This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
455: Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the __________.
Y a. tanks were designated, installed, or constructed for fuel oil carrying before July 1, 1974 N b. tank is 18 inches inboard of the hull structure N c. shell of the tank is of the same thickness or greater than that of the vessel's hull N d. fuel has a flash point above 180°F 813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
N a. abandon ship N b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations Y c. fire and emergency N d. man overboard 969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.
Y a. tipping center N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of gravity N d. turning center 1001: Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?
N a. The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before entry. Y b. The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not regenerated. N c. The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours. N d. If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask. 1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
Y a. a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge N b. An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel N c. A good air vent of sufficient diameter N d. A glass tube to visually observe the fuel 1151: Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________.
Y a. cooling, removing to shaded area, and lying down N b. bathing with rubbing alcohol N c. drinking ice water N d. All of the above 1199: To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels they should be located __________.
N a. in trays constructed of material that is resistant to the electrolyte N b. so as to prevent movement when the vessel pitches and rolls N c. in a well ventilated area Y d. All of the above 1789: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?
Y a. 30 days N b. 3 months N c. 6 months N d. 1 year 1815: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.
N a. speed increases N b. side slip decreases N c. heeling moment decreases Y d. apparent wind moves forward 1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.
N a. red and white N b. yellow and white Y c. yellow and blue N d. yellow and red 1889: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?
Y a. The SART's blips on the PPI will become arcs and eventually become concentric circles. N b. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone alarm. N c. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. N d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. 2023: If you were to jibe in a strong wind, the part of the rigging most likely to fail would be the __________.
N a. forestay Y b. backstay N c. jumper stay N d. halyard 2088: If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once every __________.
N a. 3 months Y b. 6 months N c. year N d. 2 years 2252: According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic?
N a. Specific Gravity of 0.86 N b. A boiling point of 43°F N c. A Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia Y d. Insoluble in water 2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.
N a. check the fuel level N b. open the doors N c. take the life preservers off Y d. check that hooks are fully locked in place 2394: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 122 tons are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships, 128 tons are discharged 54 feet forward of amidships, and 68 tons of fuel is pumped 48 feet aft.
N a. FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-08" N b. FWD 24'-02", AFT 26'-11" Y c. FWD 24'-04", AFT 26'-08" N d. FWD 24'-05", AFT 26'-02" 2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.
Y a. temporary guide base N b. permanent guide base N c. guide frame N d. foundation template 2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.
N a. aluminum riser N b. tapered riser Y c. buoyant riser N d. intermediate tensioner 2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft N b. Available GM 4.24 ft Y c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft N b. Available GM 4.24 ft Y c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft N b. Available GM 4.24 ft Y c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2555: When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator must assure that __________.
N a. the personnel carrier remains directly over the vessel N b. all personnel are inside the net type carrier Y c. the personnel carrier remains directly over water N d. he does not swing the load until it is above the landing area 2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline?
N a. Aluminum Y b. Copper N c. Nickel N d. Mild steel 2754: Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?
N a. Inflatable PFD's Y b. EPIRB N c. Hydrostatic releases N d. Dated batteries 2840: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.2 feet on 9000 tons of displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 16° N b. 15° N c. 12° Y d. 9° 2883: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.
N a. survival craft N b. messrooms Y c. readily accessible locations N d. locked watertight containers 2962: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0090
Y a. FWD 17'-06", AFT 24'-03" N b. FWD 19'-03", AFT 22'-06" N c. FWD 17'-01", AFT 24'-08" N d. FWD 21'-04", AFT 19'-07" 3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.
N a. FSCL N b. KG Y c. KGL N d. GML 3151: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.
N a. C1S Y b. 9S N c. 2P N d. 2S 3223: After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________.
N a. buoyant cushion for each person on board Y b. inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack N c. inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached N d. approved rescue boat 3378: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 1 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)
Y a. 2230 tons N b. 2270 tons N c. 2310 tons N d. 2350 tons 3464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3175 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0132
Y a. KG 26.8 feet N b. KG 27.3 feet N c. KG 28.2 feet N d. KG 28.5 feet 3612: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch.
N a. FWD 13'-03 5/8", AFT 15'-03 1/8" N b. FWD 13'-04 3/4", AFT 15'-03 1/4" N c. FWD 13'-05 1/5", AFT 15'-04 3/5" Y d. FWD 13'-08 4/5", AFT 15'-08 4/5" 3694: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.
