This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.
N a. equipment failure Y b. human error N c. major casualties N d. unforeseeable circumstances 100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.
N a. metacentric height Y b. righting arm N c. righting moment N d. metacentric radius 290: What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
Y a. The GM will increase. N b. The metacenter will move upward. N c. The center of buoyancy will move upward. N d. All of the above 374: A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________.
N a. does not have berthing facilities Y b. has berthing and galley facilities N c. is a workboat and her mother ship carries an EPIRB N d. None of the above are correct. 521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?
N a. .39 ft Y b. .77 ft N c. .88 ft N d. .95 ft 647: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more than __________.
Y a. 25 watts N b. 50 watts N c. 75 watts N d. 100 watts 1044: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
N a. Green star rocket N b. Red star rocket Y c. Orange smoke signal N d. Horizontal motion of a flag 1079: Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?
Y a. Low oxygen alarm N b. Low pressure alarm N c. Scrubber high water level alarm N d. Deck seal low water alarm 1111: On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________.
N a. to tap fuel for cleaning parts and engine wash down N b. for inspection purposes only N c. to bleed fuel lines Y d. under no circumstances in gasoline installations 1187: A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.
N a. make underwater repairs to barges N b. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men Y c. enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen N d. resuscitate an unconscious person 1241: Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. The virtual rise in the center of gravity is __________.
N a. 1.26 feet N b. 3.80 feet N c. 4.80 feet Y d. 5.66 feet 1257: Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?
N a. 3 nm N b. 6 nm Y c. 12 nm N d. 25 nm 1562: Drinking salt water will __________.
N a. protect against heat camps N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water Y d. dehydrate you 1620: One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.
N a. it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumes N b. it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectiveness Y c. fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire N d. it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment 1713: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.
N a. during a rain storm Y b. in an explosive atmosphere N c. near a liferaft canister N d. by other than licensed officers 1893: Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?
N a. DSC only N b. DSC and EPIRB N c. SART and DSC Y d. EPIRB and SART 1929: Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?
N a. A homing signal provides a bearing for rescue personnel to follow to the signal's SOURCE. Y b. A homing signal is detected by the COSPAS-SARSAT satellites. N c. A homing signal cannot be detected by a GPS receiver. N d. A homing signal may be transmitted by equipment attached to the survival craft. 1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________.
N a. shallow water N b. an engine that is misfiring N c. a tight tail shaft gland Y d. worn stern bearing or misalignment 2062: You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from accidentally jibing by using a(n) __________.
N a. buntline N b. clewline N c. outhaul Y d. preventer 2137: Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?
Y a. On the Ship Station License N b. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter N c. In the radio log N d. On the Certificate of Inspection 2246: What would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product?
N a. Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia, flash point of 60°F. N b. Reid vapor pressure of 7 psia, flash point of 85°F. Y c. Reid vapor pressure of 5 psia, flash point of 70°F. N d. Reid vapor pressure above 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia. 2567: A MODU crane which has been idle for a period of over six months shall be inspected to the same standards as a __________.
Y a. yearly inspection N b. quarterly inspection N c. monthly inspection N d. weekly inspection 2644: When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________.
N a. carry loads on your inside shoulder when walking along the outside of a barge N b. tighten ratchets outboard N c. walk on the top of covered barges when possible to avoid narrow gunwales Y d. always remove the toothpick after tightening the ratchet 2784: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.
N a. dive head first, using your hands to break the surface of the water N b. hold your arms firmly at your sides and jump feet first Y c. jump feet first, covering your nose and mouth with one hand and grasping the opposing upper arm with the other N d. jump feet first, holding your knees to your chest 3007: A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.
N a. will capsize N b. will incline further Y c. may lie at an angle of loll N d. may be initially level 3072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0101
N a. LCG-FP 272.6 feet Y b. LCG-FP 269.8 feet N c. LCG-FP 266.5 feet N d. LCG-FP 263.8 feet 3097: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.
N a. that all personnel are seated in the craft Y b. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum N c. which way the wind is blowing N d. the hydraulic fuel level before lifting 3238: During fueling, all doors, hatches, and ports __________.
N a. to windward should be opened and the ones to leeward should be closed N b. to leeward should be opened and the ones to windward should be closed N c. should be opened Y d. should be closed 3280: Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Foam N b. Carbon dioxide N c. Dry chemical Y d. All of the above 3293: Your sailing vessel is docked during a storm and is in continuous motion. If a mooring line parts due to vessel motion, it will most likely do so __________.
