This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
N a. has fired a torpedo during a drill Y b. is about to rise to periscope depth N c. is on the bottom in distress N d. is disabled and unable to surface 49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.
N a. use a portable foam extinguisher N b. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose Y c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher N d. determine the cause of the fire 247: During a stability test on a small passenger vessel __________.
N a. the vessel must be moored snugly N b. each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak N c. all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured Y d. water under vessel must be deep enough to prevent grounding 480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.
Y a. 33'-00" N b. 33'-04" N c. 33'-08" N d. 33'-11" 517: The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.
Y a. 156.8 MHz (channel 16) N b. 156.7 MHz (channel 14) N c. 156.65 MHz (channel 13) N d. 156.6 MHz (channel 12) 533: What is the purpose of limber holes?
N a. To allow for air circulation N b. To allow for stress and strain in rough waters N c. To allow water in the boat to drain overboard Y d. To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain 586: On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration?
N a. Cast bronze N b. Plastic Y c. Cast iron N d. Stainless steel 628: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
N a. in the midships house N b. at the main deck manifold N c. at the vent header Y d. in the pumproom 656: The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.
N a. a safe speed only specified N b. not less than 120 feet per minute Y c. not more than 120 feet per minute N d. not more than 90 feet per minute 660: Reserve buoyancy is __________.
Y a. the watertight part of a vessel above the waterline N b. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight N c. transverse watertight bulkheads N d. a measure of metacentric height 764: Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?
N a. Securite Y b. Mayday N c. Breaker N d. Pan 866: The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.
N a. determined by the Master N b. specified by the Coast Guard Y c. specified by the manufacturer N d. None 933: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 40 feet and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?
N a. 0.3 ft. N b. 0.5 ft. Y c. 0.8 ft. N d. 1.1 ft. 1004: The lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here highly dangerous" is __________.
N a. firing of a white star signal Y b. firing of a red star signal N c. vertical motion of a red light N d. code letter "K" given by light or sound signaling apparatus 1171: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0029
N a. 2.62 feet N b. 2.82 feet Y c. 2.97 feet N d. 3.15 feet 1248: In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________.
Y a. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed N b. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of extinguishment N c. water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire N d. the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel 1361: What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length?
N a. 1" Y b. 1-1/2" N c. 2" N d. 2-1/2" 1389: Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE?
Y a. Boiler soot blowers should never be used when the IG system is operating. N b. The boiler will produce the best quality of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. N c. The boiler will produce the most quantity of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. N d. Flue gas with excessive oxygen content is de-oxygenated in the scrubber. 1452: First aid means __________.
N a. medical treatment of accident N b. setting of broken bones Y c. emergency treatment at the scene of the injury N d. dosage of medications 1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.
N a. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day N b. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water N c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain Y d. under no conditions 1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.
N a. red and white N b. yellow and white Y c. yellow and blue N d. yellow and red 1847: An offshore drilling unit must be equipped with a first aid kit approved by the __________.
N a. Coast Guard N b. American Bureau of Shipping N c. Minerals Management Service Y d. Mine Safety and Health Administration 2045: How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?
N a. As often as is deemed necessary to effect delivery Y b. No less often than every four hours N c. Only on an as-needed basis N d. Once per 24-hour period 2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.
N a. shut off all electrical power N b. close all openings to the area N c. remove combustibles from direct exposure Y d. cool the bulkheads around the fire 2305: With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from a __________.
N a. nuclear environment Y b. fire and toxic environment N c. hurricane N d. drop greater than 10 feet 2376: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 24'-06". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 1676 tons 18 feet forward of amidships Y b. 1676 tons 18 feet forward of the tipping center N c. 1972 tons 16 feet forward of amidships N d. 1972 tons 16 feet forward of the tipping center 2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.
N a. filling a partially filled tank Y b. using fuel from a pressed fuel tank N c. emptying a partially filled tank N d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak 2616: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for motor gasoline is __________.
Y a. -40°F N b. 100°C N c. 199°C N d. 495°F 2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.
Y a. the letter "E" N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit N c. a no-smoking symbol N d. the word "DANGER" 2922: Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. as high as feasible in the pilot house N b. near the area where passengers embark N c. in any location desired Y d. in a conspicuous place where it will most likely be observed by the passengers 2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets. N b. They shall be of an approved type. N c. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment. N d. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water. 2947: A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.
