This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
Y a. One N b. Two N c. Three N d. Four 238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.
N a. the bone has been set Y b. the fracture is immobilized N c. radio advice has been obtained N d. the wound has been washed 341: The Master or other vessel representative must contact the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of a(n) __________.
Y a. grounding N b. injury which requires first aid N c. accident which requires $(SA)2500 of repairs N d. All of the above are correct. 410: The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon __________.
N a. the amount of liquid in the compartment Y b. the dimensions of the liquid surface and the vessel's displacement N c. only the length of the compartment N d. the vertical position of the liquid in the vessel 636: What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?
Y a. Each lifeboat must have a launching appliance. N b. Launching appliances must be of the gravity type. N c. There may not be more than two launching appliances on the same deck. N d. All of the above 674: A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.
N a. 400 kilohertz Y b. 2182 kilohertz N c. 2728 kilohertz N d. 8221 kilohertz 725: You notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel. You should FIRST __________.
Y a. stop fueling N b. notify the senior deck officer N c. notify the terminal superintendent N d. determine whether your vessel is the source 726: On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with __________.
N a. 2 pounds of condensed milk N b. a signaling whistle Y c. 3 liters of water N d. a life preserver 770: A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.
N a. has no more than two compartments N b. has two compartments in addition to the engine room N c. will sink if any two compartments are flooded Y d. will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded 1099: On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines __________.
Y a. at the tank and the engine end of the fuel line N b. outside the engineroom on the fill and vent lines N c. only at the tank end of the fuel line N d. only at the engine end of the fuel line 1177: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0030
N a. 1.20 feet N b. 1.64 feet Y c. 2.26 feet N d. 3.00 feet 1239: With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be __________.
N a. changing in relation to the speed of the craft N b. less than outside air pressure Y c. greater than outside air pressure N d. equal to outside air pressure 1341: Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to __________.
Y a. induce vomiting N b. absorb the poison from the blood N c. neutralize the poison in the blood N d. increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison 1378: The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is __________.
Y a. water fog or spray N b. chemical foam N c. mechanical foam N d. carbon dioxide 1499: A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.
N a. 5.4° Y b. 5.72° N c. 6.12° N d. 6.4° 1535: Limit switches __________.
N a. control the descent rate of a lifeboat N b. control the ascent rate of a lifeboat Y c. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position N d. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers 1581: When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?
N a. Rise to the correct reading and then, slowly fall to zero as the oxygen in the sample is consumed Y b. Move back and forth and finally stabilize at the correct reading after about 10 seconds N c. Rise to the correct reading immediately and then rise slowly to a false reading as the operating temperature increases N d. Slowly rise to the correct reading and then remain stationary 1685: A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is moored. For its safety you should put __________.
N a. more slack in the mooring lines N b. a strain on the mooring lines Y c. chafing gear on the mooring lines N d. grease on the mooring lines 1703: With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE?
Y a. If the thrust on a sail becomes excessive when close-hauled, it is likely to capsize the vessel rather than drive it. N b. When a sail is trimmed too tight, turbulence will break out on the windward side of the sail and cause a telltale there to flutter. N c. A properly trimmed sail should have laminar flow on the windward side and turbulent flow on the leeward side. N d. Adjusting the angle of attack on a mainsail is accomplished by adjusting the outhaul or the vang, if fitted. 1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.
N a. 24 hours prior to departure Y b. within a few hours before or after departure N c. 24 hours after departure N d. after the first position report 1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
N a. Class A EPIRBs N b. Class B EPIRBs Y c. L-Band EPIRBs N d. Category I EPIRBs 2031: Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn?
N a. The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point. N b. The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity. N c. The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range." Y d. All of the above are necessary for a combustible liquid to burn. 2033: How is "radio silence" imposed?
Y a. By the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel N b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel N c. By the Public Correspondence Station (PCS), controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel N d. By the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel. 2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of __________.
N a. 7 psia and a flash point of 80°F Y b. more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72°F N c. 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95°F N d. above 14 psia 2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?
N a. Each cargo tank must have a vent. N b. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve. Y c. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter. N d. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck. 2413: Signaling by flag hoist is completed by the vessel hoisting the __________.
N a. signal AR N b. code flag N N c. code flag R Y d. answering pennant 2445: What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?
N a. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. N b. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position or its situation. Y c. It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. N d. It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position and situation. 2735: A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and __________.
N a. mooring tension N b. riser tension N c. lifesaving equipment Y d. structural strength 2942: Vessels in ocean service shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. life floats for 50% of all persons on board N b. buoyant apparatus for all persons on board Y c. sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for all persons on board N d. life jackets for 50% of all persons on board 2952: Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil?
N a. The loading dock Y b. The midpoint of the barge N c. Within 25 feet of the pump engine N d. Above the forward rake end 3160: Fixed ballast, if used, may be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. discharged or moved at any time Y b. moved temporarily for examination or repair of the vessel, when done under the supervision of an inspector N c. moved under the supervision of the owner, Master or shipyard N d. moved under any condition except extreme emergency 3375: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet discharges 1,792.44 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?
N a. 40 feet Y b. 45 feet N c. 50 feet N d. 55 feet 3381: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?
Y a. 57.5 feet N b. 59.5 feet N c. 60.5 feet N d. 62.5 feet 3489: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.
N a. set the water lights on immersion N b. release the dye-marker from the liferaft Y c. free the liferaft from a sinking vessel N d. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder 3539: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.
N a. 1010 tons each N b. 1025 tons each N c. 1050 tons each Y d. 1070 tons each 3588: For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched with their assigned crew __________.
N a. once a week Y b. once a month N c. once a year N d. twice a year 3655: You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by __________.
N a. displaying a large red flag N b. displaying three black balls in a vertical line N c. sounding five or more short and rapid blasts on the whistle Y d. continuously sounding the fog whistle 3657: For planning purposes, the time required to place the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft from the drilling mode to counter heavy weather is __________.
N a. 2 hours N b. 4 hours Y c. 6 hours N d. 8 hours 3661: Under ideal conditions, the DEEP DRILLER can pick up and place pipe in the rack at a rate of about __________.
N a. 600 feet per hour N b. 800 feet per hour Y c. 1,000 feet per hour N d. 1,200 feet per hour 3730: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.
N a. slow and strong pulse N b. flushed and dry skin N c. slow and deep breathing Y d. pale and clammy skin 3791: What is the VCG of the additional load if P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled ?
N a. 113.90 feet N b. 117.01 feet N c. 121.03 feet Y d. 123.06 feet 3810: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival craft, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. plot course for the nearest land N c. take a vote on the direction in which to go Y d. shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor 3956: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
N a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down. N b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down. Y c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container. N d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump. 4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?
N a. "P" N b. "C" Y c. "H" N d. "Z" 4221: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the centerline is __________.
N a. 1000 kips N b. 875 kips Y c. 854 kips N d. 755 kips 4265: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is __________.
N a. 545 kips N b. 450 kips N c. 245 kips Y d. 224 kips 4402: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6584 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0161
N a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet N b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet N c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet Y d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet 4814: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.
N a. 19'-00" N b. 18'-07" N c. 18'-04" Y d. 18'-01" 5203: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapid increasing inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
N a. consumption of on board liquids N b. miscalculation of loads N c. external environmental forces Y d. flooding due to hull damage 5445: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and forward. Strong wind and high waves are from the starboard quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2 Y b. failure of mooring lines 5 or 6 N c. leak in ballast tank #2P N d. ballast tanks are equalizing into tank 1P 5479: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine the __________.
Y a. location of the center of gravity of the light ship N b. position of the center of buoyancy N c. position of the metacenter N d. maximum load line 5695: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4, (Drilling). In preparing for approaching heavy weather, the four leeward mooring lines are slacked. These actions reduce the __________.
Y a. natural pitch period N b. metacentric height N c. height of the righting arm N d. righting moment 5817: The two main types of load cells used in mooring tension gauges are __________.
Y a. distortion and compression N b. hydraulic and mechanical N c. magnetic and applied torque N d. frictionless and hydraulic 6233: When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.
Y a. maximum possible area N b. minimum possible area N c. nearest watertight door N d. nearest longitudinal girder 6487: For most MODU engines, the fuel is __________.
N a. natural gas Y b. diesel oil N c. propane N d. bunker fuel 6551: When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.
N a. distance of the barite surface above the tank bottom N b. percentage of barite in the tank Y c. distance of the barite surface below the tank cover N d. total weight of barite in UPC (ullages per centimeter) 6673: Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with __________.
Y a. the letter "E" N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit N c. a no-smoking symbol N d. the word "DANGER" 6703: The person-in-charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must be designated by the __________.
N a. Coast Guard N b. Minerals Management Service N c. operator or his agent Y d. owner or his agent 8355: What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?
Y a. Volatility N b. Viscosity N c. Flash point N d. Specific heat 9414: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.
Y a. the fire to spread through the ventilation system N b. fixed foam systems to be ineffective N c. faster cooling of the fire N d. the accumulation of explosive gases