This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
N a. metacentric point Y b. metacenter N c. metacentric radius N d. tipping center 182: Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest operating draft?
Y a. LBP N b. LOA N c. LWL N d. LLL 228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?
Y a. Compound N b. Greenstick N c. Closed N d. Crack 238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.
N a. the bone has been set Y b. the fracture is immobilized N c. radio advice has been obtained N d. the wound has been washed 381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
N a. The distance is 325 miles. Y b. The longitude is 3°25'. N c. The course is 325°. N d. Change course to 325°. 464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.
N a. speech N b. signaling tones N c. a busy signal Y d. All of the above 557: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or channel __________.
N a. 12 Y b. 13 N c. 14 N d. 16 652: How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
N a. By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature N b. By removing the fuel source from the fire Y c. By excluding the oxygen from the fire N d. By increasing the weight of the oil 676: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 STARBOARD Y c. 3 N d. 4 712: Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?
N a. It cools the surface of the liquid. N b. It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire. Y c. It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil. N d. It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied. 908: If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?
N a. Magnesium N b. Paper N c. Wood Y d. Diesel Oil 1170: When operating gravity davits, the __________.
N a. gripes should be released after the boat is moving Y b. davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position N c. boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bitts N d. tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes 1206: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.
N a. knife N b. towing connection N c. lifeline Y d. All of the above 1229: Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass?
N a. A vessel in river service N b. A vessel operating on a short, restricted route on lakes, bays, and sounds Y c. A vessel engaged in ocean or coastwise service N d. The regulations do not require a compass on any vessel 1252: When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed __________.
N a. over the top of the flames N b. off a bulkhead into the fire N c. in front of the fire Y d. at the base of the fire 1405: When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.
Y a. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel N b. not fastened to anything N c. secured to the hydrostatic release N d. fastened to the raft container 1442: If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will __________.
N a. increase the righting moment N b. increase the righting arm N c. increase list or trim Y d. decrease list or trim 1490: You are reading the draft marks as shown. The water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )
N a. 10'-06" N b. 10'-08" Y c. 10'-10" N d. 11'-02" 1578: You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.
N a. under any circumstances Y b. unless authorized by the Captain of the Port N c. unless radio communication is set up between the vessels N d. unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks 1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium?
N a. Leaves a residue Y b. Cost, relative to other agents N c. Breaks down while under prolonged storage N d. Conducts electricity 1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?
N a. LPG is compatible with all cargos. N b. LPG's high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile. N c. Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers. Y d. The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only. 1739: The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must __________.
N a. operate in unison with other alarms Y b. be both audible and visual N c. be the same as the overfill alarm N d. sound when the tank is 90% full 1789: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?
Y a. 30 days N b. 3 months N c. 6 months N d. 1 year 1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
N a. 0.74 foot N b. 1.24 feet Y c. 1.41 feet N d. 1.66 feet 2154: What is the basic concept of GMDSS?
N a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation. N b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted. N c. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. Y d. All of the above 2156: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases?
Y a. 0.7% N b. 4.1% N c. 5.5% N d. 55% 2177: What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?
N a. SART N b. EPIRB Y c. NAVTEX N d. INMARSAT-B 2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?
N a. Buoyant cushion N b. Buoyant vest Y c. Life jacket N d. Ring life buoy 2284: The flammable limits for crude oil are __________.
N a. 1% to 6% mixture in air N b. 20% to 40% mixture in air N c. 0% to 1% mixture in air Y d. unavailable 2309: Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft; KG is 20.5 ft. The angle of list when the weight is lifted will be __________.
N a. 1.4° N b. 2.8° N c. 3.4° Y d. 5.8° 2581: A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.
Y a. structural bulkhead N b. exterior bulkhead N c. centerline bulkhead N d. joiner bulkhead 2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.
N a. reserve ballast Y b. reserve buoyancy N c. lightweight displacement N d. critical motions 2676: A safe fuel system must __________.
N a. prevent engine overheating N b. have proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio Y c. be liquid- and vapor-tight N d. supply sufficient air to the intake manifold 2694: The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?
