USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


32: Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________.


233: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.


271: A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast Guard if it involves __________.


298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?

    Y a. Slow, deep breathing
    N b. Pale, cold skin
    N c. Weak, rapid pulse
    N d. Restlessness and anxiety

322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________.

    N a. alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a vapor
    N b. absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
    N c. rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
    Y d. rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam

340: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

    N a. It is added to the uncorrected GM to arrive at the corrected available GM.
    Y b. It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12 times the volume of displacement.
    N c. It is obtained by dividing the total free surface by the total vertical moments.
    N d. It is subtracted from the total longitudinal moments before dividing by displacement to find LCG.

367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________.

    N a. U.S. Coast Guard
    Y b. Federal Communications Commission
    N c. Radio Technical Commission for Marine Services
    N d. Maritime Mobile Service Commission

542: Before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle, you must __________. (D004SA )

    N a. install the high-velocity nozzle tip
    N b. move the handle to position 2
    N c. move the handle to position 1
    Y d. remove the high-velocity nozzle tip

602: What does "EPIRB" stand for?

    N a. Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy
    N b. Electronic Pulse Indicating Radio beacon
    Y c. Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon
    N d. None of the above

661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________.

    N a. day
    N b. week
    Y c. month
    N d. 3 months

692: Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?

    N a. To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire spreads
    N b. To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire
    N c. To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from igniting
    Y d. To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire

881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________.

    N a. attempting to set the fracture
    Y b. preventing further movement of the bone
    N c. applying a tourniquet
    N d. alternately applying hot and cold compresses

911: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0018

    N a. 3.75 feet
    N b. 3.02 feet
    Y c. 2.22 feet
    N d. 0.83 foot

1000: A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. The vessel has negative GM.
    N b. The center of gravity is on the centerline.
    N c. The list can be corrected by reducing KM.
    Y d. The vessel has asymmetrical weight distribution.

1090: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0025

    N a. 1.80 feet
    N b. 1.89 feet
    N c. 1.98 feet
    Y d. 2.05 feet

1125: What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?

    N a. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
    Y b. Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
    N c. Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat.
    N d. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind about broad on the quarter of your ship.

1154: On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________.

    N a. oil fired turbine or reciprocating steam engine
    N b. turbocharged diesel engine
    N c. natural gas (propane) engine
    Y d. gasoline powered engine

1290: Which davit type may be operated by one man?

    N a. Quadrantal
    Y b. Gravity
    N c. Sheath-screw
    N d. Radial

1403: Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?

    N a. The tank must be gas freed.
    N b. The tank must be ballasted.
    Y c. The tank must be vented to the atmosphere.
    N d. The bypass valve must also be closed.

1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?

    N a. Open equipment pack.
    N b. Post a lookout.
    N c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
    Y d. Pick up other survivors.

1645: On a MODU, each emergency generator must be tested at least once each __________.

    N a. week
    Y b. month
    N c. three months
    N d. six months

1650: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.

    Y a. be drier
    N b. be heavier
    N c. be more heat resistant
    N d. not cling to vertical surfaces

1818: In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?

    N a. This equipment must be carried at all times at sea regardless of where the vessel will be operating.
    Y b. This equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3.
    N c. This equipment satisfies in full the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A2.
    N d. HF SITOR equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3, but INMARSAT equipment must be carried to satisfy the requirement when the vessel is in Sea Area A4.

1924: Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by 8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3 tons)

    Y a. 1.76 feet
    N b. 1.94 feet
    N c. 2.10 feet
    N d. 2.44 feet

2066: A boom vang __________.

    Y a. holds the boom down and flattens the main sail
    N b. draws the head of the sail to windward
    N c. tautens the standing rigging
    N d. douses the gaff topsail

2245: The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________.

    N a. hydraulic system
    N b. pneumatic system
    N c. spare battery
    Y d. hand crank

2307: Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?

    N a. To lubricate shaft seals
    Y b. Lack of ability to lift water level to impellers
    N c. Head pressure must equal discharge pressure
    N d. To overcome resistance of water in the discharge line

2419: Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship?

    N a. In the Captain's office
    N b. In the sea cabin
    Y c. At the GMDSS operating position
    N d. Anywhere on board the vessel

2511: When lowering a personnel net to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel basket should be __________.

    Y a. lowered over open water
    N b. tied to the vessel with a tag line
    N c. dropped in the water
    N d. tied to the rig with a tag line

2653: The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the __________.

    Y a. frames
    N b. hull
    N c. stringers
    N d. plates

2712: A vessel with a small GM will __________.

    N a. be more subject to synchronous rolling
    N b. have a short rolling period
    N c. provide an uncomfortable ride for personnel
    Y d. have a smaller amplitude of roll in heavy weather

2872: A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is the correct location of the shutdown station?

