USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


11: A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?


33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.


90: Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? (D001SA )


326: CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________.

    N a. NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2
    Y b. be automatically operated by a heat actuator
    N c. have an audible alarm
    N d. All of the above

390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.

    N a. low in the vessel
    N b. completely empty
    N c. completely full
    Y d. slack

620: A vessel's LCG is determined by __________.

    Y a. dividing the total longitudinal moment summations by displacement
    N b. dividing the total vertical moment summations by displacement
    N c. multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal moments
    N d. subtracting LCF from LCB

983: Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. Your average rolling period will be __________.

    N a. 20 seconds
    N b. 23 seconds
    Y c. 25 seconds
    N d. 35 seconds

1076: The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

    N a. inspected weekly
    N b. worn at all times
    Y c. readily available
    N d. tested yearly

1320: Fire extinguishers on inspected vessels are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.

    N a. used for electrical fires only
    Y b. the smallest
    N c. the most accessible
    N d. the most effective

1416: You will extinguish a fire when you remove __________.

    N a. nitrogen
    Y b. oxygen
    N c. sodium
    N d. carbon dioxide

1453: The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?

    Y a. Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is difficult to extinguish.
    N b. In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height.
    N c. They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or range fires.
    N d. They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the ignition point.

1565: What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?

    Y a. 061722Z
    N b. 06 1122 ZD+6
    N c. G1722 06APR81
    N d. 1122Z6 06APR

1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

    N a. There must be a designated responsible person who will be available to receive your call at anytime.
    Y b. There must be specific instructions for the designated responsible person to follow if your call does not come in on schedule.
    N c. The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule.
    N d. The designated responsible person should be over 18 years of age.

1808: Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

    Y a. Cools the inert gas.
    N b. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
    N c. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
    N d. Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main.

1822: Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold?

    N a. Lack of oxygen
    N b. Methane gas
    N c. Hydrogen sulfide gas
    Y d. Carbon monoxide

1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________.

    N a. on a close reach
    Y b. on a broad reach
    N c. on a starboard tack
    N d. running before the wind

1883: On offshore drilling units, the Muster List ("Station Bill") must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.

    N a. company man
    N b. driller
    N c. owner
    Y d. Master or person in charge

2033: How is "radio silence" imposed?

    Y a. By the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    N b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    N c. By the Public Correspondence Station (PCS), controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    N d. By the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel.

2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    Y a. 2.4 feet (0.70 meters)
    N b. 2.8 feet (0.85 meters)
    N c. 3.0 feet (0.90 meters)
    N d. 3.2 feet (0.98 meters)

2149: On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?

    N a. The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection
    Y b. The certificated tankerman on duty
    N c. The vessel owner
    N d. Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation.

2183: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.

    Y a. name and port of the unit
    N b. owner and port of the unit
    N c. drilling location
    N d. builder

2223: Knowing the compass heading that is 90° to the side of a MODU will enable the operator of a survival craft to initially steer __________.

    N a. into the wind
    Y b. away in fire and smoke
    N c. directly to the standby boat
    N d. directly to the nearest land

2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.

    N a. daily testing
    Y b. either A or C
    N c. operational use of the equipment
    N d. testing at least every 48 hours

2467: To prevent the riser system from buckling under its own weight, upward tension is provided by the __________.

    N a. riser stabilizers
    N b. guideline tensioning system
    Y c. riser tensioning system
    N d. guideline stabilizers

2584: The grade C flammable liquid phenylethane is found in the Chemical Data Guide under the chemical name __________.

    N a. ethyl cyanide
    Y b. ethylbenzene
    N c. ethyl acetate
    N d. muriatic ether

2602: In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

    N a. Acetic oxide
    N b. Carbinol
    N c. Carbon bisulfide
    Y d. Phenol

2675: The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.

    N a. stiffener
    N b. beam
    Y c. stringer
    N d. doubler

2891: The maximum angle at which the intact stability curves are valid for MODU's is the angle for __________.

    N a. the limit of positive stability
    N b. the limit of small-angle stability
    N c. maximum offset
    Y d. downflooding

2993: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

    N a. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
    N b. burning liquids flowing into another space
    N c. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    Y d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems

3141: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0108

    N a. Available GM 4.81 ft
    N b. Available GM 4.69 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.60 ft
    Y d. Available GM 4.28 ft

3143: The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________.

    N a. lease operator
    N b. Minerals Management Service
    Y c. Coast Guard
    N d. person-in-charge of the unit

3234: The abandon ship signal is __________.

    N a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds
    N b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle
    Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells
    N d. a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle

3325: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

    N a. 1.03 feet starboard of centerline
    N b. 0.53 foot starboard of centerline
    N c. 0.53 foot port of centerline
    Y d. 1.53 feet port of centerline

3459: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs.