N a. Card N b. Needle Y c. Lubber's line N d. Gimbals 2755: What repair or modification to a MODU would most likely require consulting the construction portfolio?
N a. Replacing watertight doors in quarters N b. Repair of drill pipe racks on deck Y c. Repair of leg-to-can connection on a jack-up N d. Replacing a service pump foundation 2849: A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
N a. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full N b. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty Y c. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full N d. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty 2972: Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. may not be carried on inspected vessels N b. may be substituted for 10% of the required life jackets N c. shall be stowed in a place inaccessible to passengers Y d. shall be stowed separately from the required life jackets 3058: Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. with the vessel's name in 3" letters N b. conspicuously in 1-1/2" letters with the number of persons allowed N c. with the vessel's name on all paddles Y d. All of the above 3127: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.
Y a. fusible link N b. remote operated valve N c. C02 system pressure switch N d. heat or smoke detector 3304: If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________.
N a. filed in the ship's office N b. posted in a passenger area N c. posted adjacent to the Certificate of Inspection Y d. posted in the pilothouse 3339: What is acceptable flame screening?
N a. A fitted single brass screen of 10 x 10 mesh Y b. A fitted stainless steel screen of 30 x 30 mesh N c. A fitted single stainless steel screen of 15 x 15 mesh N d. Two fitted brass screens of 10 x 15 mesh spaced 1/2 inch apart 3624: What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light?
Y a. AA AA N b. UNK N c. STA N d. CQ 3674: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
N a. At one hour intervals N b. At half hour intervals Y c. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels N d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel 3744: Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?
Y a. Give a stimulant. N b. Elevate his head. N c. Stop severe bleeding. N d. Treat for shock. 3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.
N a. administer oxygen Y b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR N c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk N d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary 3781: What is the weight of barite in P-tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 3.4 feet?
N a. 11.5 long tons N b. 16.6 long tons N c. 54.2 long tons Y d. 78.2 long tons 4040: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require training in all of the following, EXCEPT _____________ .
N a. putting on a fireman's outfit, if the vessel is so equipped N b. donning a self-contained breathing apparatus, if the vessel is so equipped N c. activating the general alarm and reporting inoperative alarm systems and fire-detection systems Y d. refilling and servicing all expended fire extinguishing equipment 4140: In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.
N a. trick wheel Y b. follow-up control N c. six-way valve N d. Rapson slide 4204: You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the tropical zone after steaming four days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 66. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
Y a. 78 inches N b. 82 inches N c. 86 inches N d. 88 inches 5092: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water:
N a. 17'-00" Y b. 16'-09" N c. 16'-06" N d. 16'-04" 5133: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured is __________.
N a. 5 N b. 4 N c. 3 Y d. 2 5487: A measurement device for inspecting anchor chain is the __________.
N a. slide rule Y b. go-no-go gauge N c. derrick tape N d. amp probe 6196: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6305: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must back it up with a piggyback (backing) anchor or __________.
N a. reduce the riser tension Y b. reposition it at a greater range N c. change the winch N d. change the anchor heading 6593: What organization is approved by the Coast Guard for certifying cranes on mobile offshore drilling units?
N a. Minerals Management Service N b. International Maritime Organization Y c. American Bureau of Shipping N d. Lloyd's of London 6903: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding under what condition?
N a. At the owner's discretion Y b. If it creates a hazard to navigation N c. If the grounding lasts over 48 hours N d. Under any condition 8054: A thrust block is designed to __________.
N a. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller Y b. transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel N c. absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow N d. be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration 8317: The minimum concentration of H2S which can cause death if a person is exposed for even an instant is __________.
N a. 200 ppm N b. 400 ppm N c. 600 ppm Y d. 1000 ppm 9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.
N a. 20° N b. 30° N c. 40° Y d. 50° 9612: What would be a major consequence of the refrigeration system for a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system remaining inoperable?
Y a. The entire charge might eventually be lost due to CO2 venting out through the relief valve. N b. Liquid CO2 would vent out through the safety valve as the temperature increases. N c. Excessive condensation inside the tank would freeze, causing a restriction in the discharge piping. N d. The warmed charge of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire.