This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
N a. metacentric point Y b. metacenter N c. metacentric radius N d. tipping center 148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.
N a. lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops Y b. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound N c. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops N d. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it 188: The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.
Y a. direct pressure on the wound N b. elevating the wounded area N c. pressure on a pressure point N d. a tourniquet above the wound 228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?
Y a. Compound N b. Greenstick N c. Closed N d. Crack 267: Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
N a. Class A N b. Class B N c. Class C Y d. Category 1 338: A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a __________.
N a. major burn N b. secondary burn Y c. second-degree burn N d. blister burn 377: The regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the __________.
N a. Department of Transportation Y b. Federal Communications Commission N c. U.S. Coast Guard N d. Department of Defense 462: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will __________.
Y a. produce high-velocity fog N b. produce low-velocity fog N c. produce a straight stream N d. shut off the water 539: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.
N a. 1.2 feet N b. 1.1 feet N c. 1.3 feet Y d. 1.5 feet 612: The service life of distress signals must be not more than __________.
Y a. forty two months from the date of manufacture N b. thirty six months from the date of the last inspection N c. twenty four months from the date of approval N d. twelve months from the date of purchase 648: Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color?
N a. White N b. White or international orange Y c. Orange N d. Any highly visible color easily seen from the air 1135: Which statement about the bilge piping system of "T-Boats" that are more than 26 feet in length is NOT correct?
N a. Each watertight compartment must have its own bilge suction line or pump N b. Each space's bilge suction connection to a manifold must have stop and check valves, or a stop-check valve Y c. All bilge piping must be at least 2" inside-diameter brass pipe N d. Bilge suction strainers must have an open area not less than three times the area of the bilge pipe 1483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 19'-06", AFT 21'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.7 feet.
N a. Tanks: DT1 Y b. Tanks: DB3, DT8 N c. Tanks: DB2, DB7 N d. Tanks: DB5 1663: Which tank barges require draft marks?
Y a. All tank barges N b. Tank barges over 50 GT N c. Tank barges over 100 GT N d. Notch barges over 1000 GT 1665: Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?
Y a. Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it up. N b. Roll the hose starting at the female end. N c. Roll the hose starting at the male end. N d. Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds together. 1707: Your 40-foot auxiliary sailing vessel has just run aground on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and found none. Which is the most prudent action to take immediately?
N a. Sheet the sails in flat to try to heel her over with the wind and sail off. N b. Start the engine and run it hard in forward to try to drive over and off the bar. Y c. Strike the sails. Then run a kedge anchor out to one side, hook the main halyard to it, and heave the boat down onto one side. N d. Take soundings visually, by sounding pole, or lead line all around the vessel to locate the deepest water. 1821: On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is provided, each porthole or window must be fitted with __________.
Y a. screens N b. portlights N c. covers N d. curtains 2204: Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?
N a. Radio direction finding Y b. Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue coordination, on-scene communications, signals for locating, Maritime Safety Information, general and bridge-to-bridge communications. N c. Communications in each of the operational ocean areas N d. All communications possible within the International Safety-NET service 2423: A large valve, usually installed above the ram preventers, that forms a seal in the annular space between the pipe and wellbore or, if no pipe is present, on the wellbore itself is called the __________.
Y a. annular blowout preventer N b. annulus N c. accumulator N d. automatic choke 2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the __________.
N a. vertical position Y b. horizontal position N c. boom stop angle N d. minimum radius angle 2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45° inclination.
N a. 1.8 feet N b. 2.6 feet N c. 2.9 feet Y d. 3.6 feet 2697: In order to withstand fluid head pressure on a MODU, stiffeners are often attached to the bulkhead __________.
N a. penetrations Y b. plating N c. framing N d. brackets 2759: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 110 tons Y b. 103 tons N c. 100 tons N d. 98 tons 3026: Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. The builder of the vessel Y b. The owner or Master of the vessel N c. The U.S. Coast Guard N d. The classification society 3051: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.
N a. only after two hours in the water N b. only after four hours in the water N c. before entry into the water Y d. upon entry into the water 3071: The free surface effects of a partially-full tank in a floating MODU increase with the __________.
Y a. surface area of the fluid in the tank N b. displacement volume of the MODU N c. draft of the MODU N d. height of the tank above the keel 3290: On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. outside the space protected N b. inside the space protected N c. at the carbon dioxide cylinders N d. in a padlocked waterproof metal box 3301: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?
N a. 1.43 feet forward of amidships Y b. 1.38 feet forward of amidships N c. 0.62 foot forward of amidships N d. 0.57 foot forward of amidships 3325: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?
N a. 1.03 feet starboard of centerline N b. 0.53 foot starboard of centerline N c. 0.53 foot port of centerline Y d. 1.53 feet port of centerline 3371: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?
N a. 66.0 feet N b. 60.5 feet Y c. 59.5 feet N d. 55.0 feet 3412: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch.
N a. FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4" Y b. FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3" N c. FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3" N d. FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4" 3537: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed __________.
N a. 4° N b. 5° N c. 7° Y d. 10° 3766: The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.
N a. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication Y b. avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling N c. preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain N d. providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration 3876: What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel?
N a. A drill should be conducted every three months. Y b. A regular service line must be used when it's fired. N c. A regular projectile must be used when it's fired. N d. The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. 3881: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.
N a. 3 Y b. 5 N c. 6 N d. 7 3917: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 3,765 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 1S to level the unit in list?
Y a. 25.1 long tons N b. 50.2 long tons N c. 62.8 long tons N d. 252.1 long tons 3974: In the illustration, the sea anchor is shown as item number_____. (D014SA )
N a. 7 N b. 13 N c. 15 Y d. 14 4143: While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What would be the new draft?
Y a. 56.69 feet N b. 58.14 feet N c. 59.14 feet N d. 63.31 feet 4190: You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance. N b. You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B. N c. You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance. Y d. You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering the winter zone. 4401: Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.
N a. the hull being in the storm wave zone Y b. increased overturning moments N c. reduced exposed area N d. increased static leg loading 4637: How much drill water should be transferred from tanks #23 and #24 to tank #1 to level the COASTAL DRILLER, in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, if the total longitudinal moments are 1,700,000 ft-kips?
N a. 438 kips Y b. 451 kips N c. 521 kips N d. 537 kips 4693: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no trim, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. TM is -6,800 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?
N a. Transfer 53.1 kips each from #25 and #26 forward to #1 N b. Transfer 100 kips from #26 to #25 N c. Transfer 200 kips from #25 to #26 Y d. Transfer 100 kips from #25 to #26 4807: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?
N a. 2.24 feet N b. 2.14 feet N c. 2.10 feet Y d. 1.67 feet 5247: In case of major damage to column C1P while the DEEP DRILLER is on location, you should pump from port-forward lower-hull tanks using __________.
N a. all four ballast pumps Y b. both port-side ballast pumps N c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps N d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps 5261: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. pump from 2P N b. pump from C1P N c. counterflood in 1P N d. counterflood in 10S 5287: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. You may pump from __________.
N a. 2S N b. C1S Y c. 1S N d. 10P 5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-06", AFT 20'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0178
N a. 1.05 feet N b. 1.15 feet N c. 1.25 feet Y d. 1.31 feet 5501: What is a major disadvantage of Di-Lok chain compared with Oil Rig Quality (stud link) chain in floating drilling rig operations?
Y a. Shorter fatigue life N b. Higher weight N c. Lower strength N d. Greater expense 5561: What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system?
N a. Guy wire N b. Joining pendant N c. Wildcat leader Y d. Anchor pendant 5795: What is the length of the catenary when the DEEP DRILLER is anchored in 600 feet of water and the anchor line tension is 170 kips?
N a. 891 feet N b. 1348 feet Y c. 1493 feet N d. 1657 feet 5811: The unit used to measure anchor line tensions in the offshore drilling industry is the __________.
N a. long ton N b. short ton N c. metric ton Y d. Kip 6106: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0192
N a. Available GM 4.3 ft N b. Available GM 4.7 ft N c. Available GM 5.1 ft Y d. Available GM 5.5 ft 6551: When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.
N a. distance of the barite surface above the tank bottom N b. percentage of barite in the tank Y c. distance of the barite surface below the tank cover N d. total weight of barite in UPC (ullages per centimeter) 6987: Severe airway burns can cause __________.
N a. nausea N b. reddening of cheeks Y c. complete obstruction of respiratory passages N d. nosebleed 7003: When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________.
Y a. five minutes N b. ten minutes N c. fifteen minutes N d. twenty minutes 7587: The geometric center of the underwater volume is known as the __________.
N a. center of flotation N b. tipping center N c. center of gravity Y d. center of buoyancy 7725: Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
N a. unoccupied space below the waterline Y b. volume of intact space above the waterline N c. excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force N d. difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters 8047: An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.
N a. only when the load is taken off the cable N b. only when there is a load on the cable N c. only when activated by the controls at the lowering station Y d. at any time 8927: On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to __________.
N a. 1000 kips Y b. 875 kips N c. 750 kips N d. 450 kips 9527: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability?
N a. Stable N b. Neutral Y c. Negative N d. Positive