This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
132: The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.
N a. causes colloid suspension in the cooling water N b. reduces the capability of the lubrication system N c. can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system Y d. leads to the scuffing of cylinder walls 182: Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest operating draft?
Y a. LBP N b. LOA N c. LWL N d. LLL 212: In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) __________.
N a. recreational yacht N b. uninspected towing vessel N c. uninspected passenger vessel under 100 GT Y d. U.S. government vessel in non-commercial service 250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
N a. KG will increase Y b. Metacentric height will increase N c. KB will increase N d. Reserve buoyancy will decrease 267: Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
N a. Class A N b. Class B N c. Class C Y d. Category 1 348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.
N a. Minor burn N b. Superficial burn N c. Extremity burn Y d. First-degree burn 363: You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________.
N a. take no action, broaching is recommended in a heavy sea Y b. put out the sea anchor N c. put out the sea painter N d. fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of water to make it ride better 459: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 551: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 20 ft. wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with saltwater below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?
N a. .29 feet Y b. .33 feet N c. .38 feet N d. .42 feet 640: The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its __________.
N a. free surface N b. marginal stability Y c. reserve buoyancy N d. freeboard 654: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
N a. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz. N b. Channel 16 (156.8 MHz) may be used for distress messages. N c. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency available. Y d. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration. 991: Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________.
N a. able to absorb heat N b. water based Y c. nonconducting N d. nontoxic 1199: To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels they should be located __________.
N a. in trays constructed of material that is resistant to the electrolyte N b. so as to prevent movement when the vessel pitches and rolls N c. in a well ventilated area Y d. All of the above 1226: For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels?
N a. Heating N b. Lighting N c. Cooking Y d. None of the above 1421: The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall __________.
N a. be painted bright red N b. be secured to a permanent part of the lifeboat structure N c. have the area surrounding the lever painted white Y d. All of the above 1453: The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?
Y a. Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is difficult to extinguish. N b. In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height. N c. They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or range fires. N d. They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the ignition point. 1454: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D005SA )
N a. A N b. C Y c. E N d. I 1567: Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels?
N a. Three Y b. Four N c. Twelve N d. Sixteen 1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?
N a. Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect N b. Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil Y c. Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment N d. Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction 1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________.
N a. use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to get the strain properly aligned N b. avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth Y c. be sure to orient the weave of the patch material, on large patches, in the same orientation as the sail cloth being repaired N d. All of the above 1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?
N a. LPG is compatible with all cargos. N b. LPG's high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile. N c. Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers. Y d. The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only. 1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
N a. 0.74 foot N b. 1.24 feet Y c. 1.41 feet N d. 1.66 feet 1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
N a. Class A EPIRBs N b. Class B EPIRBs Y c. L-Band EPIRBs N d. Category I EPIRBs 2020: Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.
Y a. off-center N b. on the centerline N c. completely flooded N d. open to the sea above and below the waterline 2319: What is NOT generally a characteristic of inhaling light naphtha?
N a. Dizziness N b. Headache Y c. Vomiting N d. Coughing 2322: What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade D or E cargo ONLY?
Y a. The cargo piping system shall be fixed. N b. Flanged joints shall be used for pipe sizes exceeding 2 inches in diameter. N c. Piping through bunker spaces may be run through a pipe tunnel. N d. Connections at bulkheads must be made so that the plating does not form part of a flanged joint. 2598: A vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.8 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 60° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. -1.6 feet N b. -0.1 foot N c. 1.2 feet Y d. 1.9 feet 2626: Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?
N a. Navigational warnings N b. Meteorological warnings N c. Search and Rescue information Y d. All of the above 3031: The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when __________.
N a. GM increases N b. the setback is placed in the pipe racks N c. free surfaces are reduced Y d. ice accumulates above deck 3105: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.
N a. GM Y b. GMT N c. KGT N d. KMT 3125: The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.
N a. underwater volume N b. above water volume N c. amidships section Y d. waterplane area 3211: What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?
Y a. Ballast bags N b. A keel N c. Strikes N d. Sea anchor 3322: If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 11 adult Y b. 10 adult and 1 child N c. 10 adult and 5 child N d. 10 adult 3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0126
Y a. 595 tons N b. 870 tons N c. 1200 tons N d. 1350 tons 3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
N a. density of the liquid N b. placement of the tank above the keel Y c. displacement volume of the vessel N d. size of the surface area in the tank 3565: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are less than 70 knots?
N a. 942,120 foot-tons N b. 946,271 foot-tons N c. 974,441 foot-tons Y d. 1,059,885 foot-tons 3631: During an ice storm on board the DEEP DRILLER, the rig is uniformly covered with 414 tons of ice. At the beginning of the storm the rig was at 45 foot draft. After the storm the rig was at a 48 foot draft. Assume a KG of 127 feet for the new ice and an original KG of 58 feet. What is the new KG of the DEEP DRILLER?
Y a. 59.74 feet N b. 60.34 feet N c. 61.19 feet N d. 61.27 feet 3671: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.
N a. 2P N b. 9P N c. C2BS Y d. C2BP 3709: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.
N a. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water N b. drain water from the lungs before ventilating Y c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible N d. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting 3782: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure should be used during a prolonged period in a liferaft?
N a. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration. N b. Get plenty of rest. N c. Keep the entrance curtains open. Y d. All of the above 3831: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.
N a. 24 Port N b. 33 Port Y c. 34 Port N d. 44 Port 4024: In the towing vessel fire protection regulations, all of the following are fire detection requirements, EXCEPT that _____________ .
N a. the control panel must have labels for all switches and indicator lights N b. the detection system must be powered from two sources, with the switchover being either manual or automatic N c. there must be a circuit-fault detector test-switch in the control panel Y d. none of the above 4044: Convection spreads a fire by __________.
Y a. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems N b. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space N c. burning liquids flowing into another space N d. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal 4135: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?
N a. 561.87 long tons Y b. 461.87 long tons N c. 281.34 long tons N d. 192.59 long tons 4137: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?
Y a. 435.59 long tons N b. 321.59 long tons N c. 281.59 long tons N d. 192.59 long tons 4168: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.
N a. green Y b. white N c. yellow N d. red 4205: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.
Y a. 0.5 second N b. 5.0 seconds N c. 10.0 seconds N d. 13.5 seconds 4341: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated to an air gap of 25 feet in 250 feet of water. The current is 2 knots and the waves are 30 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 6,120 kips. What is the maximum wind for drilling operations?
N a. 100 knots N b. 70 knots N c. 60 knots Y d. 40 knots 4463: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than __________.
N a. 11,777 kips N b. 13,158 kips Y c. 14,158 kips N d. 17,280 kips 4763: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred between tanks 6 and 7 to level the vessel in list?
N a. 47.2 kips tank #7 to tank #6 N b. 23.6 kips tank #7 to tank #6 Y c. 23.6 kips tank #6 to tank #7 N d. 47.2 kips tank #6 to tank #7 5806: Damage stability is the stability __________.
N a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots N b. before collision Y c. after flooding N d. at the maximum load 5893: The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a tug navigating independently because the __________.
Y a. speed of the tow is less N b. tow line catches the current N c. current causes yawing N d. current will offset the rig 6633: For a MODU not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected rocket-type line throwing appliance is a __________.
N a. spring loaded line thrower N b. hand thrown buoyant line Y c. shoulder-type line throwing gun N d. heaving line 6641: On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?
N a. One ring life buoy Y b. One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU N c. Three ring life buoys N d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU 6907: On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for __________.
Y a. any amount of time N b. more than 24 hours N c. more than 36 hours N d. more than 72 hours 7631: At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.
N a. maximum N b. negative N c. positive Y d. zero 8897: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.
N a. Maritime Advisory Council Y b. International Maritime Organization N c. International Association of Shipping N d. Association of Seafaring Nations 9153: The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.
N a. availability of tools N b. shape of the hull Y c. pressure exerted by the water N d. threat of progressive flooding 9253: At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well head, __________.
N a. the total weight in air of the casing string is removed from the MODU Y b. the hook load (weight of the casing string) is removed from the MODU N c. the weight of the casing inside the riser is removed from the MODU N d. the weight of the casing string added to the weight of the fill-up mud is removed from the MODU 9553: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.
Y a. stable equilibrium N b. neutral equilibrium N c. unstable equilibrium N d. negative equilibrium