USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.


289: You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to "head up". You should __________.


476: What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic acid?


631: You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

    Y a. slack the mizzen sheet
    N b. trim the mizzen vang
    N c. slack the jib sheet
    N d. trim the main outhaul

959: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0020

    N a. 2.32 feet
    N b. 2.21 feet
    Y c. 1.97 feet
    N d. 1.76 feet

989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.

    N a. area of the body burned
    N b. source of heat causing the burn
    Y c. layers of skin affected
    N d. size of the burned area

1246: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

    N a. a Very pistol
    Y b. a towing connection
    N c. a portable radio
    N d. canned milk

1331: A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.

    Y a. has financial backing to meet any liability resulting from the discharge of oil
    N b. has the minimum required amount of P & I and hull insurance
    N c. will assume the responsibility for any damage or loss to the shipper
    N d. has financial reserves to meet reasonable expected crew costs of an intended voyage

1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

    N a. compression stress
    N b. racking stress
    N c. shear stress
    Y d. tension stress

1766: You are operating a liftboat. In preparation for jacking you should __________.

    N a. make sure walkway is hanging over the bow
    N b. make sure that all boats alongside are securely fast
    Y c. check that all equipment on deck is secured
    N d. have all personnel remain in their quarters

1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.

    Y a. a weather deck
    N b. the main deck
    N c. the control house
    N d. the escape capsules

1840: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

    N a. 030947W
    Y b. 031947Z
    N c. 031947 88
    N d. 03MAR1947Z

2003: Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    Y a. The person in charge
    N b. The safety man
    N c. The rig superintendent
    N d. The driller

2075: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 28'-06", AFT 29'-10". The KG is 27.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    N a. 3.7°
    N b. 4.4°
    Y c. 5.0°
    N d. 6.5°

2146: Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________.

    N a. bilge pumping capacity
    Y b. reserve buoyancy
    N c. level attitude
    N d. instability

2353: Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

    N a. A copy of the IMO master plan of shore-based facilities
    N b. Station logs
    N c. 47 CFR Part 80 FCC Rules and Regulations
    Y d. All of the above

2400: You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. The Chemical Data Guide indicates that the solubility of ethyl chloride in water will be __________.

    N a. negligible
    Y b. slight
    N c. moderate
    N d. complete

2401: A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

    N a. using a 2-1/2 inch hose
    Y b. there is an outlet for the smoke and heat
    N c. the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure
    N d. at least two fog streams can be used

2408: If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

    N a. 12 months since last dry-docking
    N b. 18 months since last dry-docking
    N c. 24 months since last dry-docking
    Y d. 36 months since last dry-docking

2579: What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

    N a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.
    Y b. Transmit Distress call by MF/HF, VHF or INMARSAT.
    N c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on Channel 13.
    N d. Transmit Distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.

2629: Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a __________.

    Y a. respiratory irritant
    N b. skin burning agent
    N c. blood poisoning agent
    N d. nerve paralyzing irritant

2783: The angle of loll is a stability term which applies to a floating MODU with __________.

    N a. off-center loading
    N b. stiff characteristics
    N c. excessive pitch or roll
    Y d. negative initial stability

2813: A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.

    N a. 202.5°
    N b. 225.0°
    Y c. 247.5°
    N d. 271.0°

2911: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    N a. ventilation
    Y b. convection
    N c. radiation
    N d. conduction

2994: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity 201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 2°
    N b. 4°
    N c. 6°
    Y d. 8°

3021: A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have __________.

    N a. KMT greater than KML
    Y b. KMT less than KGT
    N c. an off-center LCG
    N d. TCG greater than level-vessel TCB

3036: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0098

    N a. 262.3 ft
    N b. 264.9 ft
    Y c. 268.1 ft
    N d. 270.3 ft

3078: If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.

    N a. throw him/her a life buoy
    N b. hail "man overboard"
    N c. pass the word to the bridge
    Y d. All of the above

3215: The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

    N a. in one of the equipment bags
    Y b. in a special pocket near the forward entrance
    N c. on a cord hanging from the canopy
    N d. in a pocket on the first aid kit

3275: Your present displacement is 15,000 short tons. The KG at this displacement is 60 feet. 100 short tons of casing are added at a VCG of 75 feet for an ocean tow. What is the new KG?

    N a. 59.09 feet
    Y b. 60.09 feet
    N c. 61.09 feet
    N d. 62.09 feet

3330: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. One percent
    N b. Five percent
    N c. Seven percent
    Y d. Ten percent

3353: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

    N a. the float free method only
    N b. kicking the hydrostatic release
    Y c. throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft
    N d. removing the securing straps

3380: At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. checked for pressure loss
    N b. discharged and recharged
    N c. sent ashore to an approved service facility
    Y d. weighed

3531: The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is __________.

