This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
38: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.
N a. 1/2 inch or less N b. 1/2 to 1 inch N c. 1 to 1-1/2 inches Y d. 1-1/2 to 2 inches 88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
N a. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. N b. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. N c. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. Y d. Re-tip the head and try again. 88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
N a. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. N b. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. N c. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. Y d. Re-tip the head and try again. 117: Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.
Y a. over an electrically heated platinum filament N b. where it is mixed with nitrogen N c. where it is ignited by a sparking device N d. where its specific gravity is measured 130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
N a. the vessel has very little draft Y b. G is above the center of lateral resistance N c. G is below the center of lateral resistance N d. the vessel is deeply laden 130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
N a. the vessel has very little draft Y b. G is above the center of lateral resistance N c. G is below the center of lateral resistance N d. the vessel is deeply laden 454: Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.
N a. 13 Y b. 16 N c. 19 N d. 23 533: What is the purpose of limber holes?
N a. To allow for air circulation N b. To allow for stress and strain in rough waters N c. To allow water in the boat to drain overboard Y d. To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain 753: How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?
N a. Immediately use all the signals at once. N b. Use all the signals during the first night. N c. Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone. Y d. Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the area. 790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?
N a. Lighter draft N b. Raised fo'c'sle head N c. Raised poop Y d. Higher bulwark 810: When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will __________.
Y a. trim by the stern N b. trim by the head N c. be on an even keel N d. be tender 919: After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?
N a. Slightly elevate the head and feet. N b. Keep the person awake. Y c. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature. N d. Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow. 1008: A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________.
Y a. gently flooding with water N b. warming the eye with moist warm packs N c. laying the person flat on his back N d. mineral oil drops directly on the eye 1032: When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.
Y a. is effective if used promptly on an oil fire N b. has a greater cooling effect than water N c. is lighter than air N d. is harmless to cargo and crew 1154: On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________.
N a. oil fired turbine or reciprocating steam engine N b. turbocharged diesel engine N c. natural gas (propane) engine Y d. gasoline powered engine 1184: If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?
N a. Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the raft container. Y b. Attach the cord to a fixed object on the ship. N c. You should stand on the cord. N d. Attach the cord to the special pad eye on the "raft davit launcher". 2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
N a. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable INMARSAT unit. N b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. Y c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them to the survival craft. N d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. 2035: What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?
N a. Dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit Y b. Pressing a "Distress Key" on the equipment N c. Contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in existence N d. Contacting the CES operator using the radiotelephone distress procedure "Mayday"...etc. 2127: On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________.
N a. 50 percent of all persons on board N b. 75 percent of all persons on board Y c. 6 persons N d. 10 persons 2155: When sailing with the wind aft, a vessel may carry sails on both sides at the same time. The sails are __________.
Y a. wing and wing N b. luffed N c. reefed N d. cringled 2171: The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________.
N a. two years N b. three years N c. four years Y d. five years 2211: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.
Y a. latitude, longitude and estimated distance from shore N b. latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water N c. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip N d. Latitude and longitude only 2297: Each fire pump on a tankship must have a pressure gauge located at __________.
Y a. the pump discharge N b. the manifold connection N c. each fire station discharge N d. the pump station 2312: Which statement is TRUE concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene?
Y a. 3000 ppm is endurable for 30 - 60 minutes (single exposure) N b. 500 - 1000 ppm for 30 - 60 minutes will produce definite irritation to the trachea N c. 5.5 ppm for 1 minute is practically intolerable N d. No chronic effects noticed after 20,000 ppm exposure for 5 - 10 minutes 2355: What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?
N a. ITU Publications Y b. The manufacturers instruction manuals N c. Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations N d. Code of Federal Regulations, Title 47, Part 80, Subpart W` 2382: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 4521 tons Y b. 5349 tons N c. 7242 tons N d. 9750 tons 2475: Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n) __________.
Y a. deviation table N b. radar reflector N c. electronic position-fixing device N d. copy of the Sailing Directions 2491: The platform that supports the derrickman when tripping pipe is called the __________.
N a. Texas deck N b. water table N c. stabbing board Y d. monkey board 2616: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for motor gasoline is __________.
Y a. -40°F N b. 100°C N c. 199°C N d. 495°F 2664: Gasoline fumes tend to __________.
Y a. settle near the bottom of the bilge N b. settle near the top of the bilge N c. settle evenly throughout all levels of the bilge by mixing with air N d. disperse to atmosphere 2883: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.
N a. survival craft N b. messrooms Y c. readily accessible locations N d. locked watertight containers 3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. decrease N c. increase N d. remain constant 3113: For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. decrease N c. increase N d. remain constant 3279: You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that __________.
