USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is approximately __________.


375: Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil?


444: A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.


466: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

    N a. litmus paper
    N b. a combustible gas indicator
    N c. an oxygen breathing apparatus
    Y d. an oxygen indicator

693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.

    N a. produce high-velocity fog
    Y b. produce low-velocity fog
    N c. produce a straight stream
    N d. shut off the water

736: How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?

    N a. None
    N b. One
    N c. Two
    Y d. Three

1328: Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?

    N a. Cooling ability
    N b. Leaves no residue
    N c. Penetrating power
    Y d. Nonconductivity

1364: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

    N a. Very pistol
    Y b. orange smoke signal
    N c. air horn
    N d. lantern

1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

    N a. compression stress
    N b. racking stress
    N c. shear stress
    Y d. tension stress

1512: Where are the draft marks required to be displayed on a ship?

    N a. Deep tanks
    N b. Voids
    N c. Midships near the waterline
    Y d. Area of water line near stem and stern

1754: A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly moving flame through the piping is called a __________.

    N a. flame arrestor
    N b. flame screen
    Y c. detonation arrestor
    N d. detonation blocker

2035: What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?

    N a. Dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit
    Y b. Pressing a "Distress Key" on the equipment
    N c. Contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in existence
    N d. Contacting the CES operator using the radiotelephone distress procedure "Mayday"...etc.

2067: You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?

    N a. 'This is TEXAS STAR. Pick a channel.'
    N b. 'This is TEXAS STAR on Channel 16. Come back.'
    Y c. 'This is TEXAS STAR, WSR 1234, reply Channel 10.'
    N d. 'Please stand by. We're busy right now.'

2105: If a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should __________.

    N a. inflate the liferaft on deck
    Y b. roll the liferaft over the side
    N c. go to another liferaft station
    N d. get a saw and cut the liferaft free

2122: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    N a. 14 tons
    Y b. 18 tons
    N c. 24 tons
    N d. 33 tons

2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    N a. shut off all electrical power
    N b. close all openings to the area
    N c. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    Y d. cool the bulkheads around the fire

2304: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck?

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

2335: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

    Y a. Chain reaction
    N b. Electricity
    N c. Pressure
    N d. Smoke

2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?

    N a. Each cargo tank must have a vent.
    N b. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve.
    Y c. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter.
    N d. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.

2501: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 20'-06", AFT 24'-00". The KG is 29.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    N a. 3.4°
    N b. 4.2°
    N c. 4.9°
    Y d. 6.0°

2518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0067

    N a. 4.0 feet
    N b. 5.6 feet
    Y c. 6.0 feet
    N d. 6.8 feet

2574: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 60° inclination.

    N a. 0.9 foot
    Y b. 1.8 feet
    N c. 2.7 feet
    N d. 4.5 feet

2664: Gasoline fumes tend to __________.

    Y a. settle near the bottom of the bilge
    N b. settle near the top of the bilge
    N c. settle evenly throughout all levels of the bilge by mixing with air
    N d. disperse to atmosphere

2698: Using a sea anchor will __________.

    Y a. reduce your drift rate
    N b. keep the liferaft from turning over
    N c. aid in recovering the liferaft
    N d. increase your visibility

2700: According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?

    N a. Electrical cut off switch
    Y b. A fusible link
    N c. Manual cut off switch
    N d. A water spray actuator

2812: What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT?

    N a. Penetrations are prohibited.
    Y b. Sluice valves are not permitted.
    N c. Each bulkhead must be stepped at its midpoint.
    N d. All of the above

2936: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-03", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2 feet off the centerline.

    N a. 12°
    N b. 14°
    Y c. 20°
    N d. 22°

3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

    N a. volume of liquid in the tank
    Y b. volume of displacement of the vessel
    N c. location of the tank in the vessel
    N d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel

3042: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0100

    N a. 271.2 ft
    N b. 260.3 ft
    Y c. 251.9 ft
    N d. 247.2 ft

3058: Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. with the vessel's name in 3" letters
    N b. conspicuously in 1-1/2" letters with the number of persons allowed
    N c. with the vessel's name on all paddles
    Y d. All of the above

3174: What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?

    Y a. 2-1/2 gallon foam
    N b. 4 pound carbon dioxide
    N c. 2 pound dry chemical
    N d. All of the above

3194: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?

    Y a. non-toxic gas
    N b. Oxygen
    N c. Hydrogen
    N d. Helium

3223: After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________.

