This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
26: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?
N a. One B-I extinguisher Y b. One B-II extinguisher N c. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher N d. One B-V extinguisher 34: Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?
N a. D N b. E N c. S Y d. All of the above 56: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is __________.
N a. one A-I N b. one B-I N c. one C-I Y d. none required 58: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.
Y a. without losing the rhythm of respiration N b. only with the help of two other people N c. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes N d. at ten-minute intervals 116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?
N a. A 2-1/2 gallon soda acid and water N b. A 1-1/4 gallon foam Y c. A 2-1/2 gallon foam N d. A 20 pound dry chemical 202: The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________.
N a. made of steel or bronze wire rope N b. corrosion resistant N c. not less than 50 feet in length Y d. All of the above 301: Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?
Y a. The width of the tank N b. The length of the tank N c. The draft of the vessel N d. The specific gravity of the liquid in the tank 378: The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to __________.
N a. wash the burned area with a warm soap and water solution Y b. flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water N c. cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandage it tightly N d. leave the burned area exposed to the atmosphere 545: The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain __________.
Y a. the name of each person designated as the person in charge of transfer N b. a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping N c. special procedures for topping off tanks N d. a description of the deck discharge containment system 567: On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________.
Y a. the equipment must be approved by the Commandant N b. it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment N c. it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment regardless of its condition N d. it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector 574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that __________.
Y a. he cannot accept traffic immediately N b. you should proceed with your message N c. you should send your message in International Code N d. you should send your message in plain language 580: Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.
N a. bulwark Y b. deck line N c. gunwale bar N d. sheer strake 863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
N a. The moment of inertia would remain unchanged. Y b. The moment of inertia would be 1/4 its original value. N c. The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value. N d. None of the above 960: Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.
N a. a decrease in reserve buoyancy N b. a decrease in the maximum draft N c. the vessel to flop to port and starboard Y d. None of the above 1257: Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?
N a. 3 nm N b. 6 nm Y c. 12 nm N d. 25 nm 1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.
N a. put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will go N b. take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy sea Y c. head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage N d. place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow heavy 1475: You need to pull the sea anchor back aboard your liferaft. What part of the anchor do you pull on?
N a. Drag line N b. Bridle Y c. Trip line N d. Iron ring 1680: In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.
Y a. placed in a fixed bracket when being used N b. clamped to any position convenient for the coxswain to see it N c. permanently mounted on the lifeboat's centerline N d. mounted in the center of the boat to eliminate deviation 1802: The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.
N a. filter N b. cooler Y c. scrubber N d. purifier 1902: Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?
N a. Inspecting and cleaning the SART's container, and clearing the immediate storage area of any debris or obstacles. Y b. Measuring the SART's transmitted frequency. N c. Placing the SART in the test mode and verifying that the nearby PPI shows concentric circles. N d. Ensuring the SART's batteries are replaced before their expiration date. 2203: Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?
N a. Roustabout N b. First man aboard N c. Last man aboard Y d. Helmsman 2273: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.
N a. pass out food and water to personnel N b. open the doors and start the sprinkler system N c. activate the emergency release handle Y d. open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding 2310: A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.
N a. the other services are run off a reducing station with a pressure gage Y b. one of the required pumps is kept available for use on the fire main system at all times N c. no relief valves are installed N d. all of the above conditions are met 2480: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire?
N a. CO2 Y b. Alcohol foam N c. Dry chemical N d. Water fog 2541: When lifting loads from a boat in heavy weather, the load should be taken when the boat __________.
Y a. reaches the crest N b. begins to fall N c. begins to rise N d. reaches the trough 2552: When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed?
N a. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use N b. After determining that geographic distance from the distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications Y c. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded. N d. If, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications 2575: The "urgent" priority should be used for messages __________.
N a. concerning the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) N b. detailing important navigational warnings Y c. containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person N d. concerning on-scene communications 2642: When properly set and drawing, a fore-and-aft sail has a cross-section that __________.
N a. is a uniform curve Y b. is a curve with more curve at the luff N c. is a curve with more curve at the leach N d. approximates a straight line 2687: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.
N a. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port N b. also turns to starboard Y c. remains aligned with compass north N d. turns counterclockwise to port 2820: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0082
N a. FWD 26'-02", AFT 26'-08" Y b. FWD 25'-09", AFT 27'-02" N c. FWD 25'-03", AFT 28'-09" N d. FWD 24'-11", AFT 29'-11" 2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.