N a. all wing voids and rakes are pumped dry before tying off the barge N b. the barge is moored next to the bank where it will be protected from a possible collision Y c. the barge is under the care of a watchman N d. a rake end is facing upstream to minimize the effect of current on the mooring lines 3300: How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel?
Y a. None are required N b. One B-I, C-I N c. One B-II, C-II N d. One B-II 3306: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0120
N a. FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-05" Y b. FWD 26'-05", AFT 28'-07" N c. FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-10" N d. FWD 26'-00", AFT 29'-00" 3402: A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. You should __________.
N a. hoist flag "C" N b. wait for further signals after a short delay N c. hoist flag "R" Y d. expect no further flag hoists 3434: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4260 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0130
N a. KG 24.6 feet N b. KG 25.0 feet N c. KG 25.4 feet Y d. KG 25.9 feet 3676: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.
N a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode N b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft N c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB Y d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB 3709: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.
N a. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water N b. drain water from the lungs before ventilating Y c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible N d. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting 3727: The DEEP DRILLER is engaged in wire line logging. You have 10,000 feet of drill pipe and bottom hole assembly in the set back. Marine weather forecasts are predicting weather with winds in excess of 70 knots. Your first step to prepare for the storm should be to __________.
Y a. suspend wire line operations and run the drill string into the hole N b. continue wire line operations and bring the rig to a 45 foot draft N c. suspend wire line operations and dump your mud pits overboard N d. increase tension on all anchor chains to minimize movement of the rig 3833: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.
Y a. 33 Starboard N b. 44 Starboard N c. 33 Port N d. 44 Port 4005: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S?
N a. 0 foot-tons Y b. 1,189 foot-tons N c. 2,378 foot-tons N d. 7,984 foot-tons 4057: In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.
N a. adding the free surface correction N b. subtracting the free surface correction N c. multiplying by displacement Y d. dividing by displacement 4092: On which route is a towing vessel over 39.4 feet in length NOT required to carry an echo-sounding device?
N a. Great Lakes N b. Inland Waters, other than the Western Rivers Y c. Western Rivers N d. Coastwise Routes 4189: You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)
N a. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to sea. Y b. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany. N c. You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to compensate. N d. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical mark upon arrival in the tropical zone. 4797: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new TCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?
Y a. -0.23 foot N b. 0.00 foot N c. 0.23 foot N d. 0.54 foot 5031: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a jack-up drilling rig under tow is considered to be a __________.
Y a. vessel N b. non-displacement vessel N c. power-driven vessel N d. limited vessel 5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed __________.
Y a. at the anchor end of the line N b. at the wildcat end of the line N c. midway between the anchor and the wildcat N d. through the anchor buoy 5667: When clear ice is present when the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, the vertical moments are increased by __________.
N a. 40,402 ft-long tons N b. 42,255 ft-long tons N c. 45,593 ft-long tons Y d. 49,280 ft-long tons 5901: With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the __________.
Y a. tug losing power N b. tow line parting N c. bridle twisting N d. rig broaching 6303: The most doubtful and unpredictable factor in a mooring system is the __________.
Y a. ability of the anchors to hold in a seabed N b. anchor chain catenary length N c. variability of the fairlead N d. angle of the flukes 7037: Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.
N a. severe nausea and cramps Y b. muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness N c. sudden thirst and craving for candy N d. severe agitation and desire to get out of closed spaces 8163: The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in the __________.
N a. wheelhouse under glass N b. toolpusher's quarters N c. OIM's office Y d. ballast control room 8345: For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and __________.
N a. air temperature at the time of the exposure N b. air pressure at the time of the exposure N c. humidity at the time of exposure Y d. duration of the exposure 8373: How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?
N a. Cylinder head valves Y b. Ports N c. Turbo chargers N d. Bleeder valves 8433: The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of __________.
N a. one year from the date of issue N b. two years from the date of issue N c. three years from the date of issue Y d. four years from the date of issue 8817: A jack-up has 8 inches of trim by the stern. Calculations show that the moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 500 foot-kips. To level the unit, how far must a weight of 50 kips be transferred toward the bow?
N a. 10.0 feet N b. 62.5 feet Y c. 80.0 feet N d. 100.0 feet 9243: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?
N a. 43 feet 6 inches Y b. 45 feet 6 inches N c. 48 feet 0 inches N d. 49 feet 6 inches 9381: If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.
N a. climb onto the bottom N b. swim away from the raft Y c. right the raft using the righting strap N d. inflate the righting bag