This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
48: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
Y a. Lower half of the sternum N b. Tip of the sternum N c. Top half of the sternum N d. Left chest over the heart 53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
N a. pushing up on one side Y b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards N c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder N d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate 224: If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?
N a. 045 N b. B045 N c. B045T Y d. A045 317: Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the United States. You are required by regulations to __________.
N a. test the primary and secondary steering systems no more than 8 hours before entering Y b. correct the charts of the area to be transited using the Notice(s) to Mariners or foreign equivalent reasonably available N c. have a copy of Radio Navigational Aids N d. check the magnetic compass for the correct deviation 389: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank tops. The hold is 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.
N a. .09 feet N b. .12 feet Y c. .14 feet N d. .16 feet 521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?
N a. .39 ft Y b. .77 ft N c. .88 ft N d. .95 ft 553: Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?
N a. They must be released by freeing a safety shackle. N b. They should not be released until the boat is in lowering position. Y c. They may be adjusted by a turnbuckle. N d. They are normally used only with radial davits. 629: Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________.
N a. vomiting Y b. blue color and lack of breathing N c. irregular breathing N d. unconsciousness 705: Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST?
N a. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank. N b. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill. Y c. Signal the shore control point to shut down. N d. Close the valve on the tank vent line. 748: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.
N a. blows the fire back toward the vessel Y b. comes over the bow N c. comes over the stern N d. comes over either beam 1126: Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks?
Y a. Natural supply and mechanical exhaust N b. At least one opening to the exterior of the hull N c. Mechanical supply and natural exhaust N d. Any of the above 1198: Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are __________.
N a. the spring slip style Y b. a permanent type N c. located so as to be easily greased N d. temporarily clamped on the top of the battery 1493: A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.
Y a. attached to the raft stowage cradle or to a secure object nearby with a weak link N b. checked to see that it's unattached N c. coiled neatly on the raft container N d. faked on deck and lead through a chock 1543: The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for __________.
N a. one year N b. two years Y c. ten years N d. the life of the vessel 1552: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel must keep course and speed when __________.
Y a. being overtaken N b. to windward of another sailing vessel N c. to leeward of another sailing vessel N d. crossing a vessel engaged in fishing 1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?
Y a. One approved Category 1 EPIRB N b. Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs N c. One approved Class B EPIRB N d. Two approved Class B EPIRBs 1810: Halon extinguishes a fire by __________.
Y a. breaking the chain reaction N b. smothering the fire N c. cooling the fire N d. coating the fuel with a nonflammable surface 1877: Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?
N a. S-Band Radar N b. A DSC receiver Y c. X-Band Radar N d. The autoalarm 1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)
N a. 2.17 feet N b. 2.32 feet Y c. 2.52 feet N d. 3.01 feet 2401: A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.
N a. using a 2-1/2 inch hose Y b. there is an outlet for the smoke and heat N c. the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure N d. at least two fog streams can be used 2431: A device used to enlarge the size of an existing bore hole, having teeth arranged on its outside circumference to cut the formation as it rotates is a(n) __________.
N a. enlarger bit N b. casing bit Y c. hole opener N d. casing opener 2522: What best describes benzene?
N a. Clear colorless liquid with an acrid odor Y b. Clear colorless liquid with an aromatic odor N c. Brownish liquid, odorless N d. Brownish liquid, with an acrid odor 2582: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.
N a. the height of the metacenter N b. the height of the center of gravity N c. half the height of the metacenter Y d. zero 2627: Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run __________.
N a. longitudinally N b. vertically Y c. transversely N d. intermittently 2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.
N a. reserve ballast Y b. reserve buoyancy N c. lightweight displacement N d. critical motions 2658: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.
N a. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port N b. also turns to starboard N c. turns counterclockwise to port Y d. remains aligned with compass north 2741: A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the __________.
N a. general plans N b. builder's documentation N c. Certificate of Inspection Y d. construction portfolio 2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.
N a. mean draft N b. calculated draft N c. deep draft Y d. load line draft 3054: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom (capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. Less than 1° Y b. 3° N c. 7° N d. 11° 3055: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?
N a. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets. Y b. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. N c. Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. N d. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used. 3268: Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because __________.
N a. they are more heavily built Y b. the fuel used is less volatile N c. they can be easily reversed N d. they operate at a lower speed 3334: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.
N a. a portable radio N b. an oil lantern N c. canned milk Y d. a towing bridle 3478: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.
Y a. sealing clamps N b. repair tape N c. a tube patch N d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit 3637: In anticipation of heavy weather, it is decided to deballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft. The marine riser should be disconnected, pulled, and laid down. After doing so, the riser tension will be __________.
Y a. zero N b. equal to the weight of the riser N c. dependent on the water depth N d. applied at the riser tensioner sheaves 3905: On the DEEP DRILLER, when using the starboard #2 ballast pump to provide water to the main deck from the sea, it is necessary to open valves __________.
Y a. 37, 35, 36, 45 N b. 37, 36, 46, 47 N c. 38, 47 N d. 38, 47, 45, 46 3924: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.
Y a. remain in the immediate vicinity N b. head for the nearest land N c. head for the closest sea-lanes N d. let the persons in the boat vote on what to do 3979: In the illustration shown, where would you find the knife? (D014SA )
Y a. Item #2 N b. item #4 N c. item #12 N d. item #16 4044: Convection spreads a fire by __________.
Y a. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems N b. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space N c. burning liquids flowing into another space N d. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal 4120: Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?
N a. An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts Y b. A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids N c. An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen N d. An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores" 4134: Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
N a. with both pumps on line at the same time Y b. with one pump on standby N c. with the follow-up gear disconnected N d. only when the rudder is moved amidships 4155: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new uncorrected height of the center of gravity?
N a. 50.72 feet N b. 51.25 feet Y c. 51.87 feet N d. 53.22 feet 4293: Preloading tests the soil to the vertical leg reaction that would be imposed by __________.
N a. static forced and drilling loads N b. a severe storm Y c. the design storm N d. environmental forces 4305: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on location?
N a. 45 feet Y b. 95 feet N c. 145 feet N d. 245 feet 4333: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 2 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?
N a. 50 feet N b. 100 feet Y c. 150 feet N d. 200 feet 4377: The elevating system of the COASTAL DRILLER is normally limited to __________.
N a. 14,158 kips Y b. 14,400 kips N c. 17,280 kips N d. 21,297 kips 4635: How much drill water is required for transfer between drill water tanks #25 and #26 in order to correct the list of the COASTAL DRILLER with total transverse moments of -6,800 ft-kips?
N a. 200 kips from tank #26 to tank #25 N b. 200 kips from tank #25 to tank #26 N c. 100 kips from tank #26 to tank #25 Y d. 100 kips from tank #25 to tank #26 6049: While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
N a. Resume base course and speed as your assistance is no longer required. N b. Acknowledge receipt and advise your course, speed, and ETA. N c. Relay the original distress message as no other vessel has acknowledged it. Y d. Monitor the radiotelephone but do not transmit. 6213: When patching holes in the hull of a MODU, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as __________.
N a. caulking Y b. gaskets N c. strongbacks N d. wedges 6421: While drilling at 4,000 feet with casing set to 2,000 feet, the well kicks with mud weight in the hole. Mud pumps are shut down and the blowout preventer is closed. Compared to the drilling situation, the pressure on the casing seat will be __________.
N a. unchanged Y b. increased N c. reduced N d. indeterminable 6667: On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.
N a. be located in close proximity to the main control station N b. be equipped with battery powered emergency lighting Y c. be marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS" N d. All of the above 6743: The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the __________.
N a. oxygen and explosion meter when it is used for detection of flare gases Y b. self-contained breathing apparatus, when used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit N c. boots and gloves that are made of rubber or electrically non-conductive material, if used when repairing electrical equipment N d. lifeline, if used by personnel entering a compartment which might be deficient of oxygen 6856: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
N a. conduction Y b. convection N c. radiation N d. direct contact 6953: After reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, which record must be retained on board?
Y a. Record of drafts N b. Hull reports N c. Anchor record N d. Machinery repair book 7063: The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.
N a. leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs N b. pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms N c. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement Y d. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury 7365: What is the minimum required GMT for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?
N a. 0.17 foot N b. 2.62 feet Y c. 4.34 feet N d. 9.12 feet 8156: Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________.
N a. small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes N b. all deep draft vessels Y c. fishing industry vessels N d. small passenger vessels 8186: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 20'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.
N a. 920 foot-tons N b. 935 foot-tons N c. 960 foot-tons Y d. 980 foot-tons 8411: What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?
Y a. Buildup of sludge in the lubricating system N b. Excessive fuel consumption N c. Severe heat stresses on mechanical parts N d. Foaming of the lubricating oil 8973: For a floating vessel, the result of subtracting KG from KM is the __________.
N a. height of the metacenter N b. height of the righting arm N c. height of the center of buoyancy Y d. metacentric height 9265: Oil well casing will fail when the external pressure exceeds the internal pressure by a differential equal to the casing's rated __________.
N a. tensile strength N b. hoop stress Y c. collapse pressure N d. burst pressure