    Y a. Midpoint of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine
    N b. Stern of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine
    N c. Midpoint of the vessel or 75 feet from the bow
    N d. Bow of the vessel or 75 feet from the engine

2915: A MODU lists and trims about the __________.

    N a. center of gravity
    N b. center of buoyancy
    Y c. center of flotation
    N d. centroid of the underwater volume

3095: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.

    Y a. when the craft clears the water
    N b. when the cable has been attached
    N c. on approach to the platform
    N d. at the embarkation

3148: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 29'-06", AFT 29'-02". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0110

    N a. FWD 29'-07", AFT 29'-08"
    N b. FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-10"
    Y c. FWD 29'-03", AFT 30'-00"
    N d. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-02"

3306: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0120

    N a. FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-05"
    Y b. FWD 26'-05", AFT 28'-07"
    N c. FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-10"
    N d. FWD 26'-00", AFT 29'-00"

3521: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons
    N b. eight anchor buoys
    N c. lower-hull fuel
    Y d. loading hoses

3559: The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a __________.

    Y a. fishing kit
    N b. searchlight
    N c. sea anchor
    N d. radar reflector

3849: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.

    N a. examining the Certificate of Inspection
    Y b. examining the plate on the outside of the raft container
    N c. referring to the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    N d. referring to the shipping articles

3926: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

    Y a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
    N b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air
    N c. remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors
    N d. sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes

3928: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.

    Y a. survivors in the water
    N b. food and water
    N c. land
    N d. bad weather

4146: The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.

    N a. relieves excessive fluid pressure
    Y b. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained
    N c. synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position
    N d. returns the rudder to mid-position when the wheel is released

4190: You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance.
    N b. You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B.
    N c. You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance.
    Y d. You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering the winter zone.

4241: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.

    N a. 15 feet
    Y b. 20 feet
    N c. 25 feet
    N d. 30 feet

4323: Guide tolerances during elevation of the jack-up rig will __________.

    N a. reduce spud can bearing pressure
    Y b. keep the unit level and reduce overloading
    N c. reduce stresses on the hull
    N d. minimize the potential for punch-through

5123: In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally __________.

    N a. structural
    N b. watertight
    Y c. non-structural
    N d. continuous

5245: To maintain a high state of readiness against the possibility of damage and subsequent flooding while aboard the DEEP DRILLER, you should __________.

    N a. post a watch in the pump room
    N b. keep tanks no more than half filled
    Y c. cap sounding tubes except when in use
    N d. keep bilge pumps operating continuously

5285: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1P. You may pump from __________.

    N a. 2P
    N b. C1P
    Y c. 1P
    N d. 10S

5653: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension increases __________.

    N a. free surface moments
    N b. KM
    Y c. GM
    N d. KG

5741: A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an anchor handling vessel is __________.

    Y a. pelican hook
    N b. connecting link
    N c. shackle
    N d. retaining hook

6425: The test for determining the formation fracture pressure after drilling out a seat is called a __________.

    N a. casing test
    Y b. leak off test
    N c. drill stem test
    N d. well test

6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

    N a. conduct a fire drill
    N b. conduct a boat drill
    Y c. log the fore and aft draft marks
    N d. test the emergency generator

6991: The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.

    N a. move him to a cool location
    Y b. maintain an open airway
    N c. apply a cool damp dressing to his neck
    N d. have him drink cool liquids

7313: What is the MOST important thing you should do before transmitting on a marine radio?

    N a. Ask for permission.
    N b. Record the time in your radio log.
    N c. Press the "push to talk" button three times.
    Y d. Monitor the channel to insure that it is clear.

7381: One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is to __________.

    N a. dump deck tanks into lower hulls
    N b. plug ballast tank vents
    N c. head into the waves
    Y d. increase tank free surface

8287: Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the __________.

    Y a. machinery spaces
    N b. cargo compartments
    N c. living quarters
    N d. galley

8342: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

    N a. the accumulation of explosive gases
    Y b. the fire to spread through the ventilation system
    N c. faster cooling of the fire
    N d. fixed foam systems to be ineffective

8837: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,200 foot-kips intends to transfer 100 kips of weight in a transverse direction. How far should the weight be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.5 to 11.0 feet?

    N a. 12 feet
    N b. 48 feet
    N c. 120 feet
    Y d. 144 feet

8885: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft?

    Y a. 19 feet 9 inches
    N b. 20 feet 4 inches
    N c. 20 feet 8 inches
    N d. 21 feet 4 inches

9415: A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are called __________.

    N a. trippers
    N b. stocks
    N c. stabilizers
    Y d. palms