USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


1: Your vessel is on an even keel. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag?


20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.


79: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.


130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.

    N a. the vessel has very little draft
    Y b. G is above the center of lateral resistance
    N c. G is below the center of lateral resistance
    N d. the vessel is deeply laden

322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________.

    N a. alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a vapor
    N b. absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
    N c. rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
    Y d. rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam

406: A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all __________.

    N a. T-Boats carrying more than 49 passengers for hire
    Y b. T-Boats that carry more than 12 passengers on an international voyage
    N c. T-Boats carrying more than 150 passengers for hire
    N d. large excursion vessels on lakes, bays, sounds, and river routes

617: For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry __________.

    N a. A radiotelephone
    Y b. Three hand red flare distress signals, and three hand orange smoke distress signals
    N c. A "Very" pistol and flare kit
    N d. An approved noise-making device

688: Which may ignite fuel vapors?

    N a. Static electricity
    N b. An open and running motor
    N c. Loose wiring
    Y d. All of the above

886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?

    Y a. Two
    N b. Three
    N c. Four
    N d. Five

910: When using a stabilogauge, unless the density correction is applied, the center of gravity of a loaded compartment is assumed to be located __________.

    N a. on the deck of the compartment
    N b. at one-third the height of the compartment
    Y c. at the geometric center of the compartment
    N d. at one-half the height of the compartment

1029: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

    N a. Towing vessel 26 feet in length or greater
    N b. Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying one or more passengers for hire
    N c. Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or greater
    Y d. All of the above

1135: Which statement about the bilge piping system of "T-Boats" that are more than 26 feet in length is NOT correct?

    N a. Each watertight compartment must have its own bilge suction line or pump
    N b. Each space's bilge suction connection to a manifold must have stop and check valves, or a stop-check valve
    Y c. All bilge piping must be at least 2" inside-diameter brass pipe
    N d. Bilge suction strainers must have an open area not less than three times the area of the bilge pipe

1164: A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at least once in every __________.

    N a. 2 months
    Y b. 3 months
    N c. 4 months
    N d. 5 months

1165: When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Backwater" means to __________.

    N a. lift oars to vertical position, trim blades fore and aft with handles resting on footings
    N b. complete the stroke, come to "Oars", raise oars smartly to vertical, rest handles on footing, trim blades fore and aft
    Y c. row in astern motion
    N d. complete stroke, stop rowing, dip blade about halfway into water, hold water to stop the way on the boat

1503: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

    N a. spread apart as far as possible
    N b. held as tightly against your chest as possible
    N c. in a kneeling position
    Y d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles

1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?

    Y a. One approved Category 1 EPIRB
    N b. Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs
    N c. One approved Class B EPIRB
    N d. Two approved Class B EPIRBs

1731: Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?

    Y a. An inert gas system
    N b. The deck foam system
    N c. The fire main system
    N d. A fixed water spray system

1819: Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons?

    N a. 9.14 feet
    Y b. 9.45 feet
    N c. 9.68 feet
    N d. 9.87 feet

1897: Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging?

    N a. Sheet
    Y b. Backstay
    N c. Topping lift
    N d. Downhaul

2035: What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?

    N a. Dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit
    Y b. Pressing a "Distress Key" on the equipment
    N c. Contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in existence
    N d. Contacting the CES operator using the radiotelephone distress procedure "Mayday"...etc.

2100: You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    N a. 20 tons
    N b. 60 tons
    Y c. 100 tons
    N d. 400 tons

2229: To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that __________.

    N a. the jib is on one side of the vessel and the mainsail on the other
    Y b. an air slot is formed between the two sails
    N c. one sail is as close to a right angle as possible to the other
    N d. as much of a gap as possible exists between the two sails in order to catch the most wind

2416: Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. GMDSS radio logs are required to contain entries pertaining to all incidents connected to radio communication service which appear to be of importance to the safety of life at sea.
    N b. All distress communications must be entered in the GMDSS radio log.
    Y c. Both of the above
    N d. None of the above

2425: Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report the injury to the Master, individual in charge, or other agent of the employer __________.

    N a. before the end of the voyage
    N b. no later than 24 hours after the vessel docks
    Y c. no later than 7 days after the injury occurred
    N d. only if the injury prevents him from working

2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068

    N a. Available GM 5.26 ft
    N b. Available GM 4.24 ft
    Y c. Available GM 4.11 ft
    N d. Available GM 4.01 ft

2604: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    Y a. 37
    N b. 31
    N c. 26
    N d. 23

2650: Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin?

    N a. Sulfuric acid
    N b. Nitric acid
    N c. Isocyanates
    Y d. Ammonia

2665: You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side?

    N a. 6 nm
    N b. 12 nm
    N c. 25 nm
    Y d. Must be retained aboard

2699: Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 45° if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 3.8 feet
    Y b. 2.7 feet
    N c. 1.9 feet
    N d. 0.9 foot

2806: A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.

    N a. 274.5°
    N b. 292.5°
    Y c. 315.0°
    N d. 337.5°

2847: The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be __________.

