This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
43: If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.
N a. filling the stabilizers on one side with water N b. releasing the CO2 cylinder N c. pushing up from under one end Y d. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft 259: What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
N a. Width of the tank N b. Length of the tank Y c. Registered tonnage N d. Specific gravity of the liquid in the tank 661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________.
N a. day N b. week Y c. month N d. 3 months 935: If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate?
N a. The plane is in distress and will have to ditch. N b. The plane is going to drop a package and wishes the vessel to recover it. Y c. Someone is in distress in that direction and the vessel should follow and assist. N d. There is danger ahead and the best course is indicated by the direction of the aircraft. 990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.
Y a. negative GM N b. off-center weight N c. pocketing of free surface N d. excessive freeboard 1016: What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?
N a. 1 and 1/2 years N b. 2 years Y c. 3 and 1/2 years N d. 5 years 1228: When approaching a fire from leeward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.
N a. low-velocity fog Y b. high-velocity fog N c. a straight stream of water N d. foam spray 1346: The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should __________.
Y a. go into place as the raft is inflated N b. be put up after everyone is aboard N c. be put up only in severe weather N d. be used as a sail if the wind is blowing 1495: A weight of 350 tons is loaded on your vessel 85 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1150 foot-tons. What is the total change of trim?
N a. 12.93 inches N b. 23.75 inches Y c. 25.87 inches N d. 38.50 inches 1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?
N a. 1.96 feet Y b. 2.24 feet N c. 2.45 feet N d. 2.68 feet 1913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 8'-04", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0047
Y a. 1.77 feet N b. 1.91 feet N c. 2.09 feet N d. 2.21 feet 2002: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See the trim and stability letter for M.V. Hudson, illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )
Y a. 90 tons N b. 140 tons N c. 155 tons N d. 240 tons 2089: On a vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present shall NOT be segregated from cargo tanks by __________. (vessel constructed after 1970)
N a. cofferdams Y b. galleys N c. pump rooms N d. tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150°F or above 2109: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.
Y a. change course and put the stern to the wind N b. remain on course and hold speed N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed N d. remain on course but slack the speed 2296: Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________.
N a. cofferdams Y b. gastight bulkheads N c. passageways or living quarters N d. general cargo spaces 2327: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower?
N a. 5 N b. 4 N c. 3 Y d. 2 2378: A vessel's drafts are FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 142 tons are discharged 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 321 tons are loaded 82 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 74 tons are discharged 62 feet aft of amidships.
N a. FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-00" N b. FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-02" N c. FWD 23'-07", AFT 24'-03" Y d. FWD 23'-09", AFT 24'-05" 2569: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 4,176 foot-tons Y b. 5,196 foot-tons N c. 7,076 foot-tons N d. 9,003 foot-tons 2595: How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity?
Y a. A unique radar signal consisting of a blip code radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing N b. A unique two tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70 N c. A unique two tone alarm signal heard upon the automatic unmuting of the 2182 kHz radiotelephone automatic watch receiver N d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on the SART 2640: What is NOT a grade E product?
N a. Dioctyl-phthalate Y b. Gasoline N c. Formic acid N d. Creosote coal tar 2706: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline.
Y a. 15° N b. 18° N c. 21° N d. 24° 2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________.
N a. sweep flames away with water spray Y b. shut off the leak N c. use a chemical foam fire extinguisher N d. call the local fire department 2773: The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be stowed in __________.
N a. the Master's quarters N b. the ship's office Y c. the radio room, bridge, or protected location N d. an unlocked cabinet next to the Muster List ("Station Bill") 2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline.
Y a. 0.0 feet N b. 0.5 foot N c. 1.2 feet N d. 1.7 feet 2868: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-06", AFT 17'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0085
N a. 0.52 foot N b. 0.70 foot Y c. 0.84 foot N d. 1.10 feet 2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
N a. positive N b. negative Y c. zero N d. vertical 2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
N a. be tender N b. have a slow and easy motion Y c. be stiff N d. have a tendency to yaw 3080: When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required?
N a. The supervisor in charge of the dock to which the barge is tied up N b. Part 38 of the Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels Y c. The Certificate of Inspection of the barge N d. The local fire marshal 3385: A jack-up, 180 feet in length, has the center of flotation at 110 feet aft of frame zero. The draft at the bow is 11.0 feet and the draft at the stern is 13.0 feet. What is the true mean draft?