Y a. the letter "E" N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit N c. a no-smoking symbol N d. the word "DANGER" 2948: Licenses are issued for __________.
N a. 3 years Y b. 5 years N c. 1 year N d. 2 years 3017: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft trim angles is likely to have __________.
N a. an off-center TCG N b. LCG greater than level-vessel LCB N c. KMT greater than KML Y d. KML less than KGL 3054: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom (capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. Less than 1° Y b. 3° N c. 7° N d. 11° 3139: Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________.
N a. PV valves N b. warning signs Y c. flame screens N d. stop-check valves 3317: You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?
N a. The nature of the distress N b. The time of day N c. Your radio call sign Y d. Your position by latitude and longitude 3579: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs.
N a. 1150 tons each N b. 1180 tons each Y c. 1220 tons each N d. 1250 tons each 3655: You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by __________.
N a. displaying a large red flag N b. displaying three black balls in a vertical line N c. sounding five or more short and rapid blasts on the whistle Y d. continuously sounding the fog whistle 3676: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.
N a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode N b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft N c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB Y d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB 3747: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.
N a. boric acid solution Y b. water N c. baking soda solution N d. ammonia 3835: What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1P on the DEEP DRILLER, using the Port #1 ballast pump?
Y a. 23, 35, 34, 33, 43, and 2 N b. 23, 43, 33, and 1B N c. 23, 33, 43, and 1 N d. 23, 35, 34, 33, 43, and 1 3841: What is the change in the vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 3P to an empty ballast tank 10P?
N a. 43 ft-tons increase N b. 69 ft-tons decrease Y c. 556 ft-tons decrease N d. 5,575 ft-tons decrease 3879: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.
Y a. 1 short blast on the ship's whistle N b. 3 short blasts on the ship's whistle N c. 3 long blasts on the ship's whistle N d. 1 long blast on the ship's whistle 4140: In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.
N a. trick wheel Y b. follow-up control N c. six-way valve N d. Rapson slide 4233: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in Section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, with the rotary 36 feet aft of the transom and 4 feet to port of the centerline, and with 300 kips in the setback, the maximum hook load is limited to __________.
N a. 870 kips N b. 635 kips N c. 335 kips Y d. 314 kips 4241: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.
N a. 15 feet Y b. 20 feet N c. 25 feet N d. 30 feet 4258: Dacron sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.
Y a. left in the sunlight N b. stowed wet N c. washed with soap N d. folded frequently 4280: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. none Y b. 5 tons N c. 10 tons N d. 20 tons 5031: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a jack-up drilling rig under tow is considered to be a __________.
Y a. vessel N b. non-displacement vessel N c. power-driven vessel N d. limited vessel 5522: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.
N a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal Y b. transferring heat across an unobstructed space N c. burning liquids flowing into another space N d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems 5893: The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a tug navigating independently because the __________.
Y a. speed of the tow is less N b. tow line catches the current N c. current causes yawing N d. current will offset the rig 5934: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?
N a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 Y d. 4 6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. Once a week N b. Once a month Y c. Once a year N d. During each drill 6195: Each person on the rig has a designated area to proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is shown clearly on the rig's __________.
N a. fire fighting plan N b. shipping articles N c. Certificate of Inspection Y d. Muster List ("Station Bill") 6201: The two courses of action if the underwater hull of a MODU is severely damaged are to plug the openings and to __________.
N a. dewater the compartment Y b. establish and maintain flooding boundaries N c. secure power to the compartment N d. counter flood to maintain even keel 6915: When a MODU is involved in a casualty, the cost of property damage includes __________.
Y a. the cost of labor and material to restore the property to the service condition which existed prior to the casualty N b. the loss of revenues while the unit is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000 N c. the damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a maximum of $50,000 N d. All of the above 7951: What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system for powering drilling rig machinery?
N a. Commutators are eliminated. N b. Several machines can be operated from a DC bus. N c. SCR systems are simpler. Y d. Required power can be drawn from a common AC bus. 8303: On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering H2S during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute concentration of H2S at the __________.
N a. pipe rack N b. crown block Y c. shale shaker N d. All of the above 8421: If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?
N a. Open crankcase explosion covers Y b. Allow engine to cool gradually N c. Slowly add cool water to the expansion tank N d. Back flush the cooling water system 9591: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new draft if all the bulk materials are discharged?
N a. 36.23 feet Y b. 44.27 feet N c. 45.73 feet N d. 53.77 feet