This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
63: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
N a. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. N b. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated. N c. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. Y d. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop. 488: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.
Y a. carotid artery in the neck N b. femoral artery in the groin N c. brachial artery in the arm N d. radial artery in the wrist 522: A spanner is a __________.
N a. cross connection line between two main fire lines Y b. special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line N c. tackle rigged to support a fire hose N d. None of the above 532: Fire hose should be washed with __________.
N a. salt water and a wire brush N b. caustic soap Y c. mild soap and fresh water N d. a holystone 621: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface because of an emergency on board is __________.
N a. white N b. green N c. yellow Y d. red 708: Removing which will extinguish a fire?
N a. Nitrogen N b. Carbon dioxide N c. Sodium Y d. Oxygen 733: Lifeboat hatchets should be __________.
N a. kept in a locker Y b. secured at each end of the boat with a lanyard N c. kept next to the boat coxswain N d. kept in the emergency locker on the ship and brought to the lifeboat when needed 813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
N a. abandon ship N b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations Y c. fire and emergency N d. man overboard 814: In the International Code of signals, a group of three letters indicates __________.
N a. urgency or an emergency N b. the vessel's national identity signal N c. a group from the general signal code Y d. a group from the medical signal code 1037: What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
N a. 50 meters N b. 25 meters Y c. 20 meters N d. 12 meters 1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
N a. before the gripes are released N b. before the boat is moved from the davits Y c. at the embarkation deck N d. after the boat is in the water 1111: On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________.
N a. to tap fuel for cleaning parts and engine wash down N b. for inspection purposes only N c. to bleed fuel lines Y d. under no circumstances in gasoline installations 1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1507: A thrust block is designed to __________.
N a. absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow N b. be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration N c. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller Y d. transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel 1509: You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?
N a. No wait is necessary, the reading occurs immediately. N b. At least 5 seconds Y c. At least 10 seconds N d. At least 20 seconds 1603: During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of __________.
N a. 150 millimeters of water pressure N b. 125 millimeters of water pressure Y c. 100 millimeters of water pressure N d. 75 millimeters of water pressure 1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.
Y a. one mast N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast 2087: The davit aboard a MODU is used to __________.
N a. lower personnel down by a transfer basket N b. lower food and water to personnel in a liferaft Y c. lower the liferaft down with its full complement N d. move equipment around the deck 2105: If a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should __________.
N a. inflate the liferaft on deck Y b. roll the liferaft over the side N c. go to another liferaft station N d. get a saw and cut the liferaft free 2318: A vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is pumped 116 feet forward.
N a. FWD 19'-04", AFT 23'-06" Y b. FWD 19'-07", AFT 23'-04" N c. FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-01" N d. FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-06" 2355: What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?
N a. ITU Publications Y b. The manufacturers instruction manuals N c. Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations N d. Code of Federal Regulations, Title 47, Part 80, Subpart W` 2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.
N a. daily testing Y b. either A or C N c. operational use of the equipment N d. testing at least every 48 hours 2406: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 22'-10", AFT 23'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 875 tons 6 feet aft of amidships N b. 950 tons 8 feet forward of the tipping center Y c. 1323 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center N d. 1452 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center 2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products?
N a. American Bureau of Shipping N b. National Cargo Bureau Y c. Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard N d. Vessel owner 2854: The sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-08", AFT 15'-06" and the GM is 4.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 40° inclination.
N a. 3.3 feet N b. 3.7 feet Y c. 4.3 feet N d. 5.4 feet 2865: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
N a. It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts. N b. It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline. N c. It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel. Y d. The correction decreases as the draft increases 2983: The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the __________.
Y a. draft and beam of the drilling unit N b. displacement and deadweight of the drilling unit N c. buoyancy and trim of the drilling unit N d. tonnage and deadweight of the drilling unit 3098: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN).
N a. 460 tons per hatch N b. 520 tons per hatch Y c. 690 tons per hatch N d. 730 tons per hatch 3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.
N a. FSCL N b. KG Y c. KGL N d. GML 3133: The stability which exists after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called __________.
N a. intact stability N b. initial stability N c. immersion stability Y d. damage stability 3214: What does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Size of the applicator N b. Size of the nozzle N c. Size of the extinguisher Y d. Class of fire that the extinguisher should be used on 3261: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. What is the change in KG?
N a. 1.32 feet downward N b. 1.32 feet upward N c. 0.89 foot downward Y d. 0.89 foot upward 3272: Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
N a. In the forepeak N b. In the wheelhouse Y c. Throughout the accommodation spaces N d. In locked watertight and fireproof containers on or above the main deck 3315: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0122
N a. 271.2 ft Y b. 291.0 ft N c. 288.8 N d. 305.3 ft 3472: If you find an inflatable liferaft container with the steel bands still in place around its case, you should __________.
N a. tell the Master Y b. leave the bands in place N c. tell the Mate N d. remove the bands yourself 3585: When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach with the wind __________.
N a. astern and the victim just off the bow N b. ahead and the victim just off the bow N c. just off the bow and the victim to windward Y d. just off the bow and the victim to leeward 3628: Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.
N a. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks N b. must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use N c. is a devise that transmits a radio signal Y d. All of the above 3715: The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's __________.
N a. vomiting Y b. blue color and lack of breathing N c. irregular breathing N d. unconscious condition 3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.
N a. administer oxygen Y b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR N c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk N d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary 3796: Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?
N a. Ration food and water supplies Y b. Search for survivors N c. Determine position and closest point of land N d. Check pyrotechnic supplies 3935: To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using the #2 bilge pump, open port-side valve __________.
N a. 28 N b. 36 N c. 41 Y d. 42 3977: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal free surface correction?
N a. 1.63 feet N b. 1.65 feet Y c. 1.67 feet N d. 1.69 feet 4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?
N a. "P" N b. "C" Y c. "H" N d. "Z" 4159: A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine __________.
Y a. will be coming to periscope depth N b. will be coming to the surface N c. is on the bottom in distress N d. is in distress and will try to surface 4194: You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You may load to the tropical mark plus 1 inch brackish water allowance. Y b. You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone. N c. Your draft must not exceed the winter mark plus the fresh water allowance upon arrival off the discharge port. N d. You may only load to the winter mark plus a brackish water allowance of 4 inches. 4226: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
N a. 85 inches Y b. 90 inches N c. 92 inches N d. 94 inches 4797: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new TCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?
Y a. -0.23 foot N b. 0.00 foot N c. 0.23 foot N d. 0.54 foot 5155: A MODU displacing 10,000 long tons with KG 20.0 feet, uses its crane to lift a 40 long ton load from dockside and place it on board at a VCG of 5.0 feet. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50.0 feet above the keel. During the lift, what is the apparent increase in KG?
N a. 0.02 foot N b. 0.12 foot N c. 0.18 foot Y d. 0.20 foot 5506: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 13'-05", AFT 21'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 88 tons of seawater.
N a. FWD 14'-01.8", AFT 20'-09.3" Y b. FWD 14'-02.4", AFT 20'-08.7" N c. FWD 14'-03.0", AFT 20'-08.1" N d. FWD 14'-03.6", AFT 20'-07.5" 5595: An anchor winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.
N a. half the breaking strength of the mooring line Y b. the full breaking strength of the mooring line N c. the maximum expected tension of the mooring line N d. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line 5627: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the weather lines should be adjusted so that several lines carry about the same tension, and the leeward lines are __________.
N a. tensioned to reduce weather mooring line tensions Y b. paid out to reduce weather mooring line tensions N c. adjusted so that at least 1,000 feet of chain lie along the bottom N d. adjusted so that the vertical component of chain tension at the lower fairlead is not excessive 6067: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must discharge at least 85 percent of the required amount of CO2 within __________.
N a. 1 minute Y b. 2 minutes N c. 3 minutes N d. 4 minutes 6073: Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________.
Y a. 20 seconds N b. 30 seconds N c. 40 seconds N d. 60 seconds 7128: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.
Y a. 20 seconds N b. 40 seconds N c. one minute N d. two minutes 7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
N a. water depth N b. keel N c. center of flotation Y d. center of buoyancy 7595: For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives the __________.
Y a. righting moment N b. vertical moment N c. longitudinal moment N d. transverse moment 8153: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet and a total vertical moment of 1,012,598 foot-tons, pumps 2,068.7 long tons of ballast overboard. The VCG of the discharged ballast is 15.0 feet. What is the new height of the center of gravity?
N a. 50.62 feet N b. 55.89 feet N c. 60.56 feet Y d. 61.16 feet 8685: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board. What is the new draft?
N a. 56 feet N b. 58 feet Y c. 60 feet N d. 62 feet 8688: Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. a sea anchor N b. a signal mirror N c. an EPIRB Y d. paddles 8735: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of FSML for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank #5P are transferred to Tank #5S?
N a. 3,645 ft-tons N b. 3,328 ft-tons Y c. 317 ft-tons N d. 0 ft-tons