This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
N a. shape N b. shallow draft N c. large sail area Y d. All of the above 96: A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________.
N a. 2-1/2 gallons of foam N b. 8 gallons of foam N c. 10 gallons of foam Y d. 12 gallons of foam 407: Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.
Y a. speak English N b. repair the unit N c. send Morse Code N d. speak a language the vessel's crew will understand 714: A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.
N a. "PAN-PAN" N b. "MAYDAY" N c. "SOS" Y d. "SECURITY" 722: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0016
N a. FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-00" Y b. FWD 23'-07", AFT 26'-07" N c. FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-02" N d. FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-10" 881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________.
N a. attempting to set the fracture Y b. preventing further movement of the bone N c. applying a tourniquet N d. alternately applying hot and cold compresses 913: On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 40 feet long and 20 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.
Y a. 0.1 ft N b. 0.3 ft N c. 0.5 ft N d. 0.9 ft 1079: Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?
Y a. Low oxygen alarm N b. Low pressure alarm N c. Scrubber high water level alarm N d. Deck seal low water alarm 1188: The most effective way to apply a foam stream if the fire is on deck or is a running fire, is to direct the stream __________.
N a. onto the surface of the burning liquid Y b. ahead of the burning liquid and bounce it on the fire N c. at the base of the burning liquid in a sweeping motion N d. just above the surface of the burning liquid 1196: The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.
N a. in one of the equipment bags Y b. in a special pocket near the forward entrance N c. on a cord hanging from the canopy N d. in a pocket on the first aid kit 1210: The tricing pendants should be released __________.
N a. before the gripes are removed N b. before loading the passengers Y c. after loading the passengers N d. after the boat is afloat 1392: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
N a. removing the heat N b. removing the oxygen Y c. removing the fuel N d. interrupting the chain reaction 1470: If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.
N a. move port-side main-deck cargo to the starboard side Y b. fill the starboard double-bottom N c. pump water from the port double-bottom to the starboard double-bottom N d. pump water from the port double-bottom over the side 1675: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?
Y a. MED TECH N b. MD N c. NONE N d. NURSE 1701: Movement of liquid in a tank when a vessel inclines causes an increase in __________.
N a. righting arm N b. metacentric height N c. height of the uncorrected KG Y d. natural rolling period 1759: You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.
N a. jack down one leg at a time Y b. jack up first, then down N c. undog doors to the engine room N d. assemble all personnel on the main deck 1937: On offshore drilling units, a fire drill must be conducted at least once a __________.
Y a. week N b. month N c. quarter N d. year 1981: On a mobile offshore drilling unit it is required to __________.
N a. inspect the lifesaving gear provided in any helicopter landing on the rig N b. check the Certificate of Inspection of any support vessel bringing hazardous materials to the rig N c. insure that engineering spaces are in a clean and sanitary condition Y d. record the length of each abandonment drill in the rig's log book 2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?
N a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency. Y b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. N c. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. N d. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. 2164: Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?
N a. Jettison any off-center topside weights to lower GM and correct the list. N b. Pump out any slack after double-bottom tanks to reduce free surface and increase freeboard aft. N c. Pump out the after peak and fill the forepeak to change the trim. Y d. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty. 2247: When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.
N a. tie up to the rescue vessel N b. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick Y c. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel N d. transfer all personnel immediately 2370: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flammable limits of ethylene oxide are __________.
N a. 1.85 - 48.0% Y b. 2 - 100% N c. 2.7 - 34% N d. 1.9 - 88.0% 2625: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. plot course for the nearest land N c. take a vote on which direction you should go Y d. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor 2672: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-08", AFT 17'-06"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.7 feet off the centerline.
N a. 1.8 feet Y b. 2.1 feet N c. 3.0 feet N d. 3.8 feet 2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________.
N a. sweep flames away with water spray Y b. shut off the leak N c. use a chemical foam fire extinguisher N d. call the local fire department 2835: A vessel heading NNE is on a course of __________.
Y a. 022.5° N b. 045.0° N c. 067.5° N d. 090.0° 2945: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.
N a. filling a partially filled tank Y b. using fuel from a pressed fuel tank N c. emptying a partially filled tank N d. transferring pipe from the setback area to the pipe rack 3144: On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the releasing lever releases __________.
N a. the painter N b. the after boat fall only if the boat is waterborne N c. both falls at the same time only if the boat is waterborne Y d. both falls at the same time even if the boat has not reached the water 3321: A semisubmersible displacing 18,000 long tons has an LCG 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?
N a. 0.8 foot forward of amidships N b. 1.20 feet forward of amidships N c. 3.11 feet forward of amidships Y d. 3.20 feet forward of amidships 3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0126
Y a. 595 tons N b. 870 tons N c. 1200 tons N d. 1350 tons 3430: How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. QWE BEC N b. QUE BACH Y c. KEH BECK N d. QU UE 3509: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 30'-01" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.
