USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.


64: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0001


230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.


414: A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the __________.

    N a. distress position
    Y b. spoken words "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday"
    N c. ship's name
    N d. ship's call letters

615: The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________.

    N a. the name of each person designated as a person in charge
    N b. the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection
    Y c. cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations
    N d. hose information not marked on the hose

647: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more than __________.

    Y a. 25 watts
    N b. 50 watts
    N c. 75 watts
    N d. 100 watts

671: When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, the signal __________.

    N a. must be followed by "T", "M" or "C" to indicate if it is true, magnetic or compass
    N b. should be preceded by the letters CSE
    N c. should include the compass deviation if a compass course is signaled
    Y d. always indicates a true course unless indicated otherwise in the message

841: Blood flowing from a cut artery appears __________.

    N a. dark red with a steady flow
    N b. bright red with a steady flow
    Y c. bright red and in spurts
    N d. dark red and in spurts

937: On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?

    N a. Carbon dioxide
    Y b. Water (stored pressure)
    N c. Dry chemical
    N d. Foam

1054: By day, the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land" is a __________.

    N a. vertical motion of a red flag
    Y b. vertical motion of a white flag or the arms
    N c. white smoke signal
    N d. white star rocket

1235: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?

    N a. Revive the person with smelling salts.
    N b. Loosen the clothing.
    N c. Lay the person horizontally.
    Y d. Give pain reliever.

1357: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9 feet and drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.9 feet.

    Y a. Tanks: DB4, DT6
    N b. Tanks: DB3, DB5, DT8
    N c. Tanks: DB6, DT7
    N d. Tanks: DB2, DT1, DT6

1566: CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.

    N a. cooling
    Y b. smothering
    N c. chemical action
    N d. All of the above

1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?

    N a. Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect
    N b. Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil
    Y c. Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment
    N d. Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction

1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.

    Y a. a weather deck
    N b. the main deck
    N c. the control house
    N d. the escape capsules

1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.

    N a. ventilation avoids CO2 build up
    N b. ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery
    Y c. ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
    N d. less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge

1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.

    N a. one hour
    Y b. two hours
    N c. ten hours
    N d. four hours

2018: When can routine communications be resumed on a frequency or channel on which radio silence has been imposed?

    N a. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use
    N b. After determining that geographic distance from the distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications
    Y c. After the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded
    N d. Routine communications can resume if, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency or channel will not interfere with emergency communications.

2098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0049

    Y a. 395 tons
    N b. 530 tons
    N c. 750 tons
    N d. 990 tons

2343: A marker pole, with a horseshoe buoy and a sea anchor attached, should be used to __________.

    N a. mark the position of a lost mooring
    N b. determine your vessel's sideslip underway
    N c. determine your speed through the water
    Y d. indicate location of a man overboard

2360: According to regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded at a temperature below __________.

    N a. 90°F
    Y b. 70°F
    N c. 51°F
    N d. its flash point

2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.

    N a. daily testing
    Y b. either A or C
    N c. operational use of the equipment
    N d. testing at least every 48 hours

2406: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 22'-10", AFT 23'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 875 tons 6 feet aft of amidships
    N b. 950 tons 8 feet forward of the tipping center
    Y c. 1323 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center
    N d. 1452 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center

2449: You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________.

    N a. 2 ppm
    Y b. 10 - 25 ppm
    N c. 40 ppm
    N d. 105 ppm

2483: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

    Y a. cubic meters
    N b. both cubic meters and cubic feet
    N c. both kilos and pounds
    N d. barrels of 55 gallon capacity

2500: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire?

    N a. Alcohol foam
    N b. Carbon dioxide
    N c. Dry chemical
    Y d. Water fog

2702: Your vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    Y a. 0.8 foot
    N b. 1.2 feet
    N c. 1.8 feet
    N d. 2.3 feet

3105: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.

    N a. GM
    Y b. GMT
    N c. KGT
    N d. KMT

3450: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?

    Y a. End-for-ended
    N b. Renewed
    N c. Inspected
    N d. Weight tested

3523: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    Y a. derrick
    N b. lower hull fuel
    N c. eight anchor buoys
    N d. normal food supplies for 79 persons

3529: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0138

    N a. 2.15 feet
    Y b. 2.05 feet
    N c. 1.95 feet
    N d. 1.75 feet

3812: If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________.

