This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
3: To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.
N a. canopy N b. manropes N c. sea painter Y d. righting strap 317: Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the United States. You are required by regulations to __________.
N a. test the primary and secondary steering systems no more than 8 hours before entering Y b. correct the charts of the area to be transited using the Notice(s) to Mariners or foreign equivalent reasonably available N c. have a copy of Radio Navigational Aids N d. check the magnetic compass for the correct deviation 326: CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________.
N a. NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2 Y b. be automatically operated by a heat actuator N c. have an audible alarm N d. All of the above 356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to __________.
N a. the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 100 N b. one pound of CO2 per cubic foot of space N c. one pound of CO2 per square foot of deck area Y d. the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 30 658: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper. N b. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification. N c. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. Y d. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated. 802: A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.
N a. gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down Y b. pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher N c. air pressure from the hand pump attached to the extinguisher N d. pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical 803: The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.
N a. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast N b. more than 6 short blasts Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast N d. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds 851: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________.
N a. CO2 N b. dry chemical N c. water Y d. foam 937: On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?
N a. Carbon dioxide Y b. Water (stored pressure) N c. Dry chemical N d. Foam 970: During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. To correct the list, you should __________.
N a. shift weight to the high side N b. shift weight to the centerline Y c. add weight in the lower holds or double bottoms N d. remove weight from the lower holds or double bottoms 1157: When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.
N a. sour crude Y b. leaded gasoline N c. CO2 N d. chlorine 1348: Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?
N a. Burning oil N b. Electrical N c. Paint Y d. All of the above 1417: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.
N a. down by the head N b. down by the stern Y c. inclined due to off-center weight N d. inclined due to wind 1447: Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?
N a. The dry chemical is a conductor. Y b. The dry chemical leaves a residue. N c. CO2 will not dissipate in air. N d. It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area. 1477: A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST __________.
N a. stop the ventilation Y b. sound the general alarm N c. determine the source of the fire N d. attempt to extinguish the fire 1540: Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?
Y a. Fresh water may be obtained from fish. N b. Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking water is collected. N c. Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft. N d. Seawater should never be consumed. 1634: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
Y a. close all openings to the area N b. shut off all electrical power N c. remove combustibles from direct exposure N d. cool the bulkhead around the fire 1639: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?
N a. NONE N b. NURSE N c. MD Y d. DOCTOR 1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the __________. (D001SL )
N a. leech N b. clew Y c. luff N d. headboard 1915: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.
N a. apparent wind moves aft Y b. heeling moment increases N c. side slip decreases N d. mainsheet must be eased 1941: On offshore drilling units, boat drills must be conducted at least __________.
Y a. monthly N b. quarterly N c. daily N d. annually 2141: How often is a drill on the use of the line throwing appliance required to be held on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. Once a month N b. Once a year N c. Once a week Y d. Once every three months 2170: You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)
N a. 0.6 foot Y b. 0.5 foot N c. 0.4 foot N d. 0.3 foot 2470: According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The last digit "2" of the rating means __________.
N a. chemical vapors will cause a slight smarting of the eyes or respiratory system if present in high concentrations N b. the chemical contains fairly severe skin irritants, causing second- and third-degree burns after a few minutes contact Y c. the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm N d. the chemical is severely hazardous, usually having threshold limits below 10 ppm 2555: When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator must assure that __________.
N a. the personnel carrier remains directly over the vessel N b. all personnel are inside the net type carrier Y c. the personnel carrier remains directly over water N d. he does not swing the load until it is above the landing area 2633: A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.
N a. Minerals Management Service N b. Department of Energy N c. Corps of Engineers Y d. A recognized classification society approved by the Coast Guard 2675: The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.
N a. stiffener N b. beam Y c. stringer N d. doubler 2772: Tour vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-09", AFT 23'-07"; and the KG is 24.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 18° inclination.
Y a. 0.7 foot N b. 1.3 feet N c. 2.0 feet N d. 2.3 feet 2787: You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached?
N a. 60 feet N b. 70 feet N c. 80 feet Y d. 90 feet 2810: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 6° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-05". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.
N a. -1.0 foot N b. -0.6 foot Y c. -0.1 foot N d. -0.02 foot 2819: Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation)
N a. water of less than 20 feet in depth N b. where land is always in sight N c. no more than 5 miles Y d. about 30 minutes away from the dock 2909: Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________.
