This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
108: Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
N a. speed healing Y b. prevent infection N c. reduce inflammation N d. increase blood circulation 113: You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.
N a. quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates N b. check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough N c. check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening Y d. not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape 387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?
N a. Certificate of Inspection N b. List of ship stations N c. Copy of ship to shore channels Y d. Radio station license 483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4184 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0008
Y a. KG 25.8 feet N b. KG 26.6 feet N c. KG 27.2 feet N d. KG 28.0 feet 536: A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a speed of at least __________.
N a. 3 knots in smooth water Y b. 6 knots in smooth water N c. 3 knots in rough water N d. 6 knots in rough water 789: An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
Y a. so as to float free N b. with the vessel's emergency equipment N c. near the wheelhouse N d. as far forward as possible 799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.
N a. conspicuously marked N b. stowed anywhere N c. left on deck Y d. secured or stowed out of the way 820: The two points that act together to trim a ship are the __________.
N a. LCF and LCB Y b. LCG and LCB N c. metacenter and LCG N d. VCG and LCG 921: You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by __________.
N a. looking at the gauge N b. checking the nameplate data N c. weighing by hand Y d. weighing on a properly calibrated scale 1030: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?
N a. Towing vessels 25 feet or less in length, engaged in towing operations N b. Passenger vessel 50 gross tons or less, carrying passengers for hire Y c. Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation of other vessels in or near a channel or fairway N d. An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge 1141: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0027
N a. 2.15 feet N b. 2.05 feet N c. 1.85 feet Y d. 1.52 feet 1181: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4145 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0031
Y a. KG 25.0 feet N b. KG 25.6 feet N c. KG 26.2 feet N d. KG 26.8 feet 1262: Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?
N a. Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) N b. Water (cartridge-operated) N c. Water (pump tank) Y d. Carbon dioxide 1275: A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible exterior area of both sides of the bow and on the stern in block letters not less than __________.
N a. 6 inches in height N b. 5 inches in height Y c. 4 inches in height N d. 3 inches in height 1437: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D007SA )
Y a. F N b. G N c. J N d. K 1478: There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should __________.
N a. ventilate the quarters as much as possible N b. prepare to abandon ship Y c. close all ventilation to the quarters if possible N d. attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding the alarm 1509: You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?
N a. No wait is necessary, the reading occurs immediately. N b. At least 5 seconds Y c. At least 10 seconds N d. At least 20 seconds 1556: Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat?
Y a. Water N b. Foam N c. Dry chemical N d. Carbon Dioxide 1607: A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line?
N a. one N b. two Y c. three N d. four 1660: If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?
Y a. Replace the batteries. N b. Check the sampling tube for blockage. N c. Adjust the final reading by the amount the needle is displaced from zero. N d. Replace the platinum filament. 1677: After an engine is started you should __________.
N a. increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all parts of the engine N b. pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the engine Y c. check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks N d. run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased 1679: You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board?
Y a. Gyro compass N b. Magnetic compass N c. Electronic position fixing device N d. VHF radiotelephone 1711: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?
Y a. Never remove the line from the rocket. N b. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. N c. Wear asbestos gloves. N d. All of the above 1758: A flooded leg on a liftboat would adversely affect the vessel's stability underway by __________.
N a. increasing the righting moment N b. decreasing the vessel's displacement N c. increasing the reserve buoyancy Y d. shifting the CG (center of gravity) off center 1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________.
N a. shoreside loading rate Y b. cargo pump discharge rate N c. boiler forced draft fan rate N d. size of the largest cargo tank 2362: A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be punished federally by __________.
N a. fine N b. imprisonment N c. suspension or revocation of tankerman's document Y d. All of the above 2429: A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.
N a. list Y b. drag N c. set N d. sheer 2478: Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E?
N a. Sulfuric acid Y b. Formaldehyde solutions 37% to 50% N c. 1,1,1-trichloroethane N d. All of the above 2498: Which product is volatile?
Y a. Benzene N b. Diesel fuel N c. Coal tar N d. Heavy industrial fuel oil 2572: The radiotelephone urgency signal is __________.
N a. mayday Y b. pan pan N c. securite N d. seelonce feenee 2616: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for motor gasoline is __________.