N a. monitor blood pressure Y b. clear airways N c. use the rhythmic pressure method N d. know all approved methods 3861: Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________.
N a. provided for each person onboard N b. provided for all personnel of watch N c. readily accessible to persons in the engine room Y d. All of the above 4155: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new uncorrected height of the center of gravity?
N a. 50.72 feet N b. 51.25 feet Y c. 51.87 feet N d. 53.22 feet 4289: What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Y a. Civil penalty of no more than $650 N b. Civil penalty of no more than $5,000 N c. $5,000 fine and imprisonment for not more than one year, or both N d. $1,000 fine or imprisonment for not more than two years 4291: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit, stability is acceptable provided that neither the KGL nor the KGT exceed __________.
N a. the height of the righting arm N b. KML or KMT N c. GML or GMT Y d. maximum allowable KG 4747: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load?
N a. 46 feet port of the centerline Y b. 46 feet starboard of the centerline N c. 84 feet port of the centerline N d. 84 feet starboard of the centerline 4767: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred from tank #1 to tank #26 to level the vessel in trim?
N a. 62.7 kips N b. 64.4 kips N c. 111.4 kips Y d. 114.9 kips 5308: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?
Y a. 25.7 feet N b. 26.0 feet N c. 26.4 feet N d. 26.8 feet 5461: Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as the __________.
Y a. safe operating load N b. normal operating tension N c. emergency working load N d. allowable storm load 5504: While signaling by flashing light you make an error. You should send __________.
N a. RPT, then repeat the entire signal N b. EEE, then send the word correctly Y c. the erase signal then continue the message with the last correctly spelled word N d. the correction signal and re-spell the word 5647: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension increases __________.
Y a. KG N b. GM N c. KM N d. free surface moments 5827: When a MODU is afloat in equilibrium, the horizontal component of mooring line tensions should equal __________.
N a. drilling forces N b. weight forces N c. buoyancy forces Y d. environmental forces 5914: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 25 ft. wide, and 8 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.053) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?
N a. 1152 Y b. 1336 N c. 1371 N d. 16,036 6074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0190
N a. Available GM 4.1 ft N b. Available GM 4.3 ft N c. Available GM 4.7 ft Y d. Available GM 5.1 ft 6091: Due to the hazards involved with Halon extinguishers on a MODU, the size II extinguisher may only be used __________.
Y a. outside N b. on class C fires N c. in an emergency N d. on class B fires 6515: While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in strength and changes direction significantly, you should __________.
N a. expedite off-loading N b. stop off-loading, but keep the offshore supply vessel in the present location N c. continue off-loading with no changes Y d. move the offshore supply vessel to the downwind side 6703: The person-in-charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must be designated by the __________.
N a. Coast Guard N b. Minerals Management Service N c. operator or his agent Y d. owner or his agent 7006: What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?
N a. Receives saturated steam from the generating tubes N b. Serves as a reservoir of boiler feed water N c. Holds internal fittings for separation of moisture from steam Y d. Collects steam exhausted from the turbines 7737: The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.
N a. center of buoyancy N b. center of gravity N c. metacenter Y d. center of flotation 8053: At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last __________.
N a. 8 hours N b. 12 hours Y c. 24 hours N d. 48 hours 8315: The airborne concentrations of substances (such as H2S) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.
N a. exposure limits N b. concentration limits Y c. threshold limit values N d. substance limit values 8511: An elevated jack-up weighs 17,000 kips. Its center of gravity is located 110 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). What would be the new LCG if the cantilever (weight 900 kips) and drill floor (weight 800 kips) were skidded 70 feet aft?
N a. 103.0 feet AF0 N b. 113.4 feet AF0 Y c. 117.0 feet AF0 N d. 180.0 feet AF0 8761: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks N b. satisfactory, continue tripping Y c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. satisfactory, but prepare to hang off 9021: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
N a. inclining moments N b. righting moments N c. vertical moments Y d. longitudinal position of the center of gravity 9493: On a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline results in a(n) __________.
N a. transverse moment Y b. vertical moment N c. righting moment N d. inclining moment 9511: In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.
Y a. center of gravity N b. amidships station N c. center of flotation N d. geometric center of the waterplane area 9624: You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.
N a. begin breaking out the nearest fire hose N b. secure ventilation to the room N c. close the door to the room Y d. acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus