USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?


142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?


405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________.


532: Fire hose should be washed with __________.

    N a. salt water and a wire brush
    N b. caustic soap
    Y c. mild soap and fresh water
    N d. a holystone

803: The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

    N a. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
    N b. more than 6 short blasts
    Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
    N d. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds

830: Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is __________.

    N a. sagging with tensile stress on main deck
    N b. sagging with compressive stress on main deck
    Y c. hogging with tensile stress on main deck
    N d. hogging with compressive stress on main deck

883: On a vessel of 15,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 60 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

    N a. 1.54 feet
    N b. 1.59 feet
    N c. 1.63 feet
    Y d. 1.71 feet

986: According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.

    N a. all information ordinarily provided in the Oil Record Book
    Y b. an explanation and purpose of the plan
    N c. a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented
    N d. the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators installed aboard the vessel

989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.

    N a. area of the body burned
    N b. source of heat causing the burn
    Y c. layers of skin affected
    N d. size of the burned area

1071: Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines?

    N a. Annealed copper tubing
    N b. Nickel-copper tubing
    N c. Copper-nickel tubing
    Y d. Seamless steel pipe or tubing

1085: When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.

    N a. on only the forward falls
    N b. on only the after falls
    Y c. with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat
    N d. from the falls to the main deck of the vessel

1192: Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?

    N a. Exposure to flue gas has no effect on the instrument.
    N b. Only one level of the tested space need be sampled by the instrument.
    Y c. Prolonged exposure to CO2 can result in false readings.
    N d. The instrument can detect hydrogen gas.

1253: If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that the survival craft could be dropped into the water?

    N a. 2 ft.
    N b. 6 ft.
    Y c. 10 ft.
    N d. 14 ft.

1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________.

    N a. cutting the restraining strap
    N b. unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle
    N c. lifting one end of the raft
    Y d. pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release

1436: Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons of water must be shifted from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to bring her to an even draft forward and aft?

    N a. 52 tons
    N b. 50 tons
    Y c. 48 tons
    N d. 24 tons

1439: Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when __________.

    N a. using a rotary grinder with an installed shield
    N b. letting go the anchor
    Y c. handling wire rope or natural fiber line
    N d. painting with a spray gun

1470: If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.

    N a. move port-side main-deck cargo to the starboard side
    Y b. fill the starboard double-bottom
    N c. pump water from the port double-bottom to the starboard double-bottom
    N d. pump water from the port double-bottom over the side

1486: A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30 tons cargo will be 9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

    Y a. 1.14°
    N b. 2.05°
    N c. 2.31°
    N d. 3.40°

1568: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2464 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.3 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0042

    N a. KG 27.0 feet
    N b. KG 27.8 feet
    Y c. KG 28.6 feet
    N d. KG 29.8 feet

1632: When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.

    N a. threads are lubricated
    N b. nozzle is attached to the hose
    Y c. female coupling has a gasket
    N d. hose is led out

1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?

    N a. A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail.
    Y b. You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze.
    N c. You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet.
    N d. You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension.

1749: High pressure and low pressure alarms must be tested __________.

    Y a. no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading
    N b. no later than 24 hours prior to loading
    N c. anytime prior to loading
    N d. weekly

1928: Your vessel displaces 740 tons and measures 141'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (41'L by 30'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 35.1 tons)

    N a. 2.14 feet
    N b. 2.75 feet
    N c. 2.96 feet
    Y d. 3.18 feet

2012: What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?

    N a. DSC provides reception of weather and navigational warnings plus search and rescue information.
    N b. DSC provides low-cost, routine communications for the vessel operator.
    Y c. DSC is to be used for transmitting and receiving distress alerts to and from other ships or coast radio stations via radio.
    N d. This aids SAR authorities in tracking a vessel's position by satellite.

2125: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

    N a. The Chief Mate
    Y b. An approved servicing facility
    N c. Shipyard personnel
    N d. A certificated lifeboatman

2212: In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach, the sails should be __________.

    N a. lowered
    N b. reefed
    N c. hauled in
    Y d. eased out

2436: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 320 tons are loaded 47 feet forward of amidships; (2) 82 tons are discharged 110 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 50 tons of fuel are pumped 60 feet forward.

    N a. FWD 21'-05", AFT 21'-00"
    Y b. FWD 21'-06", AFT 21'-02"
    N c. FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-05"
    N d. FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-06"

2498: Which product is volatile?

    Y a. Benzene
    N b. Diesel fuel
    N c. Coal tar
    N d. Heavy industrial fuel oil

2630: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire?

    N a. Alcohol foam
    N b. CO2
    N c. Dry chemical
    Y d. Water fog

2990: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 30'-08". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0092

    N a. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-01"
    N b. FWD 29'-03", AFT 29'-11"
    Y c. FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-09"
    N d. FWD 29'-07", AFT 29'-07"

3056: The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to a period of __________.

    N a. 24 months
    N b. 36 months
    Y c. 42 months
    N d. 60 months

3082: On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be __________.

