USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


72: To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.


356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to __________.


406: A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all __________.


412: To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would __________.

    N a. attach the bronze nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the nozzle
    Y b. attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the bronze nozzle tip
    N c. attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the nozzle
    N d. simply move the handle to the vertical position on the nozzle

418: Treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) of __________.

    Y a. moving to a shaded area and laying down
    N b. bathing with rubbing alcohol
    N c. placing the patient in a tub of cold water
    N d. All of the above

531: A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.

    N a. reading the gage pressure
    Y b. weighing the extinguisher
    N c. discharging a small amount of CO2
    N d. seeing if the seal has been broken

608: A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________.

    N a. cooling the gas below the ignition point
    N b. cutting off the supply of oxygen
    Y c. stopping the flow of gas
    N d. interrupting the chain reaction

623: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

631: You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

    Y a. slack the mizzen sheet
    N b. trim the mizzen vang
    N c. slack the jib sheet
    N d. trim the main outhaul

644: The difference between the forward and aft drafts is __________.

    N a. list
    N b. heel
    Y c. trim
    N d. flotation

735: You are fueling your vessel when you notice oil in the water around your vessel. You should immediately stop fueling and __________.

    N a. begin cleanup operations
    Y b. notify the U. S. Coast Guard
    N c. leave the area
    N d. notify the Corps of Engineers

846: If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?

    Y a. 80 feet
    N b. 160 feet
    N c. Sufficiently long enough to reach the water when the vessel has an adverse list of 15°
    N d. One third the length from the bow to where the lifeboat is stowed

1085: When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.

    N a. on only the forward falls
    N b. on only the after falls
    Y c. with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat
    N d. from the falls to the main deck of the vessel

1209: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

    N a. allow for cutting out branch circuits
    Y b. prevent overloading the circuits
    N c. reduce voltage to the branch circuits
    N d. permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits

1220: Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are __________.

    N a. life lines
    Y b. frapping lines
    N c. tricing lines
    N d. tripping lines

1235: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?

    N a. Revive the person with smelling salts.
    N b. Loosen the clothing.
    N c. Lay the person horizontally.
    Y d. Give pain reliever.

1586: The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.

    N a. size of the fire when initially observed
    Y b. complete containment of the fire
    N c. cooling ability of the firefighting agent
    N d. class of the fire

1586: The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.

    N a. size of the fire when initially observed
    Y b. complete containment of the fire
    N c. cooling ability of the firefighting agent
    N d. class of the fire

1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

    Y a. one mast
    N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast

1818: In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?

    N a. This equipment must be carried at all times at sea regardless of where the vessel will be operating.
    Y b. This equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3.
    N c. This equipment satisfies in full the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A2.
    N d. HF SITOR equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3, but INMARSAT equipment must be carried to satisfy the requirement when the vessel is in Sea Area A4.

1871: If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.

    N a. increase the righting moment
    N b. cause an increase in the righting arm
    N c. bring the vessel to an upright equilibrium position
    Y d. cause the vessel to flop to a greater angle

1929: Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?

    N a. A homing signal provides a bearing for rescue personnel to follow to the signal's SOURCE.
    Y b. A homing signal is detected by the COSPAS-SARSAT satellites.
    N c. A homing signal cannot be detected by a GPS receiver.
    N d. A homing signal may be transmitted by equipment attached to the survival craft.

1933: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

    N a. within 12 hours of departure
    N b. within 24 hours of departure
    Y c. within a few hours before or after departure
    N d. prior to departure

1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    N a. 1.35 feet
    N b. 1.86 feet
    N c. 2.56 feet
    Y d. 3.60 feet

2066: A boom vang __________.

    Y a. holds the boom down and flattens the main sail
    N b. draws the head of the sail to windward
    N c. tautens the standing rigging
    N d. douses the gaff topsail

2084: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured __________.

    N a. to the bow of the lifeboat
    Y b. to an inboard thwart in the forward one-third of the boat
    N c. as close as possible to amidships of the lifeboat
    N d. anywhere along the inboard side of the boat

2152: You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

    N a. 1.06 feet
    N b. 1.32 feet
    N c. 1.65 feet
    Y d. 1.90 feet

2274: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

    N a. filling a partially filled tank
    Y b. using an on board crane to lift a freely swinging heavy object
    N c. emptying a partially filled tank
    N d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak

2365: The space around a pipe in a wellbore, the outer wall of which may be the wall of either the borehole or the casing, is the __________.

    N a. open hole
    N b. down hole
    N c. bore
    Y d. annulus

2383: What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Operator?

    N a. Holding the Marine Radio Operator Permit is a pre-requisite before the GMDSS Radio Operator Endorsement can be obtained.
    N b. Holding the General Radiotelephone Operator License with RADAR endorsement is sufficient.
    Y c. Holding a valid GMDSS Radio Operator License is sufficient.
    N d. Holding either the General Radiotelephone Operator License or the First or Second Class Radiotelegraph License with GMDSS Radio Maintainer's Endorsement is sufficient.

2417: Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS radio logbooks under any circumstance.
    N b. Urgency communications do not need to be entered in the GMDSS radio log.
    N c. Both of the above
    Y d. None of the above

2455: The element used to keep weight on the bit at a constant value in spite of up-and-down movement of a MODU during floating drilling operations is the heave or drill string __________.

    Y a. compensator
    N b. tensioner
    N c. stabilizer
    N d. equalizer

2527: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0070

    N a. 1171.5 tons
    N b. 1311.0 tons
    Y c. 1503.0 tons
    N d. 1710.5 tons

2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the __________.

    N a. vertical position
    Y b. horizontal position
    N c. boom stop angle
    N d. minimum radius angle

2592: Which signal is detected as originating from a SART?

    N a. The Morse code distress series S-O-S repeated 3 times followed by DE and the vessel's call sign
    Y b. A line of blip code on a radar screen outward from the SART's position along its line of bearing
    N c. A line of blip code on a radar screen inward from the SART's position to its own ship along its line of bearing
    N d. None of these

2669: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 61 tons
    N b. 72 tons
    Y c. 79 tons
    N d. 86 tons

2735: A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and __________.

    N a. mooring tension
    N b. riser tension
    N c. lifesaving equipment
    Y d. structural strength

3000: A rigid lifesaving device ONLY designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is known as a __________.

    N a. liferaft
    N b. life float
    N c. life preserver
    Y d. buoyant apparatus

3097: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.

    N a. that all personnel are seated in the craft
    Y b. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum
    N c. which way the wind is blowing
    N d. the hydraulic fuel level before lifting

3196: What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?

    Y a. All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated.
    N b. All lifeboat equipment shall be examined.
    N c. Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened.
    N d. All of the above

3206: Your tow contains a barge carrying carbon tetrachloride. What is NOT required?

    N a. Cargo warning signs on barge
    N b. Cargo information card on barge
    N c. Cargo information card in pilothouse
    Y d. Certificated tankerman on towboat

3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0126

    Y a. 595 tons
    N b. 870 tons
    N c. 1200 tons
    N d. 1350 tons

3402: A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. You should __________.

    N a. hoist flag "C"
    N b. wait for further signals after a short delay
    N c. hoist flag "R"
    Y d. expect no further flag hoists

3431: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet?

    N a. 2.0 feet by the head
    Y b. 4.0 feet by the head
    N c. 4.0 feet by the stern
    N d. 8.0 feet by the stern

3762: The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.

    N a. leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs
    N b. pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms
    N c. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement
    Y d. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury

3822: In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________.

    N a. thirsty
    Y b. sick or injured
    N c. wet
    N d. awake

3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    Y a. convection
    N b. conduction
    N c. radiation
    N d. direct contact

3855: Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?

    N a. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    Y b. Certificate of Inspection
    N c. Forecastle Card
    N d. Clearance Papers

3955: The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________.

    N a. week
    N b. two months
    Y c. three months
    N d. six months

5131: In illustration D041DG symbol 1 refers to __________.

    N a. change of draft
    N b. centerline
    N c. angle of inclination
    Y d. displacement

5205: Among the possible causes of unexpected constant inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

    N a. consumption of on board liquids
    Y b. miscalculation of loads
    N c. liquid transfer through open valves
    N d. flooding due to hull damage

5655: When the air temperature is just below 32°F, snow FIRST adheres to __________.

    N a. surfaces near the waterline
    N b. vertical surfaces
    Y c. horizontal surfaces
    N d. leeward surfaces

6015: On a MODU, size I and II extinguishers are considered __________.

    N a. fixed systems
    N b. steam generated
    Y c. hand portable
    N d. semi-portable

6047: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal length of __________.

    N a. 25 feet
    Y b. 50 feet
    N c. 75 feet
    N d. 100 feet

6687: A MODU must have a self-contained breathing apparatus to be used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this requirement, you may use __________.

    N a. a gas mask certified by the Mine Safety and Health Administration
    Y b. the same self-contained breathing apparatus required with the fireman's outfit
    N c. an oxygen breathing apparatus, provided that the device has been inspected within three years
    N d. a portable ventilation system that will provide a complete change of air every three minutes

7121: CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.

    N a. the discharge valve is open
    N b. the control box glass is broken
    Y c. pressure from the control cylinders is detected
    N d. the control cylinders have been completely discharged

7687: When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.

    N a. increase
    N b. decrease
    N c. are inversely proportional
    Y d. remain unchanged

8221: What is the purpose of a vent header?

    N a. Prevents entry of water into vent systems
    N b. Prevents passage of flame into fuel tanks
    N c. Catches overflow
    Y d. Combines individual vent lines into a main

8391: What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?

    N a. Lube oil pressure gauge
    N b. Jacket water temperature gauge
    N c. Tachometer
    Y d. Exhaust pyrometer

8535: You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.

    Y a. increase
    N b. decrease
    N c. stop
    N d. stabilize