N a. where it is made fast on the vessel N b. midway between the vessel and the dock N c. at the eye Y d. at the chock 3400: How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. NEW-MER-AL-NINER N b. NUM-BER-NINE Y c. NO-VAY-NINER N d. OK-TOH-NINE 3426: In illustration D011SA, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )
N a. releasing gear N b. sea painter Y c. Fleming gear N d. McCluny hook 3430: How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. QWE BEC N b. QUE BACH Y c. KEH BECK N d. QU UE 3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.
N a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire Y b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system N c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system N d. use high-expansion foam 3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.
N a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire Y b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system N c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system N d. use high-expansion foam 3471: Every fishing vessel required to have a general alarm system must test it __________.
N a. once every day that the vessel is operated N b. once every week that the vessel is operated N c. prior to operation of the vessel Y d. Both B and C 3562: The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________.
N a. surfaced with a nonskid texture N b. roped off to prevent unnecessary access Y c. kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching N d. posted with a list of persons assigned to the rescue boat 3573: The DEEP DRILLER in transit is level at 23.0 feet draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determines that the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. What is the value of the wind heeling moment?
N a. 4,339 foot-long tons Y b. 26,033 foot-long tons N c. 39,050 foot-long tons N d. 78,099 foot-long tons 3799: With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the correct posture should include __________.
Y a. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm, crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and keeping the feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for a feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed 3863: On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?
N a. One ring life buoy Y b. One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV N c. Three ring life buoys N d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV 3914: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.
Y a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed 3922: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
N a. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. N b. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated. N c. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. Y d. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop. 4706: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
N a. 4.82 Y b. 4.64 N c. 4.30 N d. 3.97 5154: The sea anchor shown as item number 14 will NOT __________. (D014SA )
N a. check the liferaft's way N b. keep the liferaft end on to the sea N c. reduce the possibility of capsizing or broaching Y d. right the raft if it inflates inverted 5513: A link on an anchor chain should be replaced when wear or grinding of surface cracks has reduced the cross section area by __________.
N a. 4% N b. 6% N c. 8% Y d. 10% 5667: When clear ice is present when the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, the vertical moments are increased by __________.
N a. 40,402 ft-long tons N b. 42,255 ft-long tons N c. 45,593 ft-long tons Y d. 49,280 ft-long tons 5911: What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list?
N a. Names of all crew members N b. Use and application of special equipment N c. Listing of approved emergency equipment Y d. Duties and station of each person during emergencies 6035: On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________.
N a. during abandon drill Y b. during fire drill N c. weekly N d. when the rig is being moved 6246: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper. N b. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification. Y c. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated. N d. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. 6845: After conducting a boat drill on a mobile offshore drilling unit, what must the Master or person in charge enter in the in the logbook?
Y a. Any inoperative equipment and the corrective action taken N b. The name of the lifeboatman in charge of each lifeboat N c. The location of the vessel at the time of the drill N d. The time it took to lower the boat 6907: On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for __________.
Y a. any amount of time N b. more than 24 hours N c. more than 36 hours N d. more than 72 hours 7071: The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.
N a. evaluation Y b. triage N c. surveying N d. prioritizing 7395: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.
Y a. there is burning oil on the water N b. there is a rescue craft in the area N c. water temperature is below 40°F N d. a rigid survival craft is in the area 7577: The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and the __________.
N a. longitudinal center of gravity N b. transverse center of gravity N c. downflooding angle Y d. vertical location of the center of gravity 7578: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should __________.
N a. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling N b. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted N c. remove their life preservers to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter Y d. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability 8373: How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?
N a. Cylinder head valves Y b. Ports N c. Turbo chargers N d. Bleeder valves 8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
Y a. 10P N b. 9P N c. 10S N d. 1P 9087: No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.
Y a. avoid kinking the hose N b. avoid personal injury during connection N c. make connecting easier N d. prevent spray on electrical equipment 9367: A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______.
N a. water N b. foam Y c. the range hood extinguishing system N d. fire dampers 9511: In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.
Y a. center of gravity N b. amidships station N c. center of flotation N d. geometric center of the waterplane area