    Y a. remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
    N b. head for the closest land
    N c. head for the closest sea-lanes
    N d. get a majority opinion

3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    Y a. convection
    N b. conduction
    N c. radiation
    N d. direct contact

3871: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the port-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2P is valve __________.

    N a. 3
    Y b. 5
    N c. 6
    N d. 7

3901: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.

    N a. 48
    Y b. 47
    N c. 37
    N d. 23

3923: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the #1 bilge pump is valve __________.

    N a. 28
    N b. 36
    Y c. 41
    N d. 42

3965: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse and longitudinal free surface moments for entry into the daily load form are obtained __________.

    Y a. from tank tables
    N b. by multiplying displacement by the free surface correction
    N c. by dividing by displacement
    N d. by dividing by the free surface correction

4013: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    N a. 53.78 feet
    N b. 54.82 feet
    Y c. 55.47 feet
    N d. 56.01 feet

4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?

    N a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area.
    N b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port.
    N c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing.
    Y d. All of the above

4091: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of salt water ballast 1anks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KML = 348.58)

    N a. 261.11 feet
    Y b. 279.37 feet
    N c. 283.37 feet
    N d. 301.12 feet

4101: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the transverse metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    N a. 63.14 feet
    N b. 64.05 feet
    Y c. 64.30 feet
    N d. 66.09 feet

4216: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of nine days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.008, and the average TPI is 53. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    N a. 72.5 inches
    N b. 75.0 inches
    N c. 77.0 inches
    Y d. 80.0 inches

4321: Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________.

    Y a. preload
    N b. liquid variable load
    N c. fixed load
    N d. basic load

4495: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet. It discharges 216.43 kips of weight. What is the new draft?

    N a. 10.7 feet
    N b. 10.3 feet
    N c. 10 feet 8 inches
    Y d. 10 feet 4 inches

5507: The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for __________.

    N a. anchor chain
    N b. wire rope
    Y c. connecting links
    N d. pendant wires

5793: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the offset is 7%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.

    N a. 6.5%
    N b. 5.0%
    Y c. 4.0%
    N d. 2.5%

6115: If a mobile offshore drilling rig has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried?

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

6306: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

    Y a. The sea anchor deploys.
    N b. The floor inflates.
    N c. If upside down, the craft rights itself.
    N d. The painter detaches from the raft.

6643: How many adult life jackets are required on board a MODU?

    N a. Enough for 100 percent of the persons allowed on board
    N b. One for each work station and industrial work site
    N c. Enough for 150 percent of the persons allowed on board
    Y d. Both A & B above

6645: Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio apparatus that meets the requirements of the __________.

    N a. American Bureau of Shipping
    N b. Minerals Management Service
    N c. U.S. Coast Guard
    Y d. Federal Communications Commission

6921: The notice of casualty to a MODU must include __________.

    N a. a request for assistance
    Y b. the location of the unit at the time of the casualty
    N c. an estimate of the cost to repair damages
    N d. the amount of fuel remaining

8485: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.43 feet. What is the trim angle?

    Y a. 2° by the head
    N b. 2° by the stern
    N c. 4° by the head
    N d. 4° by the stern

8661: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    N a. 9S
    N b. 8S
    Y c. 10S
    N d. 10P

8661: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    N a. 9S
    N b. 8S
    Y c. 10S
    N d. 10P

8685: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board. What is the new draft?

    N a. 56 feet
    N b. 58 feet
    Y c. 60 feet
    N d. 62 feet

8695: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new displacement?

    N a. 16,263 long tons
    Y b. 17,642 long tons
    N c. 17,842 long tons
    N d. 18,118 long tons

8734: All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________.

    Y a. boarding and operating procedures
    N b. maintenance schedule
    N c. navigational systems
    N d. fuel consumption rates

8977: The important stability parameter, KG, is defined as the __________.

    N a. metacentric height
    N b. height of the metacenter above the keel
    N c. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel
    Y d. height of the center of gravity above the keel

9291: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?

    N a. 9.00 feet port
    Y b. 0.50 foot starboard
    N c. 0.50 foot port
    N d. 1.00 foot port

9333: After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to __________.

    N a. use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area
    Y b. stand by with water or other agents
    N c. thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2
    N d. jettison all burning materials