This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
327: The maneuvering information required to be posted in the wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?
N a. The hull must be clean. N b. There must be calm weather-wind 10 knots or less and a calm sea. N c. There must be no current. Y d. The depth of the water must be at least one and one-half times the draft. 580: Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.
N a. bulwark Y b. deck line N c. gunwale bar N d. sheer strake 706: The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.
N a. have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the capacity of the lifesaving gear is 50 persons or greater N b. be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration N c. be stowed to pay out freely if the vessel sinks Y d. All of the above 738: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.
N a. put the wind off either beam Y b. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed N c. put the stern into the wind and increase speed N d. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed 793: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?
N a. 6% Y b. 8% N c. 10% N d. 12% 807: The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.
N a. 75°F N b. 100°F Y c. 130°F N d. 165°F 920: If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.
Y a. move to port N b. move to starboard N c. move directly down N d. stay in the same position 943: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 60 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?
N a. 0.8 ft Y b. 1.1 ft N c. 1.4 ft N d. 1.6 ft 971: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
N a. After 12 hours Y b. After 24 hours N c. Within 48 hours N d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later 1049: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0023
N a. 2.62 feet N b. 2.82 feet N c. 2.97 feet Y d. 3.15 feet 1133: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.
N a. protect your life preserver by holding it above your head Y b. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel N c. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first N d. wear very light clothing 1162: Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?
N a. A flame safety lamp Y b. A combustible gas indicator N c. A liquid cargo meter N d. All of the above 1170: When operating gravity davits, the __________.
N a. gripes should be released after the boat is moving Y b. davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position N c. boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bitts N d. tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes 1201: While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. You should __________.
N a. apply dispersants to the sheen N b. repair the leak with duct tape N c. reduce the rate of transfer Y d. shut down operations 1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.
N a. white Y b. green N c. yellow N d. red 1296: Hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.
Y a. to right the raft if it capsizes N b. to carry the raft around on deck N c. for crewmen to hang on to N d. to hang the raft for drying 1336: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.
N a. lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet N b. straps from the overhead Y c. lifelines on the inside of the raft N d. ridges in the floor of the raft 1390: Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?
N a. Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines N b. Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines N c. Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake Y d. Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants 1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Post a lookout. N c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y d. Pick up other survivors. 1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?
N a. They may be worn while working on deck but not while working over the side. Y b. They must be used only under supervision of a designated ship's officer. N c. They will be accepted for up to 10% of the required life preservers. N d. They may be worn during drills. 1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________.
N a. use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to get the strain properly aligned N b. avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth Y c. be sure to orient the weave of the patch material, on large patches, in the same orientation as the sail cloth being repaired N d. All of the above 1875: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y c. Get clear of the ship. N d. Dry the liferaft floor and inflate. 1970: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
Y a. Octanol N b. Acetonitrile N c. Hog grease N d. Carbon black hose 2157: On offshore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once every __________.
N a. day N b. week Y c. month N d. year 2312: Which statement is TRUE concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene?
Y a. 3000 ppm is endurable for 30 - 60 minutes (single exposure) N b. 500 - 1000 ppm for 30 - 60 minutes will produce definite irritation to the trachea N c. 5.5 ppm for 1 minute is practically intolerable N d. No chronic effects noticed after 20,000 ppm exposure for 5 - 10 minutes 2360: According to regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded at a temperature below __________.
N a. 90°F Y b. 70°F N c. 51°F N d. its flash point 2365: The space around a pipe in a wellbore, the outer wall of which may be the wall of either the borehole or the casing, is the __________.
N a. open hole N b. down hole N c. bore Y d. annulus 2429: A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.
N a. list Y b. drag N c. set N d. sheer 2587: Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________.
Y a. compartmentalization N b. watertight integrity N c. structural support N d. tank boundaries 2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 2761: In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must also include the __________.
Y a. chemical and physical properties of the material N b. name of the alternative standard or specification N c. the ASTM or ABS specification the material approximates N d. manufacturer or origin of the material 2795: The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.
N a. midway between drafts forward and aft Y b. at the center of flotation N c. at the load line N d. at the center of buoyancy 3031: The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when __________.
N a. GM increases N b. the setback is placed in the pipe racks N c. free surfaces are reduced Y d. ice accumulates above deck 3121: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.
Y a. cool the bulkheads around the fire N b. remove combustibles from direct exposure N c. close all openings to the area N d. shut off all electric power 3212: Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that __________.
N a. the gasoline tank is full Y b. the bilges, cabins, etc. are thoroughly ventilated N c. you have fresh water on board N d. Each of the above is followed 3273: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 long tons and a KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?
N a. 0.79 foot downward N b. 1.00 foot downward Y c. 1.04 feet downward N d. 1.83 feet downward 3283: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?
N a. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire. N b. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down. N c. They are to be kept closed at all times. Y d. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge. 3310: Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash point of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 0°F or lower N b. 75°F or lower N c. 90°F or lower Y d. 110°F or lower 3427: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim?
N a. 8 feet by the stern Y b. 4 feet by the stern N c. 2 feet by the stern N d. 4 feet by the head 3532: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch.
N a. FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-06" N b. FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-07" N c. FWD 18'-11", AFT 21'-09" Y d. FWD 22'-00", AFT 19'-02" 3585: When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach with the wind __________.
N a. astern and the victim just off the bow N b. ahead and the victim just off the bow N c. just off the bow and the victim to windward Y d. just off the bow and the victim to leeward 3831: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.
N a. 24 Port N b. 33 Port Y c. 34 Port N d. 44 Port 3886: Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going OSV carry?
N a. Class A N b. Class B N c. Class C Y d. Category I 4021: A towing vessel's fire detection system may be certified to comply with the Coast Guard's towing vessel fire protection regulations by _________ .
N a. a Coast Guard inspector Y b. a registered professional engineer N c. the owner or Master of the vessel N d. a licensed electrician 4307: To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70 knots?
N a. 0.0 feet N b. 1.2 feet N c. 25.0 feet Y d. 60.5 feet 4363: Scouring is the result of __________.
Y a. interruption of the normal current flow by the footing N b. elevating in mud-slide zones N c. penetrating rapidly through a hard crust into weaker soils N d. extracting legs from soils with high cohesion 5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-06", AFT 20'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0178
N a. 1.05 feet N b. 1.15 feet N c. 1.25 feet Y d. 1.31 feet 5495: Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to __________.
Y a. fatigue N b. corrosion N c. distortion N d. abrasion 6225: The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is called __________.
N a. bracing N b. battening N c. blocking Y d. shoring 6594: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2500 brake horsepower?
N a. 2 Y b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 5 6785: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit __________.
N a. easy access to its storage compartment N b. replacement of the battery without exposure to the weather Y c. it to float free if the unit sinks N d. it to remain attached to the unit 7147: What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?
Y a. Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention. N b. Key the microphone several times before transmitting again. N c. Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again. N d. Report the problem to the head electrician. 7147: What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?
Y a. Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention. N b. Key the microphone several times before transmitting again. N c. Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again. N d. Report the problem to the head electrician. 7331: Routine radio communications should be no more than __________.
N a. one minute Y b. three minutes N c. five minutes N d. eight minutes 7335: When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?
Y a. Low power N b. Medium power N c. High power N d. Extra high power 7343: What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?
N a. One watt N b. Five watts N c. 15 watts Y d. 25 watts 8147: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 53.16 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. Although there are no environmental forces, trim is 2.0 feet by the stern. What is the value of LCG?
Y a. 2.16 feet N b. 2.26 feet N c. 2.36 feet N d. 2.46 feet 9387: When should you use distress flares and rockets?
Y a. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels N b. At half-hour intervals N c. At one-hour intervals N d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel 9415: A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are called __________.
N a. trippers N b. stocks N c. stabilizers Y d. palms 9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
N a. 10 minutes N b. 15 minutes Y c. 30 minutes N d. 45 minutes