USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


42: The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________.


54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.


166: On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?


169: The signal T 0735 means __________.

    N a. The Greenwich mean time is 0735
    Y b. The zone time is 0735
    N c. The latitude is 7° 35'
    N d. The longitude is 7° 35'

185: Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations?

    N a. Petroleum and fuel oil
    N b. Sludge
    Y c. Oil mixed with dredge spoil
    N d. Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes

474: You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.

    Y a. VHF-FM service
    N b. coastal harbor service
    N c. high seas service
    N d. emergency broadcast service

501: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0010

    N a. 1292 tons
    Y b. 1248 tons
    N c. 1211 tons
    N d. 1172 tons

543: Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.

    N a. to keep the boats covered at all times
    Y b. not to leave steel or iron tools lying in or near these boats
    N c. to keep an electric charge on the hull at all times
    N d. to rinse these boats regularly with salt water

796: When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.

    N a. becomes extremely hot
    Y b. becomes extremely cold
    N c. could come off in your hands
    N d. is placed directly in the flames

852: Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?

    Y a. At temperatures of less than 32°F, the extinguisher must be recharged more often.
    N b. When possible, the fire should be attacked from windward.
    N c. The stream should be directed at the base of the fire.
    N d. Directing the stream into burning flammable liquid may cause splashing.

1052: The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________.

    N a. frostbite
    N b. skin burns
    Y c. asphyxiation
    N d. an explosive reaction

1082: Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?

    N a. One sample of air is adequate to test a tank.
    Y b. They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen.
    N c. They will detect a lack of oxygen.
    N d. They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion.

1126: Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks?

    Y a. Natural supply and mechanical exhaust
    N b. At least one opening to the exterior of the hull
    N c. Mechanical supply and natural exhaust
    N d. Any of the above

1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?

    Y a. They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered.
    N b. They are normally attached to the davit span.
    N c. They are needed only on radial davits.
    N d. They are used to clear the puddings.

1234: When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________.

    N a. approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the current
    N b. drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the bow while the seas carry the boat toward the beach
    N c. approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet breaking seas on the bow
    Y d. rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue tripped between breakers

1308: What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?

    N a. Carbon dioxide
    Y b. Foam
    N c. Steam
    N d. Water fog

1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?

    N a. The sailing plan may be sent in any reasonable time before departure, but not later than 12 hours after departure.
    N b. Distress messages should be sent to the AMVER center.
    N c. In the body of the sailing plan report, the letter G is used to indicate a great circle course.
    Y d. There are four different message reports in the AMVER system.

1655: Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?

    N a. Any compartment containing explosives
    N b. Any compartment adjacent to one containing explosives
    N c. Enclosed spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"
    Y d. All of the above

1770: On a survival craft VHF radio precautions shall be taken to prevent the inadvertent selection of which channel __________.

    N a. 6
    N b. 8
    Y c. 16
    N d. 22

1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?

    N a. 4.98 feet
    N b. 5.21 feet
    Y c. 5.43 feet
    N d. 5.67 feet

1943: Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?

    Y a. Once activated, these EPIRBs continuously send up a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon.
    N b. The coded signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation.
    N c. The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry.
    N d. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode.

1978: How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel?

    N a. Position all personnel at the stern and rock the vessel upright.
    N b. Position all personnel around the mast and lift the vessel upright.
    Y c. Lock the centerboard in the down position, stand on the centerboard, and pull on a shroud or a halyard.
    N d. Put the centerboard in the up position and have all personnel haul in on the line attached to the mast.

1989: What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat?

    N a. Half-hitches then a round turn
    N b. One round turn
    N c. A series of half-hitches
    Y d. A round turn, figure eights, and a half-hitch

2010: Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    N a. 1.56 feet
    Y b. 2.37 feet
    N c. 2.55 feet
    N d. 2.74 feet

2090: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See the stability letter for the M.V. Hudson illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

    Y a. 84 tons
    N b. 160 tons
    N c. 244 tons
    N d. 317 tons

2142: What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?

    N a. Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structures
    N b. Cover the fire with foam
    N c. Smother the fire with a blanket or similar object
    Y d. Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished

2177: What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?

    N a. SART
    N b. EPIRB
    Y c. NAVTEX
    N d. INMARSAT-B

2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.

    N a. aluminum riser
    N b. tapered riser
    Y c. buoyant riser
    N d. intermediate tensioner

2497: In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means __________.

    N a. releasing the tongs from the drill pipe
    N b. welding hard metal to tool joints
    Y c. hoisting drill pipe out of and returning it to the wellbore
    N d. sliding a joint of drill pipe down to the pipe rack ramp

2531: What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?

    N a. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized
    N b. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the distress frequency or channel
    N c. To ensure that a distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages
    Y d. To ensure that interference on a particular frequency or channel to communications concerning emergency traffic is minimized

2585: Vertical partitions which provide strength and compartmentalization on a MODU are called __________.

