This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
157: On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.
N a. Master and Second Mate Y b. Master and Chief Engineer N c. Master and union delegate N d. Master and Chief Mate 463: When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system __________.
N a. pump must operate whenever the engine is operating N b. must have a suitable hull strainer in the raw water intake N c. may use a closed fresh water system Y d. All of the above 574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that __________.
Y a. he cannot accept traffic immediately N b. you should proceed with your message N c. you should send your message in International Code N d. you should send your message in plain language 620: A vessel's LCG is determined by __________.
Y a. dividing the total longitudinal moment summations by displacement N b. dividing the total vertical moment summations by displacement N c. multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal moments N d. subtracting LCF from LCB 680: The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.
N a. deeps N b. domestics Y c. peaks N d. settlers 711: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.
Y a. 12 to 15 times per minute N b. 18 to 20 times per minute N c. 20 to 25 times per minute N d. as fast as possible 799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.
N a. conspicuously marked N b. stowed anywhere N c. left on deck Y d. secured or stowed out of the way 876: Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean service?
N a. Licensed deck officer N b. Able seaman N c. Certificated person Y d. All of the above 947: When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?
N a. Foam Y b. Solid stream water nozzle N c. All-purpose nozzle N d. Carbon dioxide 988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?
Y a. Carbon dioxide N b. Water (stored pressure) N c. Foam N d. Carbon tetrachloride 1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
Y a. a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge N b. An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel N c. A good air vent of sufficient diameter N d. A glass tube to visually observe the fuel 1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
N a. before the gripes are released N b. before the boat is moved from the davits Y c. at the embarkation deck N d. after the boat is in the water 1139: You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.
N a. slack the main sheet N b. slack the main outhaul N c. trim the foreguy Y d. slack the jib sheet 1176: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.
N a. be of a light color N b. be 250 meters in length Y c. have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs N d. be made of synthetic material 1339: The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, the danger angle for a permanent list would be about __________.
N a. 8.5° Y b. 17° N c. 34° N d. 51° 1446: A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.
N a. 29'-09" N b. 29'-11" Y c. 30'-04" N d. 30'-07" 1454: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D005SA )
N a. A N b. C Y c. E N d. I 1597: Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?
Y a. Electrically non-conductive N b. Relatively inexpensive N c. Effective against chemicals containing an oxidizer N d. All of the above 1600: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
N a. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility. N b. The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely. N c. Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited. Y d. The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs. 1818: In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?
N a. This equipment must be carried at all times at sea regardless of where the vessel will be operating. Y b. This equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3. N c. This equipment satisfies in full the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A2. N d. HF SITOR equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3, but INMARSAT equipment must be carried to satisfy the requirement when the vessel is in Sea Area A4. 1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
N a. Class A EPIRBs N b. Class B EPIRBs Y c. L-Band EPIRBs N d. Category I EPIRBs 1977: A stay is __________.
Y a. standing rigging N b. a downhaul N c. a halyard N d. a jib 2000: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Phosphoric acid Y b. Nonane N c. Methyl ethyl ketone N d. Sulfur (molten) 2013: What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons?
N a. 4 N b. 3 Y c. 2 N d. 1 2051: You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew boat calls you on VHF channel 16. When you reply with your vessel name and call letters, you should request the crew boat to switch to an intership channel such as channel __________.
N a. 6 Y b. 10 N c. 12 N d. 14 2338: In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of 5°. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time?
N a. 2.74 feet N b. 2.80 feet Y c. 2.86 feet N d. 2.93 feet 2380: Access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes shall be __________.
N a. at least 13.1 feet away from the galleys, living quarters or navigation spaces Y b. from the open deck N c. only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems N d. isolated from any part of the vessel which normally contains sources of vapor ignition 2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?
N a. B only N b. B or C N c. C or D Y d. D or E 2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.
N a. aluminum riser N b. tapered riser Y c. buoyant riser N d. intermediate tensioner 2497: In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means __________.
N a. releasing the tongs from the drill pipe N b. welding hard metal to tool joints Y c. hoisting drill pipe out of and returning it to the wellbore N d. sliding a joint of drill pipe down to the pipe rack ramp 2666: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.
Y a. 0.7 foot N b. 1.0 feet N c. 1.7 feet N d. 3.8 feet 2886: A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at least once every __________.
