USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


104: In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance" is __________.


141: Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel?


154: The standard rate of signaling by flashing light is __________.


228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?

    Y a. Compound
    N b. Greenstick
    N c. Closed
    N d. Crack

475: The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly must be at least __________.

    N a. the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
    N b. twice the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
    N c. three times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
    Y d. four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head

499: In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be __________.

    N a. open and individual tank valves open
    N b. open and the individual tank valves closed
    N c. closed and the individual tank valves closed
    Y d. closed and the individual tank valves open

833: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.

    N a. abandon ship
    Y b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations
    N c. fire and emergency
    N d. man overboard

902: Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

    N a. Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.
    N b. Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.
    Y c. Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.
    N d. Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.

919: After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?

    N a. Slightly elevate the head and feet.
    N b. Keep the person awake.
    Y c. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature.
    N d. Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.

1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.

    N a. may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life preservers
    N b. should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency stations
    N c. may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat drills
    Y d. should be used when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge

1129: Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?

    N a. Cools the inert gas.
    N b. Removes particulate matter like soot.
    Y c. Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.
    N d. Removes chemical impurities from the gas.

1146: Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?

    Y a. An oceangoing vessel of 140 GT
    N b. A coastwise vessel of 550 GT
    N c. An river-going vessel of 760 GT
    N d. All of the above

1158: Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________.

    N a. an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites
    N b. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance
    Y c. chemical action within a substance
    N d. All of the above

1270: The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the __________.

    N a. radial
    N b. sheath-screw
    Y c. gravity
    N d. quadrantal

1310: Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________.

    Y a. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level
    N b. secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position
    N c. hold the lifeboat to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed
    N d. be used as a safety line in an emergency

1331: A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.

    Y a. has financial backing to meet any liability resulting from the discharge of oil
    N b. has the minimum required amount of P & I and hull insurance
    N c. will assume the responsibility for any damage or loss to the shipper
    N d. has financial reserves to meet reasonable expected crew costs of an intended voyage

1348: Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?

    N a. Burning oil
    N b. Electrical
    N c. Paint
    Y d. All of the above

1416: You will extinguish a fire when you remove __________.

    N a. nitrogen
    Y b. oxygen
    N c. sodium
    N d. carbon dioxide

1458: Your vessel displaces 14,500 tons, with a longitudinal CG 247.5 ft. aft of the FP. If you pump 80 tons of ballast from forward to aft through a distance of 480 feet, your new CG will be __________.

    N a. 244.85 feet aft of FP
    N b. 246.22 feet aft of FP
    N c. 248.87 feet aft of FP
    Y d. 250.15 feet aft of FP

1470: If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.

    N a. move port-side main-deck cargo to the starboard side
    Y b. fill the starboard double-bottom
    N c. pump water from the port double-bottom to the starboard double-bottom
    N d. pump water from the port double-bottom over the side

1500: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0040

    N a. Available GM 6.9 ft
    N b. Available GM 5.3 ft
    Y c. Available GM 4.1 ft
    N d. Available GM 3.8 ft

1527: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

    N a. latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water
    N b. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip
    Y c. latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore
    N d. latitude and longitude only

1667: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    N a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    N b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    Y c. immediately start CPR
    N d. administer oxygen

1749: High pressure and low pressure alarms must be tested __________.

    Y a. no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading
    N b. no later than 24 hours prior to loading
    N c. anytime prior to loading
    N d. weekly

1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?

    N a. 4.98 feet
    N b. 5.21 feet
    Y c. 5.43 feet
    N d. 5.67 feet

1903: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?

    N a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
    N b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled.
    Y c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because someone on board requires medical assistance.
    N d. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is declaring that she is "healthy" and requests free pratique.

2063: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

    N a. tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current
    Y b. form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle
    N c. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
    N d. form a raft by lashing their life preservers together

2149: On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?

    N a. The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection
    Y b. The certificated tankerman on duty
    N c. The vessel owner
    N d. Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation.

2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

    N a. filling a partially filled tank
    Y b. using fuel from a pressed fuel tank
    N c. emptying a partially filled tank
    N d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak

2490: Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?

    N a. Dry chemicals
    N b. CO2
    N c. Foam
    Y d. All the above

2717: Horizontal subdivision decks forming watertight compartments in the columns of a semisubmersible MODU increase the unit's __________.