    N a. buoyant cushion for each person on board
    Y b. inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack
    N c. inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached
    N d. approved rescue boat

3774: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

    N a. 3 short blasts of the ship's whistle
    Y b. 1 short blast of the ship's whistle
    N c. 3 long blasts of the ship's whistle
    N d. 1 long blast of the ship's whistle

3867: Each OSV must carry __________.

    N a. one category I 406 Mhz satellite EPIRB
    N b. at least one life buoy on each side of the vessel fitted with a buoyant life line
    N c. at least 12 rocket parachute flares
    Y d. All of the above

3924: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.

    Y a. remain in the immediate vicinity
    N b. head for the nearest land
    N c. head for the closest sea-lanes
    N d. let the persons in the boat vote on what to do

3963: Salt water ballast tank 2P on the DEEP DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of ballast. It is decided to fill the tank. What is the VCG of the added liquid?

    N a. 7.5 feet
    N b. 10.0 feet
    Y c. 12.5 feet
    N d. 15.0 feet

4037: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGT?

    N a. 52.60 feet
    Y b. 53.65 feet
    N c. 54.31 feet
    N d. 54.92 feet

4062: The owner or Master of a towing vessel that is operating within a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) area must report all of the following to VTS as soon as practicable EXCEPT ___________ .

    N a. any malfunction of propulsion machinery, steering gear, radar, gyrocompass or depth-sounder, if installed
    N b. shortage of personnel, lack of charts, maps or other required publications
    Y c. the type of license he/she holds and its serial number
    N d. any characteristics of the vessel that affect its maneuverability

4114: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0155

    N a. 229.8 ft
    Y b. 236.7 ft
    N c. 244.6 ft
    N d. 251.5 ft

4197: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

    N a. 0.5 second
    N b. 5.0 seconds
    Y c. 10.0 seconds
    N d. 13.5 seconds

4229: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of six days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 43. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    N a. 79.5 inches
    Y b. 76.5 inches
    N c. 75.0 inches
    N d. 72.5 inches

4345: What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?

    N a. Soil conditions
    N b. Overturning moment
    Y c. Water depth
    N d. Specific gravity of the sea water

4734: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    N a. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    N b. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    Y c. under no conditions
    N d. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water

4847: The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.

    N a. pressure differences in the atmosphere
    N b. the length of the hose attached to the facepiece
    Y c. the physical exertion of the person wearing the device
    N d. spaces containing poisonous vapors

5275: In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using __________.

    N a. all four ballast pumps
    Y b. both port-side ballast pumps
    N c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
    N d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps

5947: Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads that meet the specifications of the __________.

    N a. American Petroleum Institute
    Y b. National Standard Fire hose Coupling
    N c. American Society of Mechanical Engineers
    N d. Underwriter's Laboratories, Inc.

6047: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal length of __________.

    N a. 25 feet
    Y b. 50 feet
    N c. 75 feet
    N d. 100 feet

6049: While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    N a. Resume base course and speed as your assistance is no longer required.
    N b. Acknowledge receipt and advise your course, speed, and ETA.
    N c. Relay the original distress message as no other vessel has acknowledged it.
    Y d. Monitor the radiotelephone but do not transmit.

6101: What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling facilities?

    N a. Fuel testing station
    N b. Foam testing station
    Y c. Foam fire protection system
    N d. Fire alarm

6567: On offshore drilling units, the number of industrial personnel permitted to be on board during drilling operations is found on the __________.

    N a. Classification Certificate
    N b. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    Y c. U.S. Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection
    N d. Owner's Operation Manual

6621: Locations on a MODU where flammable hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to drilling operations are defined as __________.

    N a. gaseous locations
    N b. hazardous locations
    Y c. classified locations
    N d. designated locations

8223: What is the purpose of a check valve?

    N a. Passes air but not liquid
    N b. Regulates liquid flow
    Y c. Permits flow in one direction only
    N d. Passes liquid but not air

8527: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    N a. 4,060 kips
    N b. 5,145 kips
    N c. 5,559 kips
    Y d. 5,816 kips

8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    Y a. 10P
    N b. 9P
    N c. 10S
    N d. 1P

8848: Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________.

    N a. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air
    Y b. regular checks of bilge levels
    N c. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise
    N d. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water

9093: In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?

    N a. Weigh the powder in the canister.
    N b. Discharge a small amount to see that it works.
    Y c. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs.
    N d. Check the external pressure gage.

9443: The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.

    N a. time
    Y b. lever arm
    N c. displacement
    N d. angle of inclination

9477: The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.

    N a. effort
    N b. flotation
    N c. gravity
    Y d. buoyancy

9682: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

    N a. 15 minutes
    Y b. 30 minutes
    N c. 45 minutes
    N d. 60 minutes