This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
N a. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. N b. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. N c. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. Y d. Re-tip the head and try again. 321: A signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with __________.
N a. a code hoist to indicate Greenwich mean time to follow N b. the letter G N c. the letters GT Y d. the letter Z 405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________.
Y a. a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception facility N b. a discharge outlet for the ballast system on each side of the weather deck N c. one portable adapter for a shore connection to the ballast line N d. All of the above 541: The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals means "________________".
N a. Over N b. Finished with transmission Y c. Wait N d. Repeat this signal 566: Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?
N a. It is propelled by engine or hand-propelling gear. N b. It has a sufficient fuel capacity, if motorized, for 48 hours of operation. Y c. It must be able to maintain a loaded speed of 6 knots. N d. All of the above 809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.
N a. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation N b. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth N c. switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation Y d. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation 818: A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.
N a. A N b. B Y c. C N d. D 863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
N a. The moment of inertia would remain unchanged. Y b. The moment of inertia would be 1/4 its original value. N c. The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value. N d. None of the above 951: If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should __________.
N a. drain any blisters N b. apply antiseptic ointment N c. scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection Y d. immerse the arm in cold water 969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.
Y a. tipping center N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of gravity N d. turning center 1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
N a. Spliced into the ring on the stem post N b. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart Y c. Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls N d. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls 1334: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.
N a. cutting the straps that enclose the container N b. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container N c. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap Y d. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release 1421: The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall __________.
N a. be painted bright red N b. be secured to a permanent part of the lifeboat structure N c. have the area surrounding the lever painted white Y d. All of the above 1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.
N a. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks N b. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks N c. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam Y d. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion 1788: Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?
N a. Channel 6 N b. Channel 13 Y c. Channel 16 N d. Channel 70 1973: To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?
N a. 2 N b. 4 N c. 6 Y d. 8 2108: Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?
N a. A cargo handling room N b. A space in which cargo hose is stored N c. An enclosed space containing cargo piping Y d. All of the above 2120: You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 34 tons Y b. 62 tons N c. 134 tons N d. 186 tons 2154: What is the basic concept of GMDSS?
N a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation. N b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted. N c. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. Y d. All of the above 2183: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.
Y a. name and port of the unit N b. owner and port of the unit N c. drilling location N d. builder 2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of __________.
N a. 7 psia and a flash point of 80°F Y b. more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72°F N c. 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95°F N d. above 14 psia 2320: You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near?
N a. Quickly change to a starboard tack as you reach the object. N b. Shift the rudder from port to starboard several times as you reach the object. N c. Bring the wind so that it comes over the stern and ease all the sheets. Y d. Bring the wind directly over the bow and allow the sails to luff. 2357: When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?
N a. When the vessel is in an overloaded condition N b. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment AND shore-based maintenance Y c. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged N d. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. 2389: The best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal is to __________.
N a. send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation Y b. compose and send a brief message to your own INMARSAT-C terminal N c. send a message to another ship terminal N d. see if the send light flashes, then proper operation has been confirmed 2604: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
Y a. 37 N b. 31 N c. 26 N d. 23 2635: In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to __________.
N a. bulkheads N b. deckhouse structures Y c. decks N d. vertical frames 2741: A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the __________.
N a. general plans N b. builder's documentation N c. Certificate of Inspection Y d. construction portfolio 2751: The requirements for special welding procedures on a MODU must be contained in the __________.
N a. vessel plans N b. Coast Guard file Y c. construction portfolio N d. construction plans 2776: The lubber's line of a magnetic compass __________.
N a. always shows true north direction Y b. indicates the vessel's heading N c. is always parallel to the vessel's transom N d. is located on the compass card 2807: A vessel heading SSW is on a course of __________.
Y a. 202.5° N b. 225.0° N c. 247.5° N d. 270.0° 2852: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.
N a. progressive downflooding N b. reduction of water in the storage tanks Y c. increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height N d. reduction of KG to the minimum allowable 2878: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.
N a. remove combustibles from direct exposure Y b. cool the bulkheads around the fire N c. close all openings to the area N d. shut off all electrical power 2951: A jack-up displacing 350,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.
N a. 10,000 kips N b. 18,169 kips N c. 21,841 kips Y d. 22,400 kips 3089: What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge?
N a. Enforcement of smoking restrictions N b. Restricting vessels from coming alongside the barge Y c. Insuring that a combustible gas indicator is aboard N d. Protecting cargo hose with chafing gear 3135: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
Y a. 1P N b. 2P N c. 1S N d. 3P 3144: On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the releasing lever releases __________.
N a. the painter N b. the after boat fall only if the boat is waterborne N c. both falls at the same time only if the boat is waterborne Y d. both falls at the same time even if the boat has not reached the water 3334: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.
N a. a portable radio N b. an oil lantern N c. canned milk Y d. a towing bridle 3456: When a sea anchor for a survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.
N a. completely stop the survival craft from drifting Y b. help to prevent broaching N c. prevent the survival craft from pitching N d. prevent the survival craft from rolling 3484: Your 80-ton schooner is hove to on the starboard tack under storm trysail and fore-staysail in 45 knots of wind. Your heading is averaging about 000° true and the wind is from the northeast. There is a dangerous shoal bearing 270° true, range 5 miles. Which action would be appropriate?
N a. You need only stay alert for changes, as your present drift will carry you away from the danger. N b. You should strike all sails and get underway under bare poles, making as much way as possible to the north. N c. You should set a reefed foresail and strike the jib. Y d. You should tack or jibe to the port tack and make all possible headway to the south. 3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?
N a. Once each day N b. Once each week Y c. Once each month N d. Once each trip 3678: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
N a. 4 N b. 8 Y c. 12 N d. 20 3688: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
Y a. Lower half of the sternum N b. Tip of the sternum N c. Top half of the sternum N d. Left chest over the heart 3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.
N a. administer oxygen Y b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR N c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk N d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary 4194: You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You may load to the tropical mark plus 1 inch brackish water allowance. Y b. You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone. N c. Your draft must not exceed the winter mark plus the fresh water allowance upon arrival off the discharge port. N d. You may only load to the winter mark plus a brackish water allowance of 4 inches. 4215: A mat-type jack-up drilling unit is the best selection for __________.
Y a. soft mud bottoms N b. uneven bottoms N c. deep water N d. hard bottoms 4513: When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the LCG?
N a. 00.0 feet N b. 111.35 feet Y c. 119.44 feet N d. 120.59 feet 4651: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning a MODU it will __________.
N a. weigh you down Y b. preserve body heat N c. reduce your body heat N d. make it more difficult to breathe 5598: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
N a. direct contact N b. radiation Y c. convection N d. conduction 6507: Especially in adverse weather, risk of collision with an offshore supply vessel increases when the vessel is moored to what side of the unit?
Y a. Upwind N b. Downwind N c. Crosswind N d. Downcurrent 6743: The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the __________.
N a. oxygen and explosion meter when it is used for detection of flare gases Y b. self-contained breathing apparatus, when used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit N c. boots and gloves that are made of rubber or electrically non-conductive material, if used when repairing electrical equipment N d. lifeline, if used by personnel entering a compartment which might be deficient of oxygen 7071: The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.
N a. evaluation Y b. triage N c. surveying N d. prioritizing 7663: Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.
N a. BM Y b. GM N c. GZ N d. KG 7687: When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.
N a. increase N b. decrease N c. are inversely proportional Y d. remain unchanged 7725: Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
N a. unoccupied space below the waterline Y b. volume of intact space above the waterline N c. excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force N d. difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters 8103: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.
Y a. 20 feet N b. 30 feet N c. 35 feet N d. 40 feet 8515: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________.
N a. 4,536 kips N b. 4,698 kips Y c. 4,725 kips N d. 4,890 kips 8851: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has an allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the GML?
N a. 1.43 feet N b. 7.56 feet N c. 7.80 feet Y d. 9.03 feet 9233: A ballast tank in a floating MODU has a maximum FSML of 7,000 ft-long tons. If the tank is converted to drill water storage, what would be the new maximum FSML?
N a. 7,179 ft-long tons N b. 7,000 ft-long tons Y c. 6,825 ft-long tons N d. 2,125 ft-long tons 9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
N a. the midships house Y b. in the pumproom N c. at the vent header N d. at the main deck manifold 9623: You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?
N a. Close the door to the room. N b. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. N c. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Y d. Break out the nearest fire hose.