    N a. equipped with an approved carrying case
    N b. equipped with spare batteries
    Y c. readily accessible for transfer to a lifeboat
    N d. in a waterproof enclosure

2985: For a MODU with list, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.

    N a. stabilize at an angle of loll
    N b. decrease
    Y c. increase
    N d. remain constant

3100: Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge __________.

    N a. only when fully loaded
    N b. if one or more tanks are full
    Y c. when transferring cargo
    N d. only when the barge is being towed

3170: What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. 2.5 gallon foam
    N b. 10 pound carbon dioxide
    Y c. 2 pound dry chemical
    N d. 5 pound foam

3226: The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer reads __________.

    N a. "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear"
    N b. "Danger, Do Not Board"
    Y c. "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors"
    N d. "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"

3243: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

    N a. notify the Coast Guard
    N b. cut off air supply to the fire
    N c. have passengers put on life preservers
    Y d. sound the alarm

3267: A MODU displacing 30,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?

    N a. 2.5 feet downward
    N b. 2.0 feet downward
    Y c. 1.5 feet downward
    N d. 1.0 foot downward

3417: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

    N a. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.
    N b. Crew members may jump into the raft without damaging it.
    N c. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.
    Y d. All of the above

3444: The nautical term "lee shore" refers to the __________.

    Y a. shore on the lee side of the vessel
    N b. shore that is in the lee
    N c. western shore of the Lesser Antilles
    N d. shore in a harbor of refuge

3525: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons
    N b. eight anchor buoys
    Y c. anchors
    N d. lower hull fuel

3594: After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should __________.

    N a. turn it off for 5 minutes every half-hour
    N b. turn it off and on at 5 minute intervals
    N c. turn it off during daylight hours
    Y d. leave it on continuously

3660: How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    N a. DUB A U
    Y b. WISS KEY
    N c. WI NE
    N d. WOO LF

3865: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean service?

    N a. 4
    Y b. 8
    N c. 12
    N d. 16

3881: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.

    N a. 3
    Y b. 5
    N c. 6
    N d. 7

4113: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    N a. 10.42 feet
    N b. 10.87 feet
    N c. 11.50 feet
    Y d. 12.13 feet

4158: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-02", AFT 20'-10". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No. 8 hatch.

    N a. FWD 19'-00.4", AFT 20'-08.6"
    Y b. FWD 18'-10.8", AFT 20'-10.4"
    N c. FWD 19'-03.4", AFT 20'-05.6"
    N d. FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 20'-03.4"

4235: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as __________.

    Y a. variable loads
    N b. stationary loads
    N c. fixed loads
    N d. basic loads

5093: A jack-up drilling unit elevated on the Outer Continental Shelf must have a fog horn that will sound __________.

    Y a. a 2-second blast every 20 seconds
    N b. a 4-second blast every 20 seconds
    N c. an 8-second blast every 30 seconds
    N d. a 10-second blast every 30 seconds

5277: Failure of both port ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To deballast from tank 1P, you may use the __________.

    N a. port saltwater service pump
    N b. port drill water pump
    N c. port bilge pumps
    Y d. starboard ballast pump and the crossover system

5747: If the water depth is 500 feet, the length of the pendant wire from the anchor to the buoy is typically __________.

    N a. 400 feet
    N b. 500 feet
    Y c. 600 feet
    N d. 1000 feet

5871: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #8 is 190 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?

    N a. 53.6 long tons
    Y b. 55.3 long tons
    N c. 84.8 long tons
    N d. 442.4 long tons

6087: Portable Halon extinguishers used on MODU's may use __________.

    N a. HALON 1301 only
    N b. HALON 22 only
    Y c. HALON 1211 only
    N d. HALON 1301 or 1211

6626: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

    N a. 11,650 tons
    N b. 11,800 tons
    Y c. 12,000 tons
    N d. 12,250 tons

6861: Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

    Y a. log the density of the water
    N b. secure all overboard discharges
    N c. take on fresh water ballast
    N d. clean the sides with fresh water

7113: Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.

    N a. used for electrical fires only
    Y b. the smallest
    N c. the most accessible
    N d. the most effective

8357: What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?

    Y a. Electrical loading
    N b. Mechanical distribution
    N c. Compressibility of air
    N d. Mechanical friction

8577: The indication of a slipping anchor is a(n) __________.

    N a. decrease in mooring line length
    N b. increase in the opposite amperage
    N c. increase in the opposite line tension
    Y d. decrease in mooring line tension and amperage

8755: While elevated, the COASTAL DRILLER prepares for a severe storm. When the setback is lowered and placed in the pipe racks, it is considered as part of the __________.

    N a. fixed loads
    N b. basic loads
    Y c. variable loads
    N d. storm loads

8971: The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.

    N a. MT1 inch
    N b. ML1 inch
    N c. MH1 inch
    Y d. TPI

9381: If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.

    N a. climb onto the bottom
    N b. swim away from the raft
    Y c. right the raft using the righting strap
    N d. inflate the righting bag