This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
277: The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
N a. weekly Y b. monthly N c. every 2 months N d. every 3 months 293: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?
Y a. They should be replaced. N b. They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. N c. They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. N d. They can be used for children. 381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
N a. The distance is 325 miles. Y b. The longitude is 3°25'. N c. The course is 325°. N d. Change course to 325°. 465: A cargo hose is marked with the __________.
Y a. maximum working pressure N b. bursting pressure N c. safety relief valve setting N d. maximum temperature 481: How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. DUKE N b. DA VID N c. DOG Y d. DELL TAH 510: A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________.
N a. within one week N b. within 24 hours N c. on reporting day if it occurs within normal work hours Y d. before sailing 662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.
N a. cooling N b. chemical action Y c. smothering N d. inerting the air 717: If your radiotelephone fails while underway, __________.
N a. you must visually signal oncoming vessels N b. you must immediately tie up in the nearest port until the radiotelephone is repaired N c. you must anchor until the radiotelephone is repaired Y d. the loss of the radiotelephone must be considered in navigating the vessel 853: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.
N a. "use the float-free method only" Y b. "lower all boats" N c. "raise all boats" N d. "drill is over, secure all boats" 960: Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.
N a. a decrease in reserve buoyancy N b. a decrease in the maximum draft N c. the vessel to flop to port and starboard Y d. None of the above 1156: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?
N a. It shall be fired at least once in every three months. Y b. A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months. N c. Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually. N d. No drills are required. 1406: The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the____________________.
N a. decrease in capabilities of radar N b. decrease in displacement N c. adverse effect on trim Y d. loss of stability 1435: After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning?
N a. Scrubber Y b. Demister N c. Deck water seal N d. Final filter 1690: The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?
Y a. International orange N b. Yellow N c. White N d. Red 1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?
N a. Polyester sailcloth, such as Dacron, is resistant to rot due to moisture but susceptible to UV degradation and should be kept covered as much as possible. N b. Canvas sailcloth is susceptible to rot due to moisture and should never be covered when wet. N c. Kevlar sail cloth is susceptible to weakening due to repeated folding and therefore should be draped loosely over the boom when stowed. Y d. All of the above are true. 1850: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Y a. 031247Z N b. 030947P N c. 124733 MAR N d. 309473 1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.
N a. ventilation avoids CO2 build up N b. ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery Y c. ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation N d. less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge 1961: Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?
N a. The Operator can make fine internal adjustments to the transmitter as long as the output power does not change by more than one percent. Y b. The Operator is responsible for ensuring that INMARSAT antennas are free of built-up soot and clear of obstacles. N c. All levels of maintenance must be performed by a licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. N d. The Operator may install an EPROM in order to ensure that the equipment continues to operate within legal constraints. 1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Acetonitrile N b. Molten sulfur Y c. Dodecanol N d. Soybean oil 2320: You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near?
N a. Quickly change to a starboard tack as you reach the object. N b. Shift the rudder from port to starboard several times as you reach the object. N c. Bring the wind so that it comes over the stern and ease all the sheets. Y d. Bring the wind directly over the bow and allow the sails to luff. 2556: Regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with __________.
Y a. power ventilation N b. gooseneck vents and flame screens N c. at least two ducts extending to the weather deck N d. a vent header system 2793: The mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.
Y a. midway between the forward and aft draft marks N b. at the center of flotation N c. at the load line N d. at the center of buoyancy 2868: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-06", AFT 17'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0085
N a. 0.52 foot N b. 0.70 foot Y c. 0.84 foot N d. 1.10 feet 2917: For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.
Y a. deck edge immersion N b. the load line N c. downflooding N d. loll 3037: An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.
N a. air bottle for breathing N b. whistle and hand held flare Y c. whistle, strobe light and reflective tape N d. whistle, hand held flare and sea dye marker 3062: The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. daily N b. weekly N c. every two weeks Y d. monthly 3115: For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes __________.
N a. list to stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. list to decrease N c. trim to decrease N d. list to increase 3135: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
Y a. 1P N b. 2P N c. 1S N d. 3P 3155: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.
N a. C1S N b. 9S Y c. 9P N d. 2S 3223: After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________.
N a. buoyant cushion for each person on board Y b. inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack N c. inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached N d. approved rescue boat 3231: A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft __________.
N a. at the bow N b. at the stern N c. in the middle Y d. all around 3244: A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge?
N a. Pumproom Y b. Generator room N c. A space adjacent to a cargo tank N d. A space two meters from a cargo valve 3412: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch.
N a. FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4" Y b. FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3" N c. FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3" N d. FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4" 3427: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim?