    Y a. 16.19 feet
    N b. 17.71 feet
    N c. 17.96 feet
    N d. 18.35 feet

3593: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of LCG?

    N a. 0.00 (amidships)
    N b. 2.23 feet forward of amidships
    Y c. 2.26 feet forward of amidships
    N d. 2.31 feet forward of amidships

3614: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    N a. Resume base course and speed because the distress situation is over.
    N b. Do not transmit over the radiotelephone.
    N c. Relay the initial distress message to the nearest shore station.
    Y d. Resume normal communications on the guarded frequency.

3758: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.

    N a. administer artificial respiration
    N b. put him in a tub of ice water
    Y c. give him sips of cool water
    N d. cover him with a light cloth

3961: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown is Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the change in vertical moments for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank 5P are transferred to Drill Water Tank 5S?

    N a. 5,683 ft-tons
    Y b. 2,689 ft-tons
    N c. 306 ft-tons
    N d. 000 ft-tons

4122: Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?

    N a. 50 feet
    Y b. 100 feet
    N c. 150 feet
    N d. 200 feet

4141: How much additional solid weight could be loaded at a VCG of 189.7 feet on the DEEP DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling)? Assume ballast added or discharged to maintain draft is done so at 15 feet above the baseline.

    N a. 279.2 long tons
    Y b. 314.2 long tons
    N c. 404.2 long tons
    N d. 461.9 long tons

4196: You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. You cannot load beyond the summer mark at port A and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B.
    N b. You can only load to the winter mark plus any fresh water allowance and burnout to sea at port A.
    Y c. You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the summer mark upon departing port A.
    N d. You can load so that upon arrival at the pier at port B your freeboard is equal to the summer mark less any fresh water allowance.

4301: When leveling the elevated COASTAL DRILLER, you may raise the low corner instead of lowering the high corner __________.

    N a. in all cases, it is optional
    Y b. if lowering the high corner places the unit in the wave action
    N c. if proper air gap has been exceeded
    N d. if a potential punch-through threatens

4311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for stability and __________.

    Y a. leg strength
    N b. variable load
    N c. environmental load
    N d. load line

4812: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0170

    Y a. 0.54 ft
    N b. 0.62 ft
    N c. 0.80 ft
    N d. 0.85 ft

5062: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8530 T. The 40-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 115' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

    N a. 2.96 ft
    N b. 3.18 ft
    N c. 3.46 ft
    Y d. 3.77 ft

5495: Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to __________.

    Y a. fatigue
    N b. corrosion
    N c. distortion
    N d. abrasion

5591: The major cause of anchor buoy pendant wire failures is __________.

    N a. corrosion
    Y b. rough weather
    N c. defective sockets
    N d. mishandling

5961: A CO2 extinguisher on a MODU which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.

    N a. used at the earliest opportunity
    N b. hydro-tested
    Y c. recharged
    N d. weighed again in one month

6071: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must withstand a bursting pressure of at least __________.

    N a. 5,000 pounds per square inch
    Y b. 6,000 pounds per square inch
    N c. 8,000 pounds per square inch
    N d. 10,000 pounds per square inch

6425: The test for determining the formation fracture pressure after drilling out a seat is called a __________.

    N a. casing test
    Y b. leak off test
    N c. drill stem test
    N d. well test

6605: All fire hoses on mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at least __________.

    N a. 100 psi
    Y b. 110 psi
    N c. 120 psi
    N d. 130 psi

6807: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows __________.

    N a. the name of the crane operator
    N b. an entry each time the crane is used
    Y c. date and result of each rated load test
    N d. the time of day of the test

7391: Personnel boarding a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU should be checked to assure they are not in possession of or wearing __________.

    N a. oil stained shoes or clothing
    Y b. sharp objects that may puncture or damage the liferaft
    N c. matches or cigarette lighters
    N d. drugs or paraphernalia not approved by a medical doctor

7593: The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called the __________.

    Y a. righting arm
    N b. metacentric height
    N c. metacentric radius
    N d. height of the center of buoyancy

8541: The process of waiting a period of time before pretensioning an anchor is known as __________.

    Y a. soaking
    N b. settling
    N c. sinking
    N d. bedding in

8703: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 1P after opening valves 6 and __________.

    N a. 35
    N b. 7
    N c. 4
    Y d. 2

8712: Jettisoning weight from topside __________.

    N a. returns the vessel to an even keel
    N b. reduces free surface effect
    Y c. lowers the center of gravity
    N d. raises the center of buoyancy

8923: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4. While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 9P by also opening valves 6 and __________.

    N a. 35
    N b. 21
    Y c. 20
    N d. 8

9185: The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

    N a. only after two hours in the water
    N b. only after four hours in the water
    N c. before entry into the water
    Y d. upon entry into the water

9317: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

    Y a. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.
    N b. A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult.
    N c. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat.
    N d. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting.