This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
246: On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided?
Y a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 370: What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?
N a. Corrosion from the shifting liquid N b. Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid Y c. Loss of stability from free surface effect N d. Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid 405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________.
Y a. a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception facility N b. a discharge outlet for the ballast system on each side of the weather deck N c. one portable adapter for a shore connection to the ballast line N d. All of the above 433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________.
Y a. take part N b. watch N c. go to their quarters N d. stay out of the way and do what they want 449: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement there are two slack deep tanks of palm oil (SG .86). Each tank is 40 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?
N a. .27 ft Y b. .48 ft N c. .57 ft N d. .74 ft 740: What is NOT a motion of the vessel?
N a. Pitch N b. Roll Y c. Trim N d. Yaw 752: Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?
N a. The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire. Y b. The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction. N c. The powder forms a solid coating over the surface. N d. The dry chemical smothers the fire. 841: Blood flowing from a cut artery appears __________.
N a. dark red with a steady flow N b. bright red with a steady flow Y c. bright red and in spurts N d. dark red and in spurts 848: The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class __________.
N a. A Y b. B N c. C N d. D 880: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.
N a. at the bow N b. in the lower holds Y c. amidships N d. at the ends 1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.
N a. may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life preservers N b. should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency stations N c. may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat drills Y d. should be used when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge 1305: When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.
N a. straight Y b. to port N c. to starboard N d. None of the above 1403: Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?
N a. The tank must be gas freed. N b. The tank must be ballasted. Y c. The tank must be vented to the atmosphere. N d. The bypass valve must also be closed. 1864: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.7. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
N a. 0.95 foot N b. 1.26 feet N c. 2.10 feet Y d. 2.54 feet 1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.
N a. one hour Y b. two hours N c. ten hours N d. four hours 2035: What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?
N a. Dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit Y b. Pressing a "Distress Key" on the equipment N c. Contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in existence N d. Contacting the CES operator using the radiotelephone distress procedure "Mayday"...etc. 2153: On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's __________.
Y a. name and port of registry N b. owner and port of registry N c. port of registry and identification number N d. name and owner 2203: Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?
N a. Roustabout N b. First man aboard N c. Last man aboard Y d. Helmsman 2237: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
N a. displacement N b. free surface N c. draft Y d. KG 2281: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.
N a. that all personnel are seated in the craft Y b. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum N c. which way the wind is blowing N d. the hydraulic fluid level before lifting 2329: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0059
N a. Available GM 3.2 ft Y b. Available GM 3.9 ft N c. Available GM 4.8 ft N d. Available GM 5.3 ft 2366: What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?
Y a. Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens N b. Pressure-vacuum N c. Branch vent line N d. Vent header 2447: The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90 feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a __________.
N a. string Y b. stand N c. joint N d. standpipe 2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products?
N a. American Bureau of Shipping N b. National Cargo Bureau Y c. Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard N d. Vessel owner 2531: What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?
N a. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized N b. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the distress frequency or channel N c. To ensure that a distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages Y d. To ensure that interference on a particular frequency or channel to communications concerning emergency traffic is minimized 2556: Regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with __________.
Y a. power ventilation N b. gooseneck vents and flame screens N c. at least two ducts extending to the weather deck N d. a vent header system 2590: Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by __________.
N a. cofferdams N b. empty cargo spaces Y c. gas tight bulkheads N d. areas equipped with power ventilation 2652: Which vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. 99 GT towing vessel on Inland Waters N b. 199 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage N c. 299 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage Y d. 199 GT towing vessel on an international voyage 2762: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination.
N a. 1.9 feet Y b. 2.1 feet N c. 3.5 feet N d. 4.2 feet 2798: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.9 foot off the centerline.
N a. 1.5 feet Y b. 2.8 feet N c. 3.6 feet N d. 4.3 feet 2802: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 15'-09"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2.0 feet off the centerline.
N a. 9° Y b. 12° N c. 16° N d. 19° 2987: For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.
Y a. increase N b. decrease N c. remain constant N d. stabilize at an angle of loll 3015: An inclined semisubmersible with a very short rolling period about a constant angle of list is likely to have __________.
Y a. an off-center TCG N b. an LCG greater than level vessel LCB N c. a negative GM N d. excessive free surfaces 3109: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0106
Y a. 3.9 feet N b. 4.3 feet N c. 4.7 feet N d. 5.1 feet 3134: Which is a B-II fire extinguisher? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. A 2-1/2 gallon water (stored pressure) extinguisher Y b. A 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher N c. A 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher N d. A 1-1/4 gallon foam extinguisher 3217: Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?
N a. The hydrostatic release N b. A shear pin N c. A rottmer release Y d. A weak link in the painter 3326: The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.
Y a. in contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark N b. from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark N c. in contact with the fill opening to allow proper venting N d. None of the above 3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0126
Y a. 595 tons N b. 870 tons N c. 1200 tons N d. 1350 tons 3710: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?
Y a. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube. N b. A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult. N c. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat. N d. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting. 3819: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.
N a. tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current Y b. group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle N c. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance N d. from a raft by lashing their life jackets together 4109: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
N a. Subchapter B N b. Subchapter D N c. Subchapter F Y d. Subchapter T 4146: The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.
N a. relieves excessive fluid pressure Y b. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained N c. synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position N d. returns the rudder to mid-position when the wheel is released 4513: When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the LCG?
N a. 00.0 feet N b. 111.35 feet Y c. 119.44 feet N d. 120.59 feet 4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.
N a. overboard discharge N b. dump valves Y c. skimmer tank N d. sump valves 4713: When the COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load form #3 (drilling), the hook load is placed in the pipe racks. What would be the new variable load?
N a. 2,381.0 kips N b. 3,381.0 kips Y c. 3,658.8 kips N d. 4,381.0 kips 5462: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0179
N a. 1.30 feet N b. 1.17 foot Y c. 1.01 foot N d. 0.91 foot 5481: A common means of connecting shots of anchor chain in the field is to use a __________.
N a. sprocket Y b. Kenter link N c. swivel N d. end shackle 5855: A mat-type drilling unit tows more slowly than a jack-up unit due to __________.
Y a. the drag of the mat N b. its deeper draft N c. its tubular legs N d. the design of the bow 6245: On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.
Y a. well-conducted drills N b. a dedicated crew N c. good equipment N d. good communication 6583: When weight-testing a davit-launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the test weight must be equivalent to the weight of the raft, its required equipment, and __________.
N a. 90% of the allowed capacity of persons for the raft Y b. 100% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft N c. 110% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft N d. 120% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft 6735: On a MODU, each EPIRB or SART must be tested at least once __________.
N a. each week N b. every two weeks Y c. each month N d. every two months 7081: In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________.
N a. provide the necessary medication Y b. rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries N c. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury N d. prescribe treatment for the victim 7377: A semisubmersible rig under tow should be ballasted down if __________.
Y a. motion begins to be excessive N b. water begins to break over the pontoons N c. period of roll exceeds 12 seconds N d. forward progress is halted by head wind 8387: On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable?
N a. Overspeed trip Y b. Air inlet shut-off valve N c. Water injector N d. Fuel cutoff valve 8431: The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the __________.
N a. International Maritime Organization Y b. U.S. Coast Guard N c. American Bureau of Shipping N d. Environmental Protection Agency 8993: The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.
N a. baseline N b. vertical reference plane Y c. hull N d. horizontal reference plane 9457: The center of buoyancy is located at the __________.
N a. geometric center of the waterplane area N b. intersection of the vertical centerline and line of action of the buoyant force N c. center of gravity of the vessel corrected for free surface effects Y d. geometric center of the displaced volume 9612: What would be a major consequence of the refrigeration system for a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system remaining inoperable?
Y a. The entire charge might eventually be lost due to CO2 venting out through the relief valve. N b. Liquid CO2 would vent out through the safety valve as the temperature increases. N c. Excessive condensation inside the tank would freeze, causing a restriction in the discharge piping. N d. The warmed charge of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire. 9623: You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?
N a. Close the door to the room. N b. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. N c. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Y d. Break out the nearest fire hose. 9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
N a. 10 minutes N b. 15 minutes Y c. 30 minutes N d. 45 minutes