N a. 97 tons Y b. 100 tons N c. 103 tons N d. 106 tons 3522: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 23'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.8'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)
N a. Tanks: DB2, DB6 N b. Tanks: DB6, DT7 Y c. Tanks: DB4, DB7 N d. Tanks: DB2, DB5 3566: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.
N a. buoyant oars N b. one 50 meter line N c. one first aid kit Y d. All of the above 3613: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?
N a. The nature of the distress N b. The time of day N c. Your radio call sign Y d. Your position by latitude and longitude 3682: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?
N a. 4 to 6 times per minute Y b. 12 to 15 times per minute N c. 20 to 30 times per minute N d. At least 30 times per minute 3724: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.
N a. be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sight N b. increase survival time in the water Y c. increase the rate of heat loss from the body N d. not affect the heat loss from the body 3872: For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________.
N a. spring-loaded line thrower N b. hand thrown buoyant line Y c. shoulder type line throwing gun N d. heaving line 3928: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.
Y a. survivors in the water N b. food and water N c. land N d. bad weather 3948: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.
N a. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes N b. the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure Y c. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel N d. the entrance curtains should never be opened 3981: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy?
N a. 0.00 feet N b. 1.69 feet N c. 2.25 feet Y d. 2.29 feet 4026: When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to carry portable fuel systems on board?
N a. When used for outboard engines N b. When permanently attached to portable equipment such as bilge and fire pumps N c. If the portable tanks used for portable equipment meet published safety standards Y d. All of the above 4062: The owner or Master of a towing vessel that is operating within a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) area must report all of the following to VTS as soon as practicable EXCEPT ___________ .
N a. any malfunction of propulsion machinery, steering gear, radar, gyrocompass or depth-sounder, if installed N b. shortage of personnel, lack of charts, maps or other required publications Y c. the type of license he/she holds and its serial number N d. any characteristics of the vessel that affect its maneuverability 4064: If you are the Master of a towing vessel whose only working radar no longer functions, what must you do?
Y a. Notify the Captain of the Port (COTP) if you cannot repair it within 96 hours. N b. Notify the Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection (OCMI) if you cannot repair it within 48 hours. N c. Moor the vessel until it is repaired. N d. Anchor the vessel until it is repaired. 4134: Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
N a. with both pumps on line at the same time Y b. with one pump on standby N c. with the follow-up gear disconnected N d. only when the rudder is moved amidships 4280: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. none Y b. 5 tons N c. 10 tons N d. 20 tons 4357: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, which of the three leg reactions is required?
N a. Minimum N b. Average Y c. Highest N d. Preloaded value 4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.
N a. overboard discharge N b. dump valves Y c. skimmer tank N d. sump valves 5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks N b. satisfactory, continue tripping Y c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. satisfactory, place unit in standby 5924: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0187
N a. 1.30 feet N b. 1.07 foot N c. 0.96 foot Y d. 0.73 foot 6115: If a mobile offshore drilling rig has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6191: Fighting a rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses could reduce the stability of the rig by __________.
N a. progressive downflooding N b. reducing the level of drill water from the storage tanks Y c. causing a list due to the water in the compartment N d. reducing the KG to minimum allowable 6737: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.
N a. week N b. two weeks Y c. month N d. two months 7353: The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power output wattage of the radio because __________.
Y a. VHF communications are basically "line of sight" N b. the air is more dense the higher you go N c. salt water is a poor conductor of sound N d. sea water absorbs the radiated energy 7405: VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?
N a. Radio checks and time checks Y b. Inter-vessel safety and search and rescue N c. Working with helicopters N d. Radio direction finding 8131: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of drill water tank #17 are transferred to drill water tank #18?
N a. 181,648 ft-kips Y b. 181,718 ft-kips N c. 187,345 ft-kips N d. 195,462 ft-kips 8153: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet and a total vertical moment of 1,012,598 foot-tons, pumps 2,068.7 long tons of ballast overboard. The VCG of the discharged ballast is 15.0 feet. What is the new height of the center of gravity?
N a. 50.62 feet N b. 55.89 feet N c. 60.56 feet Y d. 61.16 feet 8217: What is the purpose of a striker plate?
N a. Provides surface for applying force on machinery Y b. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob N c. Absorbs machinery vibration N d. Prevents valve stem over-travel 9167: To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.
Y a. pull the release lanyard N b. pull the hydraulic release N c. push the release button N d. pull on the ratchet handle 9351: Halon from extinguishers used on a class B fire, should be directed __________.
N a. at the top of the flames Y b. at the base of the fire near the edge N c. in short quick bursts N d. toward the upwind side of the fire