N a. 8,929 long tons N b. 19,509 long tons Y c. 20,000 long tons N d. 24,500 long tons 3131: Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.
N a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots N b. before collision Y c. after flooding N d. at survival draft 3176: The tops of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate __________.
Y a. in open air N b. inside cabins N c. in machinery space N d. underwater 3353: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
N a. the float free method only N b. kicking the hydrostatic release Y c. throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft N d. removing the securing straps 3371: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?
N a. 66.0 feet N b. 60.5 feet Y c. 59.5 feet N d. 55.0 feet 3430: How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. QWE BEC N b. QUE BACH Y c. KEH BECK N d. QU UE 3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
N a. density of the liquid N b. placement of the tank above the keel Y c. displacement volume of the vessel N d. size of the surface area in the tank 3511: The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
N a. 680,914 ft-long tons N b. 9,733 ft-long tons Y c. -5,937 ft-long tons N d. 000 ft-long tons 3562: The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________.
N a. surfaced with a nonskid texture N b. roped off to prevent unnecessary access Y c. kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching N d. posted with a list of persons assigned to the rescue boat 3780: One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.
N a. stream the sea anchor Y b. take an anti-seasickness pill N c. open the pressure relief valve N d. drink at least one can of water 3881: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.
N a. 3 Y b. 5 N c. 6 N d. 7 3945: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the bilge pumps take suction from the pump rooms, cofferdam, void area, access trunk, and __________.
Y a. center column chain lockers N b. backup drill water tank N c. primary salt-water service tank N d. forward and after column chain lockers 4212: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.021, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
N a. 76 inches N b. 74 inches N c. 73 inches Y d. 72 inches 4325: Lowering the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER and refloating should be done in favorable weather conditions with wave heights not more than __________.
N a. three feet N b. four feet Y c. five feet N d. six feet 4375: On the COASTAL DRILLER, what is NOT considered a drilling load?
N a. Hook load Y b. Cantilever pipe rack N c. Conductor tension N d. Setback 4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.
N a. overboard discharge N b. dump valves Y c. skimmer tank N d. sump valves 4635: How much drill water is required for transfer between drill water tanks #25 and #26 in order to correct the list of the COASTAL DRILLER with total transverse moments of -6,800 ft-kips?
N a. 200 kips from tank #26 to tank #25 N b. 200 kips from tank #25 to tank #26 N c. 100 kips from tank #26 to tank #25 Y d. 100 kips from tank #25 to tank #26 4773: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what longitudinal moment would have to be created to level the unit in trim at the new draft?
N a. 25,846 ft-kips N b. 17,119 ft-kips N c. 8,727 ft-kips Y d. 1,788 ft-kips 4775: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what transverse moment would have to be created to level the unit in list at the new draft?
N a. -3,604 ft-kips N b. -4 ft-kips Y c. 3,470 ft-kips N d. 7,088 ft-kips 5497: Which grade of anchor chain is generally used on floating drilling vessels?
N a. Grade 1 N b. Grade 2 Y c. Oil Rig Quality (stud link) N d. 303S 5713: What pressure must a spring buoy, moored at a 500 foot depth, withstand?
N a. 100 psig N b. 150 psig Y c. 225 psig N d. 300 psig 5765: Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________.
Y a. still water level N b. wave crest N c. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections N d. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal correction and storm surge 6624: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is ___________,
N a. red N b. white Y c. green N d. red 7578: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should __________.
N a. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling N b. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted N c. remove their life preservers to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter Y d. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability 7581: For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.
Y a. KG is minimum N b. angle of inclination is a maximum N c. small-angle stability applies N d. KM is a minimum 7693: Increasing the number of slack liquid tanks has the effect of raising the __________.
N a. uncorrected KG N b. maximum allowed KG Y c. virtual height of the center of gravity N d. metacentric height 7725: Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
N a. unoccupied space below the waterline Y b. volume of intact space above the waterline N c. excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force N d. difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters 8173: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 100 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.
Y a. 35 feet N b. 32 feet N c. 30 feet N d. 25 feet 9521: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
Y a. height of the center of gravity N b. vertical moments N c. righting moments N d. inclining moments