N a. if he can do so without any risk to his vessel N b. if he can do so without undue delay Y c. if he can do so without serious danger to his vessel or to individuals on board N d. without regard to any danger to his vessel 3145: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.
N a. C1P N b. 8P Y c. 1P N d. 2S 3258: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 24'-10"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)
N a. 1540 tons N b. 1590 tons Y c. 1645 tons N d. 1670 tons 3932: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
N a. Open the equipment pack. N b. Inflate the liferaft floor. N c. Decide on food and water rations. Y d. Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel. 4031: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?
N a. 5.66 feet N b. 7.37 feet Y c. 8.02 feet N d. 54.82 feet 4058: When the owner or Master inspects his/her towing vessel before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours, he/she must check all terminal gear EXCEPT ___________ .
N a. the connection of the bridle and towing pendant N b. chafing gear Y c. quick release towing hook and control system, to see that it operates properly N d. the winch brake, if installed 4077: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
N a. 1.06 feet Y b. 1.09 feet N c. 3.30 feet N d. 3.38 feet 4116: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations will you find the answer?
N a. Subchapter D N b. Subchapter G Y c. Subchapter T N d. Subchapter U 4170: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.
N a. yellow N b. red N c. green Y d. white 4275: The independent-leg drilling unit is the best jack-up rig selection for drilling at locations with __________.
N a. soft even bottoms Y b. firm uneven bottoms N c. deep water N d. shallow water 4597: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), 236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting starboard leg reaction?
N a. 4,281 kips N b. 5,382 kips Y c. 5,459 kips N d. 5,537 kips 4621: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the start/stop station for the bilge pumps is located __________.
N a. in the OIM's office N b. in the control house Y c. near the bilge pits N d. in the MCC 4786: Which number indicates the hydrostatic release? (D015SA )
N a. 3 Y b. 6 N c. 7 N d. 10 5075: What lighting characteristic is required of an obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf?
N a. Fixed N b. Flashing Y c. Quick-flashing N d. Occulting 5321: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. How much should the KGL be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?
N a. 23.04 feet Y b. 1.96 feet N c. 0.62 foot N d. 0.00 feet 5321: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. How much should the KGL be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?
N a. 23.04 feet Y b. 1.96 feet N c. 0.62 foot N d. 0.00 feet 5817: The two main types of load cells used in mooring tension gauges are __________.
Y a. distortion and compression N b. hydraulic and mechanical N c. magnetic and applied torque N d. frictionless and hydraulic 6105: The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.
Y a. burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas N b. loss of the mooring system N c. rotating and flying debris N d. heat damage to helicopter structure 6257: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should __________.
N a. tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current Y b. form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle N c. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance N d. form a raft by lashing their life preservers together 6495: A small fuel spillage has occurred during helicopter refueling. After the leak has been stopped and fire-control personnel have been notified and are standing by, the next step is to __________.
N a. proceed with fueling operation N b. have helicopter move to a safer location Y c. wash spilled fuel away with a flood of water N d. clean spilled fuel with rags 6505: A MODU helicopter landing deck on which fueling operations are conducted must have a fire protection system that is capable of discharging at 100 psi pressure a foam spray of at least __________.
N a. 30 gallons per minute N b. 40 gallons per minute Y c. 50 gallons per minute N d. 60 gallons per minute 7113: Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.
N a. used for electrical fires only Y b. the smallest N c. the most accessible N d. the most effective 7307: All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that __________.
Y a. only one person may talk at a time N b. only two persons may talk at the same time N c. the radio only transmits N d. the radio only receives 7337: If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.
N a. sea state N b. names of witnesses Y c. time of its occurrence N d. wind direction and velocity 7393: When a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming waterborne, the raft is released by __________.
N a. activating the release lock of the hook N b. pulling smartly on the knobbed cocking lanyard Y c. the effects of buoyancy removing the weight of the raft from the hook N d. releasing the boarding flap and the bowsing lines 8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters?
N a. Air, water, electric Y b. Air, hydraulic, electric N c. Metered, hydraulic, automatic N d. Air, emergency, hydraulic 8483: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?
N a. 8.0 feet N b. 9.0 feet Y c. 11.0 feet N d. 12.0 feet 8631: What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?
N a. 0.88 foot forward of amidships Y b. 0.85 foot forward of amidships N c. 0.82 foot forward of amidships N d. 0.79 foot forward of amidships 9341: Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?
N a. A only N b. B only N c. B and C only Y d. A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher