This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
43: If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.
N a. filling the stabilizers on one side with water N b. releasing the CO2 cylinder N c. pushing up from under one end Y d. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft 158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?
N a. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. Y b. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. N c. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. N d. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. 330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
N a. reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG N b. not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG Y c. reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG N d. not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG 348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.
N a. Minor burn N b. Superficial burn N c. Extremity burn Y d. First-degree burn 486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD28'-04", AFT 30'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0009
Y a. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-10" N b. FWD 29'-03", AFT 30'-08" N c. FWD 29'-07", AFT 30'-08" N d. FWD 29'-08", AFT 30'-06" 496: The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with the words __________.
N a. "DANGER, DO NOT TOUCH" N b. "DANGER, BOAT MAY DROP" N c. "DANGER, LEVER RELEASES BOAT" Y d. "DANGER, LEVER DROPS BOAT" 582: Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.
N a. in a freezer Y b. in a cool dry place N c. at a temperature not less than 80°F N d. in open bins 708: Removing which will extinguish a fire?
N a. Nitrogen N b. Carbon dioxide N c. Sodium Y d. Oxygen 710: Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.
Y a. ability to float N b. deadweight N c. freeboard N d. midships strength 767: On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.
Y a. on or near the navigating bridge N b. on the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead N c. above the freeboard deck away from heat N d. in an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat 790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?
N a. Lighter draft N b. Raised fo'c'sle head N c. Raised poop Y d. Higher bulwark 856: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
N a. Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to provide maximum protection. N b. After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag and hung on a hanger where readily accessible. Y c. Immersion suits must have a PFD light attached to the front shoulder area. N d. Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed with the suit. 959: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0020
N a. 2.32 feet N b. 2.21 feet Y c. 1.97 feet N d. 1.76 feet 1020: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
N a. Towing vessels 25 feet in length or less Y b. Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying one or more passengers for hire N c. Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length N d. All of the above 1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?
N a. Clean out plates N b. Fuel gauges N c. Drain valves Y d. Shut-off valves 1141: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0027
N a. 2.15 feet N b. 2.05 feet N c. 1.85 feet Y d. 1.52 feet 1365: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.
N a. open the CO2 inflation valve N b. open the raft container Y c. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel N d. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side 1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
N a. cool the bulkhead around the fire Y b. close all openings to the area N c. shut off all electrical power N d. remove combustibles from direct exposure 1535: Limit switches __________.
N a. control the descent rate of a lifeboat N b. control the ascent rate of a lifeboat Y c. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position N d. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers 1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?
Y a. A bolt must be used in every hole. N b. 6 N c. 4 N d. 3 1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?
Y a. Firing of a green star signal N b. Firing of a red star signal N c. An orange smoke signal N d. Three white star rockets at 1-minute intervals 1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a __________.
Y a. small GM N b. low center of gravity N c. stiff vessel N d. large GZ 1858: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.
N a. close hauled on the port tack N b. close hauled on the starboard tack Y c. running before the wind N d. on a broad reach 1881: What does a SART signal sound or look like?
N a. It transmits "SOS" and the vessel's name and position in slow speed Morse Code. Y b. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the innermost dot indicating the SART's position. N c. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the outermost dot indicating the SART's position. N d. None of the above 2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
N a. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable INMARSAT unit. N b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. Y c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them to the survival craft. N d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. 2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 22 tons N b. 48 tons Y c. 94 tons N d. 239 tons 2130: You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 108 tons N b. 124 tons Y c. 162 tons N d. 342 tons 2135: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0051
N a. 395 tons Y b. 530 tons N c. 750 tons N d. 990 tons 2137: Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?
Y a. On the Ship Station License N b. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter N c. In the radio log N d. On the Certificate of Inspection 2169: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?
N a. 0 Y b. 1.3 to 7.6% N c. over 7.6% N d. over 100% 2235: You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.
Y a. 1650 feet (500 meters) N b. 1750 feet (533 meters) N c. 1970 feet (600 meters) N d. 2500 feet (762 meters) 2255: The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant __________.
N a. foam N b. marine plywood N c. steel Y d. fiberglass 2257: The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________.
N a. kerosene N b. unleaded gasoline Y c. diesel oil N d. liquefied gas 2420: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?
Y a. iso - Propylamine N b. Acetone N c. Morpholine N d. Ethyl acetate 2650: Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin?
N a. Sulfuric acid N b. Nitric acid N c. Isocyanates Y d. Ammonia 2963: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
N a. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency available. N b. Channel 16 (156.8) may be used for distress messages. Y c. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration. N d. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz. 2988: No person whose license has been revoked shall be issued another license except upon __________.
Y a. approval of the Commandant N b. taking a new examination N c. approval of the Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection N d. approval of an administrative law judge 3001: Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?
N a. Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to provide maximum protection. N b. After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag and hung on a hanger where readily accessible. Y c. Immersion suits must have a PFD light attached to the front shoulder area. N d. Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed with the suit. 3182: What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot motorboat having a fixed fire system on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. 1 B-I Y b. 2 B-I N c. 3 B-I N d. 4 B-I 3426: In illustration D011SA, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )
N a. releasing gear N b. sea painter Y c. Fleming gear N d. McCluny hook 3472: If you find an inflatable liferaft container with the steel bands still in place around its case, you should __________.
N a. tell the Master Y b. leave the bands in place N c. tell the Mate N d. remove the bands yourself 3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?
N a. Once each day N b. Once each week Y c. Once each month N d. Once each trip 3671: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.
N a. 2P N b. 9P N c. C2BS Y d. C2BP 3864: Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV, how many must be equipped with a waterlight?
N a. 8 N b. 4 Y c. 2 N d. 1 4031: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?
N a. 5.66 feet N b. 7.37 feet Y c. 8.02 feet N d. 54.82 feet 4135: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?
N a. 561.87 long tons Y b. 461.87 long tons N c. 281.34 long tons N d. 192.59 long tons 4238: You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Either an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system Y b. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system N c. An approved water mist fire protection system and a fixed CO2 fire-extinguishing system N d. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and an approved water mist fire protection system 4723: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?
N a. 2.02 degrees by the stern N b. 1.51 degrees by the stern N c. 0.98 degrees by the stern Y d. 0.61 degrees by the stern 5031: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a jack-up drilling rig under tow is considered to be a __________.
Y a. vessel N b. non-displacement vessel N c. power-driven vessel N d. limited vessel 5113: A tropical storm is building strength some distance from your MODU. Waves are coming from the east, with periods increasing from 5 seconds to 15 seconds. The swell is from the east. Where was the storm when these new swells were generated?
N a. To the north of you N b. To the south of you Y c. To the east of you N d. To the west of you 5323: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 520,462 ft-kips, FSML are 26,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 25,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?
N a. 26.90 feet N b. 25.00 feet N c. 1.90 feet Y d. 0.00 feet 5475: The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the __________.
N a. stud link is more economical Y b. stud keeps the chain from kinking N c. stud link chain is the lightest night design N d. stud link improves the anchor's holding power 5491: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that a new anchor chain should be inspected after being in service for __________.
N a. 1 year Y b. 3 years N c. 5 years N d. 10 years 5553: The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the __________.
N a. holding angle N b. fleet angle Y c. fluke angle N d. shank angle 6515: While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in strength and changes direction significantly, you should __________.
N a. expedite off-loading N b. stop off-loading, but keep the offshore supply vessel in the present location N c. continue off-loading with no changes Y d. move the offshore supply vessel to the downwind side 6585: When weight-testing a davit launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the deadweight equivalent for each person in the allowed capacity of the raft is __________.
N a. 155 pounds Y b. 165 pounds N c. 175 pounds N d. 185 pounds 6753: If not attached to the nozzle, each low-velocity spray applicator on a MODU must be stowed __________.
N a. in a protected area on the main deck N b. inside a machinery space near the entrance Y c. next to the fire hydrant to which the fire hose is attached N d. on a rack inside the quarters near the entrance 7066: What does blowing tubes accomplish?
N a. Eliminates unburned fuel oil residues from the firebox Y b. Increases boiler efficiency N c. Flushes away mineral deposits inside the water tubes N d. Cleans soot deposits from the inside of the stack 8303: On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering H2S during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute concentration of H2S at the __________.
N a. pipe rack N b. crown block Y c. shale shaker N d. All of the above 9545: An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
Y a. lower than the center of gravity N b. at the same height as the center of gravity N c. higher than the baseline N d. on the longitudinal centerline