d. Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds together.

1744: Each hose used for transferring vapors must __________.

    N a. have a design burst pressure of at least 25 psig
    N b. be capable of withstanding at least 2.0 psi vacuum without collapsing or constricting
    N c. be electrically continuous with a maximum resistance of ten thousand ohms
    Y d. All of the above

1757: You are operating a liftboat. Before starting jacking operations you should __________.

    N a. put the crane in a vertical position
    N b. close the wheelhouse doors
    Y c. have all personnel don life jackets
    N d. put a watch in the engineroom

1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?

    N a. 1.96 feet
    Y b. 2.24 feet
    N c. 2.45 feet
    N d. 2.68 feet

2033: How is "radio silence" imposed?

    Y a. By the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    N b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    N c. By the Public Correspondence Station (PCS), controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    N d. By the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel.

2053: What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs?

    N a. Channel 1
    N b. Channel 10
    Y c. Channel 16
    N d. Channel 68

2085: An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable liferafts to accommodate at least what percentage of the persons allowed?

    N a. 20%
    N b. 30%
    N c. 50%
    Y d. 100%

2222: Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

    Y a. MF/HF radiotelephony
    N b. VHF DSC
    N c. INMARSAT
    N d. SafetyNET

2267: During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to __________.

    Y a. release the towline in an emergency
    N b. help the helmsman steer
    N c. look for food and water
    N d. check the water level in the bilge

2290: In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by __________.

    N a. 35
    N b. 120
    N c. 240
    Y d. 420

2349: What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?

    N a. IMO recommendations
    N b. The manufacturers instruction manuals
    N c. Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations
    Y d. Part 80, Subpart W of the FCC Rules and Regulations

2462: If a leak occurred while loading diethylenetriamine, the chemical data guide indicates you would smell an odor similar to __________.

    Y a. ammonia
    N b. rotten eggs
    N c. gasoline
    N d. None of the above

2554: How is "radio silence" imposed?

    Y a. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC)
    N b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency
    N c. It is imposed by the Public Correspondence Station (PCS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    N d. It is imposed by the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel

2585: Vertical partitions which provide strength and compartmentalization on a MODU are called __________.

    N a. decks
    Y b. bulkheads
    N c. joiner work
    N d. walls

2706: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline.

    Y a. 15°
    N b. 18°
    N c. 21°
    N d. 24°

2743: Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the __________.

    N a. Ballast Control Operator
    N b. Barge Supervisor
    Y c. Master or Offshore Installation Manager
    N d. operators representative

3140: Hatches on small passenger vessels operating on exposed waters and exposed to the weather __________.

    Y a. must be watertight
    N b. must be open at all times
    N c. need not be watertight
    N d. None of the above

3269: What is the purpose of the liferaft's hydrostatic release?

    Y a. To release raft automatically as the ship sinks
    N b. To inflate the raft automatically
    N c. To test rafts hydrostatically
    N d. None of the above

3301: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 1.43 feet forward of amidships
    Y b. 1.38 feet forward of amidships
    N c. 0.62 foot forward of amidships
    N d. 0.57 foot forward of amidships

3440: How should the number "7" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    Y a. SAY-TAY-SEVEN
    N b. SEE-ETA-SEVEN
    N c. NUM-BER-SEVEN
    N d. NEW-MER-AL-SEVEN

3497: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?

    Y a. To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks
    N b. To inflate the raft automatically
    N c. To test the rafts hydrostatically
    N d. None of the above

3558: Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________.

    Y a. stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position
    N b. limit the amount of cable on the drum
    N c. limit the ascent rate
    N d. stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit

3562: The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________.

    N a. surfaced with a nonskid texture
    N b. roped off to prevent unnecessary access
    Y c. kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching
    N d. posted with a list of persons assigned to the rescue boat

3628: Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.

    N a. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
    N b. must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use
    N c. is a devise that transmits a radio signal
    Y d. All of the above

3669: The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.

    N a. volume of liquid in the tank
    Y b. displacement of the vessel
    N c. location of the tank in the vessel
    N d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel

3701: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the rise in the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    N a. 2.62 feet
    N b. 2.20 feet
    Y c. 1.03 feet
    N d. 0.71 foot

3925: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve __________.

    N a. 26
    N b. 28
    N c. 36
    Y d. 41

4177: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed to 6 feet and the mud weight decreased from 16 to 14 pounds/gallon?

    Y a. 70.00 long tons
    N b. 84.17 long tons
    N c. 93.34 long tons
    N d. 106.67 long tons

4333: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 2 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?

    N a. 50 feet
    N b. 100 feet
    Y c. 150 feet
    N d. 200 feet

4463: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than __________.

    N a. 11,777 kips
    N b. 13,158 kips
    Y c. 14,158 kips
    N d. 17,280 kips

5431: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new TCG?

    N a. -1.11 feet
    N b. -0.47 foot
    N c. 1.07 feet
    Y d. 1.11 feet

5504: While signaling by flashing light you make an error. You should send __________.

    N a. RPT, then repeat the entire signal
    N b. EEE, then send the word correctly
    Y c. the erase signal then continue the message with the last correctly spelled word
    N d. the correction signal and re-spell the word

5617: Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________.

    N a. lessening the effect of environmental forces
    Y b. even and symmetrical variable loading
    N c. local concentration of heavy consumables
    N d. increasing the metacentric height

5648: The hydrostatic release on the inflatable liferafts on a fishing vessel must be __________.

    N a. replaced annually
    N b. tested monthly
    Y c. serviced annually
    N d. overhauled quarterly

5668: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 18'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    N a. 935 foot-tons
    Y b. 960 foot-tons
    N c. 985 foot-tons
    N d. 1000 foot-tons

6245: On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.

    Y a. well-conducted drills
    N b. a dedicated crew
    N c. good equipment
    N d. good communication

6633: For a MODU not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected rocket-type line throwing appliance is a __________.

    N a. spring loaded line thrower
    N b. hand thrown buoyant line
    Y c. shoulder-type line throwing gun
    N d. heaving line

7747: In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.

    N a. metacenter
    N b. amidships
    N c. center of flotation
    Y d. geometric center of the displaced volume

8285: The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened if __________.

    N a. you are entering a space containing poisonous vapors
    N b. you are entering a space containing explosive gases
    Y c. the regulator of the breathing apparatus malfunctions
    N d. the facepiece of the breathing device is too tight

8707: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). If port valves 24 and 2 are mistakenly opened, the change in inclination will be increasing trim by the __________.

    Y a. bow with port list
    N b. bow
    N c. stern
    N d. stern with starboard list

8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?

    N a. 0.00 feet
    N b. 1.03 feet
    Y c. 1.69 feet
    N d. 2.22 feet

8863: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What is the new KGL?

    N a. 51.65 feet
    N b. 52.67 feet
    Y c. 55.16 feet
    N d. 62.24 feet

9531: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.

    N a. unstable
    N b. neutral
    N c. negative
    Y d. positive