This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
80: What represents the metacentric height? (D001SA )
N a. M Y b. GM N c. BM N d. GZ 228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?
Y a. Compound N b. Greenstick N c. Closed N d. Crack 297: Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near the wheelhouse?
N a. Stopping time and distance from full speed while maintaining course with minimum rudder Y b. A diagram of advance and transfer for turns of 30°, 60°, 90° and 120° at full speed with maximum rudder and constant power N c. For vessels with a fixed propeller, a table of shaft RPMs for a representative range of speeds N d. Operating instructions for change-over procedures for remote steering gear systems 351: What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?
N a. The GMT is 1325. N b. The latitude is 13°25'. N c. The zone time is 1325. Y d. The longitude is 13°25'. 438: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.
Y a. immerse the feet in warm water N b. warm the feet with a heat lamp N c. warm the feet at room temperature N d. rub the feet 606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.
N a. 4° Y b. 8° N c. 12° N d. 16° 625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________.
N a. is always effective immediately Y b. includes a statement of each condition requiring corrective action N c. must be in writing before it takes effect N d. All of the above 649: The lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.
N a. be at least 3/8 inch diameter and properly secured around the sides and ends of the device N b. be festooned in bights not longer than three feet long N c. have a seine float in each bight unless the line is an inherently buoyant material Y d. All of the above 787: To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should __________.
Y a. refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection N b. examine the cargo tanks and fittings N c. ask the terminal supervisor or his representative N d. check the loading order 872: The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at a temperature of __________.
N a. 70°F N b. 100°F N c. 125°F Y d. 135°F 934: The signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative" is __________.
Y a. vertical motion of the arms N b. code signal "C" sent by light or sound signaling apparatus N c. firing of a red star signal N d. None of the above 1006: An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) __________.
N a. air bottle for breathing N b. orange smoke canister Y c. whistle, light and retroreflective material N d. sea dye marker 1040: General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log are that __________.
N a. logs must be kept in an orderly manner N b. erasures are not allowed N c. it must identify the vessel's name and official number Y d. All of the above 1134: On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks __________.
N a. must not allow any appreciable vapor flow except through their normal openings N b. must be of rigid, permanent construction N c. must lead as directly as possible and be properly fastened and supported Y d. All of the above 1208: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.
N a. decrease in KM is equal to the loss of draft N b. virtual rise of G is directly proportional to the remaining draft N c. lost buoyancy method is used to calculate KM, and KB is reduced Y d. displacement lost acts at the point where the ship is aground 1456: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is at the bottom of number 11. What is the draft? (D032DG )
N a. 11'-06" Y b. 11'-00" N c. 10'-09" N d. 10'-06" 1521: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? (D006SA )
N a. A N b. B Y c. C N d. D 1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)
N a. 2.17 feet N b. 2.32 feet Y c. 2.52 feet N d. 3.01 feet 2491: The platform that supports the derrickman when tripping pipe is called the __________.
N a. Texas deck N b. water table N c. stabbing board Y d. monkey board 2501: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 20'-06", AFT 24'-00". The KG is 29.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
N a. 3.4° N b. 4.2° N c. 4.9° Y d. 6.0° 2583: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?
Y a. The SART's blips on the PPI will become arcs and eventually become concentric circles. N b. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone autoalarm. N c. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius per IMO standards. N d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. 2619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0073
N a. 1171.5 tons N b. 1311.0 tons N c. 1503.0 tons Y d. 1710.5 tons 2673: A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.
N a. longitudinally framed Y b. transversely framed N c. cellular framed N d. web framed 2757: A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the __________.
Y a. areas where special materials are used N b. hazardous areas N c. location of emergency repair equipment N d. type and strength of materials used 2885: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts.
Y a. FWD 26'-04", AFT 30'-00" N b. FWD 26'-06", AFT 29'-10" N c. FWD 26'-08", AFT 29'-08" N d. FWD 26'-10", AFT 29'-06" 3077: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a MODU is to determine the __________.
Y a. lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location N b. position of the center of buoyancy N c. position of the metacenter N d. maximum load line 3154: How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. Two N b. Three N c. Four N d. Five 3335: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.
N a. jackknife N b. towing connection N c. lifeline Y d. All of the above 3475: What is the increase in the longitudinal free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?
N a. 0.50 foot Y b. 0.47 foot N c. 0.27 foot N d. 0.13 foot 3513: The lightweight transverse free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
N a. 680,914 ft-long tons Y b. 000 ft-long tons N c. -5,937 ft-long tons N d. -6,716 ft-long tons 3552: You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?
N a. "Wun point tree" N b. "Unaone point tercetree" Y c. "Unaone decimal terrathree" N d. "One decimal three" 3663: Before deballasting to survival draft in the event of predicted heavy weather, the DEEP DRILLER Operations Manual recommends that the mooring lines be slacked __________.
N a. 10 feet Y b. 20 feet N c. 30 feet N d. 40 feet 3702: You may have to give artificial respiration after an accidental __________.
N a. drowning N b. electrocution N c. poisoning Y d. All of the above 3767: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.
N a. "use the float-free method only" Y b. "lower all boats" N c. "raise all boats" N d. "drill is over, secure all boats" 3852: The light on a personal flotation device on an OSV must be replaced __________.
N a. when the power source is replaced N b. each year after installation N c. every six months Y d. when it is no longer serviceable 3868: The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.
N a. 1 knot Y b. 2 knot N c. 5 knot N d. 10 knot 3918: If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should FIRST __________.
Y a. cut the line to the sea anchor N b. paddle away from the fire N c. splash water over the liferaft to cool it N d. get out of the raft and swim to safety 4076: In the illustration shown, the equipment bags are indicated by item number __________. (D014SA )
N a. 12 N b. 15 N c. 17 Y d. 19 4081: Visual inspections of survival craft on offshore drilling units, to ensure operational readiness, must be conducted at least once a __________.
Y a. week N b. month N c. quarter N d. year 4087: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KMT = 375.38 feet)
N a. 375.38 feet N b. 345.23 feet N c. 319.66 feet Y d. 306.79 feet 4371: Where the seabed consists of sand or silt, the most severe potential problem for an independent-leg jack-up can result from __________.
Y a. scour N b. penetration N c. marine growth N d. insufficient preload 4705: What is the weight of 100 barrels of 17 pound per gallon drilling mud?
N a. 24.9 kips N b. 41.5 kips Y c. 71.4 kips N d. 93.0 kips 4783: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds remain less than 70 knots?
N a. 0.00 feet Y b. 14.35 feet N c. 14.82 feet N d. 65.00 feet 5441: The COASTAL DRILLER has suffered a casualty which requires an orderly evacuation of the unit using the lifeboats and liferafts. Among the items to accomplish in preparing to evacuate the unit is __________.
Y a. securing the unit as in preparation for a severe storm N b. distributing self-contained breathing devices N c. taking a soil sample of the bottom N d. All of the above 5695: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4, (Drilling). In preparing for approaching heavy weather, the four leeward mooring lines are slacked. These actions reduce the __________.
Y a. natural pitch period N b. metacentric height N c. height of the righting arm N d. righting moment 5711: Installing tandem anchors on the same mooring line is referred to as __________.
N a. doubling N b. pretensioning Y c. piggybacking N d. paralleling 5715: What can cause a lack of oxygen in a chain locker?
N a. Absorption N b. Osmosis N c. Evaporation Y d. Oxidation 5945: Each part of the fire-main system located on an exposed deck must be __________.
Y a. protected against freezing N b. locked to prevent theft N c. numbered sequentially N d. pressurized at all times 6397: A well kick while drilling from a MODU will cause __________.
Y a. increased fluid level in the mud pits N b. decreased fluid level in the mud pits N c. increased cuttings on the shale shaker N d. decreased cuttings on the shale shaker 8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.
Y a. when there is no load on the cable N b. when there is a load on the cable N c. only when the doors are closed N d. when the engine is started 8293: Failure of both port-side ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To dewater from the port forward tanks, you should use the __________.
N a. port saltwater service pump N b. port drill water pump N c. port bilge pumps Y d. starboard ballast pump and crossover system 8315: The airborne concentrations of substances (such as H2S) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.
N a. exposure limits N b. concentration limits Y c. threshold limit values N d. substance limit values 8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters?
N a. Air, water, electric Y b. Air, hydraulic, electric N c. Metered, hydraulic, automatic N d. Air, emergency, hydraulic 8605: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat motors shall be operated in the ahead and astern position at least once each __________.
N a. day Y b. week N c. month N d. year 8715: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. To deballast from tank C2SA using starboard ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open the manual valve and which motor driven valves?
Y a. 15, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48 N b. 16, 27, 32, 35, 36, 48 N c. 15, 33, 43, 48 N d. 14, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48 8887: In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.
N a. zero inclination to full inclination on one side N b. full inclination on one side to full inclination on the other side Y c. full inclination on one side to the next full inclination on the same side N d. zero inclination to the next zero inclination 9247: What type of test determines the pressure at which the formation immediately below the last set casing will take fluid?
N a. Production N b. Drill stem Y c. Leak-off N d. Conductor 9282: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.
N a. wind off either beam N b. stern into the wind and increase speed Y c. bow into the wind and decrease speed N d. stern into the wind and decrease speed 9451: Initial stability is indicated by __________.
Y a. GM N b. KM N c. Deck load N d. Maximum allowed KG 9672: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.
N a. not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire quickly. Y b. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck N c. station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spread N d. All of the above