N a. 8 feet by the stern Y b. 4 feet by the stern N c. 2 feet by the stern N d. 4 feet by the head 3689: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.
Y a. without losing the rhythm of respiration N b. only with the help of two other people N c. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes N d. at ten-minute intervals 3879: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.
Y a. 1 short blast on the ship's whistle N b. 3 short blasts on the ship's whistle N c. 3 long blasts on the ship's whistle N d. 1 long blast on the ship's whistle 3964: Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.
N a. stored safely in a cool dark non-ventilated area until work is completed Y b. resealed and returned to a well ventilated area after each use N c. covered at all times to protect from ignition sources N d. stored in a suitable gear locker 4004: To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must __________.
N a. hold a valid officer's license for inspected vessels Y b. hold a tankerman-PIC endorsement N c. be 30 years old N d. have a letter from the company stating his qualification 4194: You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You may load to the tropical mark plus 1 inch brackish water allowance. Y b. You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone. N c. Your draft must not exceed the winter mark plus the fresh water allowance upon arrival off the discharge port. N d. You may only load to the winter mark plus a brackish water allowance of 4 inches. 4757: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal free surface moments?
N a. 1492 ft-kips increase N b. 1034 ft-kips increase Y c. 674 ft-kips increase N d. 404 ft-kips increase 5283: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use __________.
Y a. starboard drill water pump N b. starboard saltwater service pump N c. starboard ballast pumps N d. port ballast pumps and crossover system 5287: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. You may pump from __________.
N a. 2S N b. C1S Y c. 1S N d. 10P 5305: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 50.6 feet and a KGL of 51.4 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
Y a. 13.6 feet N b. 14.4 feet N c. 40.0 feet N d. 65.0 feet 5427: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new LCG?
N a. 115.79 feet AFO Y b. 119.18 feet AFO N c. 119.44 feet AFO N d. 126.68 feet AFO 5625: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the leeward lines should be paid out, and the windward lines adjusted so that __________.
N a. the unit remains as close to the hole as possible Y b. several weather lines carry about the same tension N c. at least 1,000 feet of chain lie along the bottom N d. the vertical component of chain tension at the lower fairlead is not excessive 5913: If uniformly distributed in the cantilever pipe rack of the COASTAL DRILLER, how much pipe can be placed in the cantilever pipe rack area when the cantilever has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?
N a. 630 kips N b. 609 kips Y c. 500 kips N d. 479 kips 6093: On offshore drilling units where foam systems are installed on the heliport, the system must be able to discharge continuously for at least __________.
Y a. 5 minutes N b. 6 minutes N c. 8 minutes N d. 10 minutes 6415: While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost circulation and loses 460 barrels of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. What is the resulting draft if no additional ballast is taken on?
N a. 57 feet N b. 58 feet Y c. 59 feet N d. 60 feet 6725: The person responsible for maintaining clean and sanitary conditions in the accommodation spaces of a MODU is the __________.
N a. Chief Steward Y b. Master or person in charge N c. Chief Engineer N d. Tool Pusher 6737: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.
N a. week N b. two weeks Y c. month N d. two months 6863: When are fore and aft draft readings required to be entered in the unofficial logbook of a MODU?
N a. Once a day N b. Once a week Y c. Prior to getting underway N d. Only when entering waters of different density 6895: Who is responsible for reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. The pilot Y b. The owner N c. The surveyor N d. The engineer 6897: Who shall insure that all records required by regulations are retained on board a mobile offshore drilling unit involved in a casualty?
N a. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection Y b. Owner N c. Pilot N d. Engineer 6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.
Y a. tour reports N b. hull reports N c. machinery repair record book N d. deck equipment log 7081: In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________.
N a. provide the necessary medication Y b. rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries N c. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury N d. prescribe treatment for the victim 7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
N a. water depth N b. keel N c. center of flotation Y d. center of buoyancy 8015: In case of damage to the DEEP DRILLER on location, the immediate objective is to reduce the unexpected inclination and return the unit to __________.
N a. nearest sheltered port Y b. near its original draft N c. drilling N d. survival draft 8305: Since accumulations of H2S gas on a MODU can be dangerous to personnel, it is important to know that H2S gas is __________.
N a. lighter than air Y b. heavier than air N c. a yellow gas that is easily recognized N d. mildly toxic 8587: The person assigned to command a lifeboat or inflatable liferaft on a MODU shall have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat or liferaft. The list shall include each person's __________.
N a. home address Y b. duties N c. home phone number N d. nearest relative's address 9631: Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.
N a. the same control releasing the CO2 Y b. a separate control to release the CO2 N c. two separate controls to release the CO2 N d. three separate controls to release the CO2