This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
119: What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?
N a. A jack-up rig under tow N b. A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow N c. A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking a tow line Y d. All of the above 138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.
N a. pull it out with pliers N b. cut the skin from around the hook Y c. push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook N d. have a surgeon remove it 214: In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?
N a. REPEAT Y b. RPT N c. RPB N d. UD AA 348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.
N a. Minor burn N b. Superficial burn N c. Extremity burn Y d. First-degree burn 552: When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, a 5-gallon can of liquid foam will last __________.
Y a. 1-1/2 minutes N b. 2-1/2 minutes N c. 5 minutes N d. 15 minutes 568: On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut off valve __________.
N a. must be operable from the weather deck N b. may be operable from any accessible location above the bulkhead deck N c. must be labeled at its operating point to show its identity and direction of closing Y d. All of the above 692: Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?
N a. To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire spreads N b. To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire N c. To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from igniting Y d. To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire 823: Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.
N a. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general alarm Y b. continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds N c. 1 short blast on the whistle N d. alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle 831: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
N a. heating surfaces adjacent to the fire N b. leaving combustibles in the endangered area Y c. shutting off the oxygen supply N d. All of the above 929: According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________.
Y a. incinerating offshore N b. discharging when at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land N c. grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land N d. grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 25 nautical miles from nearest land 1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?
Y a. They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered. N b. They are normally attached to the davit span. N c. They are needed only on radial davits. N d. They are used to clear the puddings. 1368: A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using __________.
N a. salt water N b. foam N c. low-velocity fog Y d. CO2 1517: A double male coupling is one that __________.
N a. has left hand twist N b. has inside threads on both ends Y c. has outside threads on both ends N d. takes two men to operate 1519: All oil spills must be reported to the __________.
N a. U.S. Corps of Engineers Y b. U.S. Coast Guard N c. local police N d. local fire department 1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.
N a. take measures to maintain morale N b. prepare and use radio equipment N c. identify the person in charge of liferaft Y d. search for survivors 1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?
N a. Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process. Y b. The threads on the male end are protected by the hose. N c. Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings. N d. Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose. 1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?
N a. There must be a designated responsible person who will be available to receive your call at anytime. Y b. There must be specific instructions for the designated responsible person to follow if your call does not come in on schedule. N c. The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule. N d. The designated responsible person should be over 18 years of age. 1951: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.
Y a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed 1964: When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) __________.
N a. tidal bore N b. ebbing current Y c. flood current N d. All of the above 2061: Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig?
N a. In the rig safety manual N b. On the Certificate of Inspection Y c. On the Ship Station License N d. On the rig Watch Bill 2217: Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.
Y a. capsize N b. run smoother N c. run faster N d. sink 2271: When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.
N a. plot a course for the nearest land N b. take a vote on which direction you should go Y c. stay in the immediate area N d. go in one direction until fuel runs out 2474: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of cargo are loaded 86 feet forward of amidships.
N a. FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-04" N b. FWD 18'-10", AFT 21'-01" N c. FWD 19'-10", AFT 21'-08" Y d. FWD 19'-11", AFT 21'-04" 2546: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 24.0 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 5,202 foot-tons Y b. 8,666 foot-tons N c. 10,876 foot-tons N d. 11,424 foot-tons 2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.
N a. submerged hulls Y b. column void spaces N c. dry mud tanks N d. ballast tanks 2736: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 19° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.3 feet off center.
Y a. 0.2 foot N b. 0.8 foot N c. 1.4 feet N d. 2.2 feet 2862: A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats.(small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. all persons aboard Y b. 67% of the total number of persons permitted on board. N c. 50% of all persons aboard N d. 30% of all persons aboard 2966: Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. 3 months in any 12 month period since it was last hauled out N b. 6 months in the 3 year period since it was last hauled out N c. 12 months in the 5 year period since it was last hauled out N d. whenever ownership or management changes 2999: The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless __________.
N a. the pumproom is gas-free N b. spaces with bulkheads common to the pumproom are either gas-free, inert, filled with water, or contain grade E liquid N c. all other compartments in which flammable vapors and gases may exist are closed and secured Y d. All of the above 3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
N a. volume of liquid in the tank Y b. volume of displacement of the vessel N c. location of the tank in the vessel N d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel 3063: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?
N a. 48 N b. 36 Y c. 24 N d. 12 3214: What does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Size of the applicator N b. Size of the nozzle N c. Size of the extinguisher Y d. Class of fire that the extinguisher should be used on 3327: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 20,000 long tons. LCB is 3.0 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 40 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?
N a. 3.64 feet forward of amidships N b. 2.45 feet forward of amidships Y c. 2.36 feet forward of amidships N d. 0.55 foot forward of amidships 3449: How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
N a. 12 Y b. 14 N c. 18 N d. 24 3452: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 29'-05", AFT 30'-07". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 540 long tons are loaded in No. 18 hatch.
Y a. FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-03" N b. FWD 29'-09", AFT 30'-11" N c. FWD 30'-01", AFT 31'-03" N d. FWD 30'-04", AFT 29'-06" 3596: The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.
N a. when the power source is replaced N b. each year after installation N c. every six months Y d. when it is no longer serviceable 3607: With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is __________.
Y a. 1,378 feet N b. 1,423 feet N c. 1,591 feet N d. 1,624 feet 3609: General arrangement plans shall be permanently exhibited on all passenger vessels of at least __________.
N a. 200 GT and over N b. 500 GT and over Y c. 1000 GT and over N d. 1500 GT and over 3655: You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by __________.
N a. displaying a large red flag N b. displaying three black balls in a vertical line N c. sounding five or more short and rapid blasts on the whistle Y d. continuously sounding the fog whistle 3733: In the event of damage to the DEEP DRILLER which results in flooding to one of the lower-hull tanks, pump from __________.
N a. nearby damaged tanks Y b. nearby undamaged tanks containing ballast N c. tanks on the opposite corner N d. the opposite trim tank 3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.
N a. administer oxygen Y b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR N c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk N d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary 3993: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?
N a. 5,996 foot-tons Y b. 1,688 foot-tons N c. 495 foot-tons N d. 115 foot-tons 4008: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.
N a. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo N b. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area Y c. have containment capacity for at least one half barrel N d. are opened and the flame screen replaced 4057: In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.
N a. adding the free surface correction N b. subtracting the free surface correction N c. multiplying by displacement Y d. dividing by displacement 4085: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
N a. 65.95 feet N b. 66.85 feet N c. 67.66 feet Y d. 68.59 feet 4297: The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should be at __________.
N a. 0.00 feet (flush with bottom of hull) N b. 1.20 feet Y c. 12.38 feet N d. 60.50 feet 4299: When jumping into water upon which there is an oil-fire, you should __________.
N a. enter the water midships on the leeward side of the vessel N b. enter the water midships on the windward side of the vessel N c. enter the water at the bow or stern on the leeward side of the vessel Y d. enter the water at the bow or stern on the windward side of the vessel 4591: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 100 feet of water with 0 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 50 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.
N a. 6,180 kips N b. 6,320 kips Y c. 6,440 kips N d. 6,520 kips 4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.
N a. overboard discharge N b. dump valves Y c. skimmer tank N d. sump valves 4753: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse moments with this transfer?
N a. 56 ft-kips N b. 979 ft-kips N c. 1035 ft-kips Y d. 2010 ft-kips 4786: Which number indicates the hydrostatic release? (D015SA )
N a. 3 Y b. 6 N c. 7 N d. 10 5098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 20'-04", AFT 23'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0172
N a. 0.62 foot Y b. 0.80 foot N c. 0.85 foot N d. 0.99 foot 5505: Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used mooring chain?
N a. Cracks N b. Elongation N c. Loose studs Y d. Fatigue 5505: Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used mooring chain?
N a. Cracks N b. Elongation N c. Loose studs Y d. Fatigue 6871: Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made?
Y a. Every 3 months N b. Every 6 months N c. Every year N d. Only after conducting a boat drill 7007: What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?
N a. Water should be applied in a fine spray. N b. The burned area should be immersed in water. N c. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment. Y d. Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently. 8015: In case of damage to the DEEP DRILLER on location, the immediate objective is to reduce the unexpected inclination and return the unit to __________.
N a. nearest sheltered port Y b. near its original draft N c. drilling N d. survival draft 8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?
N a. 12 percent N b. 15 percent N c. 18 percent Y d. 21 percent 8843: A semisubmersible in transit is at a draft of 19 feet. The depth of the lower hulls is 21 feet. How much bunker fuel at 54.0 lbs/cu ft could be taken on and still provide one foot of freeboard if the TPI is 52.3?
Y a. 627.6 long tons N b. 648.0 long tons N c. 843.9 long tons N d. 255.2 long tons 9441: The moment of a force is a measure of the __________.
Y a. turning effect of the force about a point N b. instantaneous value of the force N c. stability characteristics of the vessel N d. center of gravity location