    N a. kept locked up at all times when underway
    Y b. stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces
    N c. inaccessible to passengers
    N d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times

3218: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 3 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    Y a. 2500 tons
    N b. 2550 tons
    N c. 2600 tons
    N d. 2650 tons

3493: The longitudinal distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

    N a. 122'-09"
    Y b. 164'-00"
    N c. 260'-00"
    N d. 260'-05"

3533: If the maximum amount of weight is stored in the pipe racks of the DEEP DRILLER, what is the weight per square foot?

    N a. 250.0 pounds per square foot
    N b. 312.5 pounds per square foot
    Y c. 350.0 pounds per square foot
    N d. 400.0 pounds per square foot

3683: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. What might have caused the inclination?

    N a. Mooring lines 6 and 7 have failed.
    Y b. The drilling crew has dumped the mud.
    N c. The drill string has broken.
    N d. Ballast tanks have equalized into tank 10S.

3737: The most important consideration in the event the Deep Driller suffers damage is __________.

    Y a. preserve reserve buoyancy
    N b. advise authorities
    N c. pump from adjacent undamaged compartments
    N d. counterflood on the opposite corner

3782: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure should be used during a prolonged period in a liferaft?

    N a. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
    N b. Get plenty of rest.
    N c. Keep the entrance curtains open.
    Y d. All of the above

3820: Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include __________.

    N a. small sips at regular intervals during the day
    N b. a complete daily ration at one time during the day
    Y c. one-third the daily ration three times during the day
    N d. small sips only after sunset

3911: For the DEEP DRILLER, it is recommended that the number of lower-hull ballast tanks with free surfaces be less than __________.

    N a. 2
    N b. 4
    Y c. 6
    N d. 8

3923: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the #1 bilge pump is valve __________.

    N a. 28
    N b. 36
    Y c. 41
    N d. 42

3941: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and __________.

    Y a. supplement the bilge pumps
    N b. provide saltwater service to the deck
    N c. emergency fuel-oil recovery
    N d. supplement the ballast pumps

4175: How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet.

    N a. 461.9 long tons
    Y b. 457.5 long tons
    N c. 388.8 long tons
    N d. 323.1 long tons

4231: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?

    N a. 225
    N b. 235
    N c. 245
    Y d. 265

4595: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    N a. 4,956 kips
    N b. 5,063 kips
    Y c. 5,104 kips
    N d. 5,233 kips

5271: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to pump from __________.

    N a. 1P
    Y b. 3P
    N c. C1P
    N d. C2P

5308: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

    Y a. 25.7 feet
    N b. 26.0 feet
    N c. 26.4 feet
    N d. 26.8 feet

5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-06", AFT 20'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0178

    N a. 1.05 feet
    N b. 1.15 feet
    N c. 1.25 feet
    Y d. 1.31 feet

5601: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moving onto a location in shallow water with a very hard bottom. What is the most effective means of maintaining your position at this location during severe weather?

    N a. Running out all the anchor chain available
    Y b. Piggyback all anchors and pretension to above the expected tensions
    N c. Install fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors
    N d. Remove fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors

5957: On a MODU, a CO2 extinguisher is checked by __________.

    N a. reading the gage pressure
    Y b. weighing the extinguisher
    N c. discharging a small amount of CO2
    N d. seeing if the seal has been broken

6049: While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    N a. Resume base course and speed as your assistance is no longer required.
    N b. Acknowledge receipt and advise your course, speed, and ETA.
    N c. Relay the original distress message as no other vessel has acknowledged it.
    Y d. Monitor the radiotelephone but do not transmit.

6246: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.
    N b. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.
    Y c. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.
    N d. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.

6801: Where must the 0mster or person in charge of a MODU record the date of each test of emergency lighting and power systems and the condition and performance of the equipment?

    N a. On the Certificate of Inspection
    N b. On the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    N c. In the Operations Manual
    Y d. In either the official or unofficial log

7307: All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that __________.

    Y a. only one person may talk at a time
    N b. only two persons may talk at the same time
    N c. the radio only transmits
    N d. the radio only receives

7786: The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________.

    N a. shield fire fighters from radiant heat
    Y b. break up burning material
    N c. get the most water possible on the fire
    N d. drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters

8835: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 foot-kips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet. How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet?

    N a. 67.5 kips
    N b. 81.0 kips
    N c. 126.6 kips
    Y d. 253.1 kips

8897: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.

    N a. Maritime Advisory Council
    Y b. International Maritime Organization
    N c. International Association of Shipping
    N d. Association of Seafaring Nations

9497: Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the upward-acting buoyant force and the __________.

    N a. upward-acting weight force
    Y b. downward-acting weight force
    N c. downward-acting buoyant force
    N d. environmental force

9607: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

    Y a. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed
    N b. put the wind off either beam
    N c. put the stern into the wind and increase speed
    N d. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed

9624: You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.

    N a. begin breaking out the nearest fire hose
    N b. secure ventilation to the room
    N c. close the door to the room
    Y d. acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus