This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
50: What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?
N a. Bending moments Y b. Initial stability N c. Draft N d. Trim 150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
N a. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full N b. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty N c. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full Y d. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty 162: The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to __________.
N a. control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body Y b. allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen N c. release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode N d. allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle 248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?
N a. Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint. N b. Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply a pressure dressing. N c. Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and splint. Y d. Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice. 302: If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
N a. Shutting off electricity to damaged cables Y b. Pumping fire-fighting water overboard N c. Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side N d. Removing burned debris from the cargo hold 430: The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.
N a. volume of displacement of the vessel N b. dimensions of the surface of the liquid Y c. amount of liquid in slack tanks N d. specific gravity of the liquid in the tank 480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.
Y a. 33'-00" N b. 33'-04" N c. 33'-08" N d. 33'-11" 502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________.
N a. be kept as high and as far inboard as possible N b. not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to another N c. have some means to make them watertight Y d. All of the above 564: If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, you should __________.
N a. report to the caller Y b. repeat your last transmission N c. continue since he received your last transmission N d. end the transmission 737: When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?
N a. The waters in which vessels may operate N b. Special construction limitations N c. Grades of cargo which may be carried Y d. Type of vessel to which the regulation applies 963: Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its full rolling period to be 21.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?
N a. 1.1 ft N b. 1.3 ft N c. 1.6 ft Y d. 1.8 ft 991: Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________.
N a. able to absorb heat N b. water based Y c. nonconducting N d. nontoxic 999: A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must carry an inflatable liferaft with a __________.
Y a. SOLAS A pack N b. SOLAS B pack N c. coastal pack N d. small vessel pack 1043: Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?
Y a. In calm seas lower the lifeboats to the water and keep them alongside. N b. Rig the jumbo boom and use it to jettison heavy deck cargo. N c. Press up a centerline double bottom that is now filled to 15% capacity. N d. Pump out the peak tanks simultaneously. 1075: Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the __________.
N a. oars N b. sail Y c. boat plug N d. life preservers 1162: Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?
N a. A flame safety lamp Y b. A combustible gas indicator N c. A liquid cargo meter N d. All of the above 1168: What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?
N a. 1% N b. 10% Y c. 15% N d. 21% 1208: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.
N a. decrease in KM is equal to the loss of draft N b. virtual rise of G is directly proportional to the remaining draft N c. lost buoyancy method is used to calculate KM, and KB is reduced Y d. displacement lost acts at the point where the ship is aground 1474: In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________.
N a. chemical agent N b. blocker Y c. sorbent N d. None of the above 1601: Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for __________.
N a. coast to aircraft operational communications N b. aircraft to ship operational communications Y c. lock & bridge communications N d. aircraft to ship navigational communications 1624: A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number, and persons aboard, should be filed with __________.
N a. the FAA N b. the Coast Guard N c. U.S. Customs Y d. a responsible person 1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. The true wind is a little abaft your beam, at just under 25 knots. N b. The apparent wind at the top of your mast will be slightly stronger than 25 knots and slightly farther forward than the wind at deck level. N c. If you turn to a close reach, the apparent wind will reduce in strength. Y d. None of the above are true. 1731: Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?
Y a. An inert gas system N b. The deck foam system N c. The fire main system N d. A fixed water spray system 1814: Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons?
N a. 8.76 feet N b. 8.93 feet N c. 9.04 feet Y d. 9.27 feet 1850: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Y a. 031247Z N b. 030947P N c. 124733 MAR N d. 309473 1866: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0046
N a. Available GM 5.0 ft Y b. Available GM 5.4 ft N c. Available GM 6.1 ft N d. Available GM 6.8 ft 1881: What does a SART signal sound or look like?
N a. It transmits "SOS" and the vessel's name and position in slow speed Morse Code. Y b. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the innermost dot indicating the SART's position. N c. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the outermost dot indicating the SART's position. N d. None of the above 1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Acetonitrile N b. Molten sulfur Y c. Dodecanol N d. Soybean oil 2059: What standing rigging supports the mast in the fore-and-aft and athwartships directions?
N a. Sheets and guys N b. Guys and vangs N c. Vangs and shrouds Y d. Shrouds and stays 2271: When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.
N a. plot a course for the nearest land N b. take a vote on which direction you should go Y c. stay in the immediate area N d. go in one direction until fuel runs out 2520: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)?
N a. Aluminum N b. Nickel Y c. Copper or copper alloys N d. Stainless steel 2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft N b. Available GM 4.24 ft Y c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2614: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
N a. Smoke N b. Electricity N c. Pressure Y d. Chain reaction 2691: Two individuals authorized to serve as a lifeboatman must be assigned to any lifeboat that has a capacity of more than __________.
N a. 10 persons N b. 20 persons N c. 30 persons Y d. 40 persons 2876: The minimum number of portable B-II fire extinguishers required in the machinery space of a 199 GT motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P. is __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. 3 Y b. 6 N c. 8 N d. 9 2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.
N a. 9° N b. 12° N c. 15° Y d. 19° 2987: For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.
Y a. increase N b. decrease N c. remain constant N d. stabilize at an angle of loll 3021: A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have __________.
N a. KMT greater than KML Y b. KMT less than KGT N c. an off-center LCG N d. TCG greater than level-vessel TCB 3116: According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.
N a. 5% N b. 10% Y c. 25% N d. 40% 3193: Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.
N a. ballast control alarms N b. excessive draft N c. excessive list or trim Y d. a continual worsening of list or trim 3214: What does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Size of the applicator N b. Size of the nozzle N c. Size of the extinguisher Y d. Class of fire that the extinguisher should be used on 3566: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.
N a. buoyant oars N b. one 50 meter line N c. one first aid kit Y d. All of the above 3577: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude rolls of 10° with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________.
N a. continue towing operations at a 19.5 foot draft N b. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and continue towing operations Y c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motions N d. alter course to bring the wind off the starboard beam 3634: You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?
N a. Do not acknowledge the distress message. N b. Send an urgency message about the distress. Y c. Use the signal MAYDAY RELAY and transmit the distress message. N d. Transmit a message as though your vessel was in distress. 3650: If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least once __________.
Y a. every week N b. a day N c. every trip N d. a watch or once a trip, whichever is shorter 3734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?
N a. Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature. Y b. Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature. N c. Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature. N d. Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature. 3800: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.
N a. spread apart as far as possible N b. held as tightly against your chest as possible N c. in a kneeling position Y d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles 3862: In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.
N a. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces N b. may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency Y c. should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency N d. All of the above 4232: The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 120% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection N b. 90% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection N c. 90% of the number of persons on board at the time Y d. the number of persons on board at the time 5121: What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a MODU?
N a. Heavy rains could cause downflooding. N b. Visibility could be restricted by low clouds. N c. Large waves could cause structural damage. Y d. Personnel may be injured by loose deck gear blown by the wind. 5193: The DEEP DRILLER is being towed at a 20 foot draft. Vessel motions are within acceptable limits, but the waves begin to hit the horizontal braces. You should __________.
N a. continue on course at the same draft N b. ballast to a 60 foot draft and continue on course Y c. change course to reduce the wave impact N d. shorten the tow wire for a smoother ride 5361: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?
Y a. 7,026 kips N b. 7,099 kips N c. 7,144 kips N d. 7,180 kips 5523: Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must undergo __________.
N a. USCG inspection Y b. a breaking test N c. x-ray inspection N d. spectroanalysis 6473: On an offshore drilling rig, the pumps which circulate drilling fluid through the drill string while drilling are called the __________.
N a. circulation pumps Y b. mud pumps N c. centrifugal pumps N d. mixing pumps 7003: When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________.
Y a. five minutes N b. ten minutes N c. fifteen minutes N d. twenty minutes 8221: What is the purpose of a vent header?
N a. Prevents entry of water into vent systems N b. Prevents passage of flame into fuel tanks N c. Catches overflow Y d. Combines individual vent lines into a main 8387: On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable?
N a. Overspeed trip Y b. Air inlet shut-off valve N c. Water injector N d. Fuel cutoff valve 8631: What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?
N a. 0.88 foot forward of amidships Y b. 0.85 foot forward of amidships N c. 0.82 foot forward of amidships N d. 0.79 foot forward of amidships 8635: A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to __________.
N a. 1,000 pounds N b. 2,000 short tons N c. 2,240 pounds Y d. 500 short tons 9634: A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.
Y a. one control N b. two controls N c. three controls N d. none of the above