N a. 11.78 feet N b. 12.00 feet Y c. 12.22 feet N d. 12.78 feet 3386: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
N a. Advise the sender of your course, speed, position, and ETA at the distress site. N b. Resume base course and speed because the distress is terminated. N c. Shift your radio guard to the working frequency that will be indicated in the message. Y d. Use that frequency only for restricted working communications. 3459: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs.
N a. 155 tons each Y b. 170 tons each N c. 190 tons each N d. 200 tons each 3485: In the event the motion of the DEEP DRILLER is such that critical motion limits are exceeded, you should __________.
N a. place the unit at 65 foot draft Y b. place the unit at 45 foot draft N c. shift loads to increase KG N d. place the unit in standby 3573: The DEEP DRILLER in transit is level at 23.0 feet draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determines that the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. What is the value of the wind heeling moment?
N a. 4,339 foot-long tons Y b. 26,033 foot-long tons N c. 39,050 foot-long tons N d. 78,099 foot-long tons 3642: When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?
N a. Out Y b. Over N c. Roger N d. Wilco 3694: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.
N a. monitor blood pressure Y b. clear airways N c. use the rhythmic pressure method N d. know all approved methods 3742: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.
Y a. carotid artery in the neck N b. femoral artery in the groin N c. brachial artery in the arm N d. radial artery in the wrist 3759: Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.
N a. stomach N b. lower intestines Y c. inner ear N d. bladder 3831: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.
N a. 24 Port N b. 33 Port Y c. 34 Port N d. 44 Port 3840: The painter of the inflatable liferaft has a length of __________.
N a. 25 feet Y b. 100 feet N c. 200 feet N d. 400 feet 4136: If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can be initially and best maintained by using the __________.
N a. trick wheel N b. accumulator Y c. standby pump N d. telemotor 4167: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?
Y a. 11.26 feet N b. 10.07 feet N c. 9.67 feet N d. 8.30 feet 4212: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.021, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
N a. 76 inches N b. 74 inches N c. 73 inches Y d. 72 inches 4266: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. N c. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure to flame and burning. N d. The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship. 4383: In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of elevating the unit with a loading of __________.
N a. 14,158 kips N b. 14,400 kips Y c. 17,280 kips N d. 21,297 kips 4814: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.
N a. 19'-00" N b. 18'-07" N c. 18'-04" Y d. 18'-01" 5063: What signal must be sounded by a vessel towing a mobile offshore drilling unit through an area of restricted visibility?
N a. Two prolonged blasts N b. Five or more short blasts Y c. One prolonged and two short blasts N d. One prolonged and three short blasts 5617: Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________.
N a. lessening the effect of environmental forces Y b. even and symmetrical variable loading N c. local concentration of heavy consumables N d. increasing the metacentric height 6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. Once a week N b. Once a month Y c. Once a year N d. During each drill 6102: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0191
N a. LCG-FP 271.79 feet Y b. LCG-FP 272.87 feet N c. LCG-FP 274.04 feet N d. LCG-FP 275.13 feet 6233: When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.
Y a. maximum possible area N b. minimum possible area N c. nearest watertight door N d. nearest longitudinal girder 6273: During a storm, the chance of fatigue failure of a mooring line will increase as __________.
Y a. vessel motions increase N b. mooring tensions decrease N c. KG increases N d. KG decreases 6423: The most accurate method for measuring drilling mud required to fill the hole when drill stem is removed is by use of a __________.
N a. pit level change N b. pump stroke count Y c. trip tank N d. mud return flow indicator 6646: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.
N a. closing the compartment except for the ventilators N b. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers N c. leaving the compartment open to the air Y d. completely closing the compartment 8118: Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?
N a. Electric starting motors N b. Hydraulics Y c. Compressed air N d. Ether 8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
Y a. 10P N b. 9P N c. 10S N d. 1P 8773: The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.
Y a. all emergency signals N b. instructions for lowering the survival craft N c. the time each weekly drill will be held N d. work schedule 8927: On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to __________.
N a. 1000 kips Y b. 875 kips N c. 750 kips N d. 450 kips 9195: When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________.
N a. passed around so all can drink Y b. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy N c. saved to be used at a later time N d. used to boil food 9331: Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.
N a. stored safely at the work site until work is completed Y b. returned to the paint locker after each use N c. covered at all times to protect from ignition sources N d. stored in a suitable gear locker 9451: Initial stability is indicated by __________.
Y a. GM N b. KM N c. Deck load N d. Maximum allowed KG