Y a. -40°F N b. 100°C N c. 199°C N d. 495°F 2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.
N a. 9° N b. 12° N c. 15° Y d. 19° 3116: According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.
N a. 5% N b. 10% Y c. 25% N d. 40% 3157: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.
N a. C1S Y b. 9S N c. 9P N d. 2P 3200: Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. The removal of a watertight bulkhead N b. A minor overhaul of the propulsion machinery N c. Renewal of a FCC Certificate for a radiotelephone N d. All of the above 3300: How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel?
Y a. None are required N b. One B-I, C-I N c. One B-II, C-II N d. One B-II 3569: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. steer a course for the nearest land N c. steer a course for the nearest sea lane Y d. shut down the engines if installed and put out the sea anchor 3620: How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. OCK TOW BER N b. O RI AN Y c. OSS CAH N d. OA KAM 3659: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 43 lbs.
Y a. 23 tons each N b. 50 tons each N c. 75 tons each N d. 150 tons each 3692: Before CPR is started, you should __________.
Y a. establish an open airway N b. treat any bleeding wounds N c. insure the victim is conscious N d. make the victim comfortable 3863: On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?
N a. One ring life buoy Y b. One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV N c. Three ring life buoys N d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV 3880: The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on an OSV vessel must be stowed __________.
N a. in an inside passageway N b. in an approved bracket N c. so that it is accessible from the pilothouse of the vessel Y d. so that it will float free if the vessel sinks 3972: The external recognition light can be seem up to two miles and is shown as item number __________. (D014SA )
N a. 2 N b. 3 Y c. 6 N d. 16 3997: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?
Y a. 3,493 foot-tons N b. 1,797 foot-tons N c. 1,748 foot-tons N d. 100 foot-tons 4009: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.
N a. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo N b. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area Y c. have containment capacity for at least one barrel N d. are opened and the flame screen replaced 4153: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?
N a. 60 feet 9.6 inches N b. 59 feet 2.7 inches N c. 57 feet 11.5 inches Y d. 56 feet 10.9 inches 4334: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system?
N a. Condenses moisture N b. Provides overpressure protection N c. Purifies the air Y d. Acts as an accumulator 4541: What is the weight in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the sounding in the tank is 8 feet 2 inches?
N a. 202.16 kips Y b. 204.60 kips N c. 206.87 kips N d. 209.34 kips 5061: During a move to a new location, a jack-up drilling unit with personnel on board is towed through a heavy rainstorm. What signal must be sounded by the drilling rig when visibility is restricted?
N a. One prolonged blast N b. Two prolonged blasts N c. One prolonged and two short blasts Y d. One prolonged and three short blasts 5671: When assuming the maximum ice weight accumulation on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft, the vertical moments are increased by __________.
N a. 40,402 ft-long tons N b. 42,255 ft-long tons Y c. 45,593 ft-long tons N d. 49,280 ft-long tons 5793: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the offset is 7%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.
N a. 6.5% N b. 5.0% Y c. 4.0% N d. 2.5% 5864: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0186
Y a. Available GM 4.1 ft N b. Available GM 4.3 ft N c. Available GM 4.7 ft N d. Available GM 5.1 ft 6101: What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling facilities?
N a. Fuel testing station N b. Foam testing station Y c. Foam fire protection system N d. Fire alarm 7381: One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is to __________.
N a. dump deck tanks into lower hulls N b. plug ballast tank vents N c. head into the waves Y d. increase tank free surface 7663: Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.
N a. BM Y b. GM N c. GZ N d. KG 7685: The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
N a. volume of liquid in the tank Y b. displacement of the MODU N c. location of the tank in the MODU N d. height of the center of gravity of the MODU 8184: What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?
Y a. Less fuel consumption per SHP N b. Diesel fuel costs less than bunker C or its equivalent N c. Less routine maintenance required N d. Less weight per SHP 8873: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new KGL?
N a. 54.76 feet N b. 55.76 feet N c. 57.22 feet Y d. 61.16 feet 9255: A low pressure annular preventer which is used to direct flow of kick fluids away from the rig floor is called a __________.
N a. dump valve N b. deflector N c. separator Y d. diverter 9435: For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.
Y a. waterline N b. freeboard deck N c. Plimsoll mark N d. amidships section