Y a. 2 years N b. 3 years N c. 4 years N d. 5 years 2902: Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 25% of all persons on board N b. 50% of all persons on board N c. 75% of all persons on board Y d. 100% of all persons on board 3084: All life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be clearly and legibly marked or painted with the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. manufacturer's price, stock number, and inspection date N b. vessel's name, tonnage, and horsepower Y c. vessel's name in 3" letters N d. vessel's name, and number of persons allowed, all in at least 3" inch high letters and numbers 3172: Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________.
N a. warm up the exhaust blower motor N b. provide a proper supply of fresh air for the engine(s) N c. see the system is in good operating condition Y d. insure at least one complete change of air in the compartments concerned 3289: A warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship by hoisting __________.
N a. the merchant ship's identity signal and keeping it hoisted during the entire communication N b. the national ensign of the merchant vessel at the starboard yard N c. the flags MV close up until acknowledged and then lowering them to the dip Y d. the code pennant, and keeping it flying during the entire communication 3305: The height of the transverse metacenter for a MODU is 62.44 feet. The height of the center of gravity is 56.10 feet, and the transverse free surface correction is 1.21 feet. What is the value of the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?
Y a. 5.13 feet N b. 6.34 feet N c. 8.76 feet N d. 12.10 feet 3394: The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.
N a. distribute the gasoline Y b. mix the fuel and air N c. properly lubricate the engine N d. assist in priming the cylinders 3435: Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________.
N a. for all persons on board N b. for not less than 67% of all persons permitted on board Y c. for not less than 100% of all persons permitted on board N d. in place of ring life buoys 3833: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.
Y a. 33 Starboard N b. 44 Starboard N c. 33 Port N d. 44 Port 3860: Lifejackets should be stowed in __________.
N a. the forepeaks N b. the pumproom Y c. readily accessible spaces N d. locked watertight containers 3924: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.
Y a. remain in the immediate vicinity N b. head for the nearest land N c. head for the closest sea-lanes N d. let the persons in the boat vote on what to do 3979: In the illustration shown, where would you find the knife? (D014SA )
Y a. Item #2 N b. item #4 N c. item #12 N d. item #16 4022: Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station?
Y a. Twin-screw vessels that have operating station control for both engines N b. Vessels on limited routes N c. Fleet boats making or breaking tows N d. Vessels serving a single company or facility 4171: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
N a. 10.07 feet N b. 8.80 feet Y c. 7.59 feet N d. 5.45 feet 4262: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. N c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. N d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires twice the time to climb a ladder than without the suit 4387: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wind for drilling?
N a. 45 knots Y b. 50 knots N c. 57 knots N d. 62 knots 4784: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.
Y a. sound the alarm N b. notify the Coast Guard N c. have passengers put on life preservers N d. cut off air supply to the fire 5247: In case of major damage to column C1P while the DEEP DRILLER is on location, you should pump from port-forward lower-hull tanks using __________.
N a. all four ballast pumps Y b. both port-side ballast pumps N c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps N d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps 5941: Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.
N a. fireman's outfit Y b. low-velocity spray applicator N c. marine strainer N d. pick axe 6905: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding when it __________.
Y a. creates a hazard to the vessel N b. will last longer than 24 hours N c. will last longer than 48 hours N d. occurs in international waters 6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.
Y a. tour reports N b. hull reports N c. machinery repair record book N d. deck equipment log 6957: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board for at least 3 months after a MODU is involved in a casualty or until advised that they are no longer needed on board by the __________.
N a. owner N b. Master N c. person in charge Y d. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection 7381: One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is to __________.
N a. dump deck tanks into lower hulls N b. plug ballast tank vents N c. head into the waves Y d. increase tank free surface 8355: What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?
Y a. Volatility N b. Viscosity N c. Flash point N d. Specific heat 8651: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the sounding level and port aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10P has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.
Y a. deballast from tank 9P N b. dump the mud N c. counterflood into 2S N d. counterflood into 10P 8751: When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of __________.
N a. 35 feet N b. 32 feet N c. 30 feet Y d. 25 feet 9187: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.
N a. before you enter the water Y b. after you enter the water N c. after one hour in the water N d. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy 9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.
N a. accumulators Y b. control pods N c. consoles N d. shuttle controls 9673: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.
N a. rotate personnel, due to heat stress N b. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck N c. cool the deck directly above the space on fire Y d. All of the above