    N a. 155 tons each
    Y b. 170 tons each
    N c. 190 tons each
    N d. 200 tons each

3583: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0142

    N a. 2.6 feet
    N b. 2.8 feet
    N c. 3.1 feet
    Y d. 4.3 feet

3694: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.

    N a. monitor blood pressure
    Y b. clear airways
    N c. use the rhythmic pressure method
    N d. know all approved methods

3768: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

    Y a. Identify the person in charge.
    N b. Gather up useful floating objects.
    N c. Prepare for arrival of rescue units.
    N d. Arrange watches and duties.

3777: What is the weight of cement in P-tank #1 of the Deep Driller if the ullage is 3.4 feet?

    N a. 11.5 long tons
    N b. 16.6 long tons
    Y c. 54.2 long tons
    N d. 78.2 long tons

3824: After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.

    Y a. will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the system
    N b. will help prevent fatigue
    N c. will quench thirst for only two hours
    N d. help prevent seasickness

3925: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve __________.

    N a. 26
    N b. 28
    N c. 36
    Y d. 41

3941: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and __________.

    Y a. supplement the bilge pumps
    N b. provide saltwater service to the deck
    N c. emergency fuel-oil recovery
    N d. supplement the ballast pumps

4108: A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. four years
    N b. three years
    N c. two years
    Y d. one year

4119: A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, you should __________.

    N a. keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been consumed by the fire
    N b. have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisher
    Y c. cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the galley door
    N d. advance the hose team into the galley without any preparatory action

4197: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

    N a. 0.5 second
    N b. 5.0 seconds
    Y c. 10.0 seconds
    N d. 13.5 seconds

4687: What is the decrease in vertical moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from a full drill water tank #23?

    N a. 3,464 ft-kips
    N b. 2,982 ft-kips
    Y c. 482 ft-kips
    N d. 161 ft-kips

5273: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    N a. pump from 10S
    N b. counterflood in 1P
    Y c. pump from 8S
    N d. pump from C3S

5577: What is the advantage of a single streamlined fluke anchor over a double fluked anchor of similar weight?

    N a. It has multiple fluke angle settings.
    Y b. It has increased holding power.
    N c. It holds well with either side down.
    N d. It is easier to handle on an anchor boat.

5897: The type of shackle used in making up tow lines to a MODU should be __________.

    N a. screw pin
    N b. chain
    N c. anchor
    Y d. safety

6402: Small passenger vessels in cold water ocean routes, that do not meet the standards for collision bulkheads or subdivision in subchapter S, must carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    Y a. 100% inflatable buoyant apparatus
    N b. at least one hand fire pump
    N c. at least two EPIRBs
    N d. All of the above.

6731: During the required periodic abandon ship drill aboard a MODU, each person not assigned duties in the muster list is __________.

    N a. instructed in the use of portable fire extinguishers
    N b. shown a video demonstrating lifeboat launching
    Y c. instructed in the use of life jackets
    N d. not required to attend the boat drill

8217: What is the purpose of a striker plate?

    N a. Provides surface for applying force on machinery
    Y b. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob
    N c. Absorbs machinery vibration
    N d. Prevents valve stem over-travel

8391: What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?

    N a. Lube oil pressure gauge
    N b. Jacket water temperature gauge
    N c. Tachometer
    Y d. Exhaust pyrometer

8637: Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?

    N a. Damage below the waterline
    N b. Damage to interior watertight boundaries
    N c. Damage to/in machinery rooms
    Y d. Damage at or just above the waterline

8755: While elevated, the COASTAL DRILLER prepares for a severe storm. When the setback is lowered and placed in the pipe racks, it is considered as part of the __________.

    N a. fixed loads
    N b. basic loads
    Y c. variable loads
    N d. storm loads

8845: A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60?

    N a. 17 feet 9 inches
    Y b. 18 feet 3 inches
    N c. 18 feet 9 inches
    N d. 21 feet 3 inches

9091: The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing __________.

    N a. 45° upward
    N b. vertically upward
    Y c. vertically downward
    N d. all of the above

9153: The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.

    N a. availability of tools
    N b. shape of the hull
    Y c. pressure exerted by the water
    N d. threat of progressive flooding

9515: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________.

    N a. longitudinal centerline
    Y b. center of buoyancy
    N c. original vertical centerline
    N d. center of flotation

9597: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), when an unexpected, slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.

    N a. 0.90 foot
    N b. 0.83 foot
    N c. 0.57 foot
    Y d. 0.49 foot

9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?

    N a. 4 of each
    N b. 3 of each
    Y c. 2 of each
    N d. 1 of each