    N a. tank capacities
    Y b. stability in the event of damage
    N c. towing speed
    N d. anchor holding ratio

2791: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    Y a. under no conditions
    N b. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    N c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    N d. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water

3011: A semisubmersible which will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard is likely to have __________.

    N a. a large TCG
    Y b. a negative GM
    N c. excessive ballast
    N d. insufficient deck load

3078: If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.

    N a. throw him/her a life buoy
    N b. hail "man overboard"
    N c. pass the word to the bridge
    Y d. All of the above

3191: To assess the potential for progressive flooding aboard a damaged MODU, you must know the __________.

    Y a. integrity of the watertight boundaries
    N b. capacity of the water sprinkler systems
    N c. operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms
    N d. All of the above

3257: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is discharged from a height of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?

    Y a. 1.5 feet upward
    N b. 1.5 feet downward
    N c. 0.8 foot upward
    N d. 0.8 foot downward

3412: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch.

    N a. FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4"
    Y b. FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3"
    N c. FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3"
    N d. FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4"

3520: How should the number "5" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    N a. FIVE-ER
    N b. NEW-MARL-FIVE
    N c. NUM-ERL-FIVE
    Y d. PAN-TAH-FIVE

3546: According to the regulations for passenger vessels, a "motor vessel" is one which is propelled by machinery other than steam and is more than __________.

    N a. 16 ft. in length
    N b. 34 ft. in length
    N c. 45 ft. in length
    Y d. 65 ft. in length

3556: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.

    Y a. compass
    N b. one 50 meter line
    N c. one can opener
    N d. All of the above

3674: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?

    N a. At one hour intervals
    N b. At half hour intervals
    Y c. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
    N d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel

3847: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10S to Tank 1P using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.

    N a. 33 Starboard
    N b. 44 Starboard
    N c. 33 Port
    Y d. 34 Port

3900: The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

    N a. inspected weekly
    N b. worn at all times
    Y c. readily available
    N d. tested yearly

3914: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.

    Y a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together
    N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
    N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water
    N d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed

4051: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting list angle?

    N a. 2.11 degrees to port
    N b. 1.43 degrees to starboard
    Y c. 2.87 degrees to starboard
    N d. 3.02 degrees to starboard

4239: Either one approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system is required to protect the engine room on towing vessels whose construction was contracted for before __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. April 29, 2005
    N b. April 29, 2004
    Y c. August 27, 2003
    N d. February 1, 2002

4241: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.

    N a. 15 feet
    Y b. 20 feet
    N c. 25 feet
    N d. 30 feet

4285: During an ocean tow when the winds are less than 70 knots, the maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

    N a. 38.75 feet
    N b. 42.00 feet
    N c. 44.00 feet
    Y d. 65.00 feet

4751: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #20. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with this transfer?

    Y a. 565 ft-kips
    N b. 900 ft-kips
    N c. 2603 ft-kips
    N d. 3168 ft-kips

4797: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new TCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    Y a. -0.23 foot
    N b. 0.00 foot
    N c. 0.23 foot
    N d. 0.54 foot

5123: In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally __________.

    N a. structural
    N b. watertight
    Y c. non-structural
    N d. continuous

5427: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 115.79 feet AFO
    Y b. 119.18 feet AFO
    N c. 119.44 feet AFO
    N d. 126.68 feet AFO

5475: The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the __________.

    N a. stud link is more economical
    Y b. stud keeps the chain from kinking
    N c. stud link chain is the lightest night design
    N d. stud link improves the anchor's holding power

6641: On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?

    N a. One ring life buoy
    Y b. One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU
    N c. Three ring life buoys
    N d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU

7035: If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.

    N a. soda crackers and water
    Y b. orange juice
    N c. an ounce of whiskey
    N d. a glass of milk

7431: What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?

    N a. Daylight before noon
    N b. At noon
    N c. Daylight after noon
    Y d. During darkness

8691: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new draft?

    N a. 55.55 feet
    Y b. 56.55 feet
    N c. 57.05 feet
    N d. 59.45 feet

9205: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed __________.

    N a. horizontally and directly abeam of your vessel
    N b. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract
    N c. into the wind
    Y d. at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon

9265: Oil well casing will fail when the external pressure exceeds the internal pressure by a differential equal to the casing's rated __________.

    N a. tensile strength
    N b. hoop stress
    Y c. collapse pressure
    N d. burst pressure