    N a. decks
    Y b. bulkheads
    N c. joiner work
    N d. walls

2608: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0071

    N a. Available GM 6.3 ft
    N b. Available GM 5.7 ft
    N c. Available GM 5.3 ft
    Y d. Available GM 4.8 ft

2689: A vessel with a large GM will __________.

    Y a. have more resistance to listing in case of damage
    N b. have less tendency to have synchronous rolling
    N c. be less likely to have cargo shift
    N d. ride more comfortably

2700: According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?

    N a. Electrical cut off switch
    Y b. A fusible link
    N c. Manual cut off switch
    N d. A water spray actuator

2754: Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?

    N a. Inflatable PFD's
    Y b. EPIRB
    N c. Hydrostatic releases
    N d. Dated batteries

3047: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

    N a. remotely operated valves
    Y b. fusible links
    N c. C02 system pressure switches
    N d. heat or smoke detectors

3303: Your fireman's outfit includes a(n) __________.

    N a. chemical protection face shield
    N b. approved work vest
    Y c. self-contained breathing apparatus
    N d. marlinspike

3309: The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.

    N a. bilge water may enter the exhaust pipe
    N b. entry of air may cause vapor lock
    Y c. carbon monoxide may enter the interior of the vessel
    N d. the joint gaskets may be blown

3347: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of the righting moment?

    N a. 18,118 foot-tons
    N b. 9,059 foot-tons
    N c. 4,529 foot-tons
    Y d. 0 foot-tons

3731: If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to __________.

    Y a. 50 knots
    N b. 70 knots
    N c. 90 knots
    N d. 100 knots

3845: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 1S to Tank 10P using the #1 ballast pump is valve __________.

    N a. 33 Starboard
    N b. 44 Starboard
    Y c. 33 Port
    N d. 44 Port

4020: The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT _____________ .

    N a. a power-available light
    N b. an audible alarm to notify the crew and identify the origin of the fire
    N c. a means to silence audible alarms while maintaining visible alarm lights
    Y d. a way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions

4085: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    N a. 65.95 feet
    N b. 66.85 feet
    N c. 67.66 feet
    Y d. 68.59 feet

4137: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?

    Y a. 435.59 long tons
    N b. 321.59 long tons
    N c. 281.59 long tons
    N d. 192.59 long tons

4190: You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance.
    N b. You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B.
    N c. You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance.
    Y d. You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering the winter zone.

4705: What is the weight of 100 barrels of 17 pound per gallon drilling mud?

    N a. 24.9 kips
    N b. 41.5 kips
    Y c. 71.4 kips
    N d. 93.0 kips

5363: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    N a. 7,026 kips
    N b. 7,099 kips
    N c. 7,144 kips
    Y d. 7,180 kips

5855: A mat-type drilling unit tows more slowly than a jack-up unit due to __________.

    Y a. the drag of the mat
    N b. its deeper draft
    N c. its tubular legs
    N d. the design of the bow

6911: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.

    N a. only when it happens while underway
    N b. to the next of kin
    Y c. to the nearest OCMI
    N d. to the nearest coroner

7147: What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?

    Y a. Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention.
    N b. Key the microphone several times before transmitting again.
    N c. Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again.
    N d. Report the problem to the head electrician.

7607: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.

    N a. righting arm
    N b. metacentric radius
    N c. height of the center of buoyancy
    Y d. height of the center of gravity

8601: Offshore drilling units must have at least two ring buoys with water lights that, when released from the mounting rack, activate a __________.

    Y a. smoke signal
    N b. steam whistle
    N c. battery powered horn
    N d. radio signal

8688: Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. a sea anchor
    N b. a signal mirror
    N c. an EPIRB
    Y d. paddles

8807: The prohibition against displaying lights which may be confused with required navigation lights applies __________.

    Y a. from sunset to sunrise and during restricted visibility
    N b. only when other vessels are in the area
    N c. only when operating in a traffic separation scheme
    N d. only when under tow

9251: For well control, the American Petroleum Institute recommends that hydraulic units have sufficient horsepower to close the annular preventer in __________.

    N a. 15 seconds
    Y b. 30 seconds
    N c. 45 seconds
    N d. 60 seconds

9282: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.

    N a. wind off either beam
    N b. stern into the wind and increase speed
    Y c. bow into the wind and decrease speed
    N d. stern into the wind and decrease speed

9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.

    N a. 20°
    N b. 30°
    N c. 40°
    Y d. 50°

9587: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    Y a. 0.46 foot
    N b. 0.71 foot
    N c. 1.08 feet
    N d. 1.44 feet

9613: When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?

    N a. The number of discharge nozzles in the space determines the quantity released.
    N b. The discharge will continue until the temperature of the space returns to its normal ambient temperature.
    N c. The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections that are individually designated for each of the protected spaces.
    Y d. A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve, and is preset for each space.

9672: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

    N a. not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire quickly.
    Y b. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck
    N c. station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spread
    N d. All of the above