USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.


55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.


92: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?


94: If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, you would send __________.

    N a. PB
    Y b. PD1
    N c. MJ
    N d. LN1

761: Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

    Y a. Oxygen
    N b. Carbon dioxide
    N c. Sodium
    N d. Nitrogen

768: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

    N a. It is heavier than air.
    N b. It is non-conductive.
    N c. It is used on class B and C fires.
    Y d. All of the above are true.

816: You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks?

    N a. 0%
    Y b. 5%
    N c. 8%
    N d. 11%

910: When using a stabilogauge, unless the density correction is applied, the center of gravity of a loaded compartment is assumed to be located __________.

    N a. on the deck of the compartment
    N b. at one-third the height of the compartment
    Y c. at the geometric center of the compartment
    N d. at one-half the height of the compartment

988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?

    Y a. Carbon dioxide
    N b. Water (stored pressure)
    N c. Foam
    N d. Carbon tetrachloride

1105: In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?

    N a. Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position
    N b. As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head
    N c. After the limit switch is activated
    Y d. After all people have been embarked

1177: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0030

    N a. 1.20 feet
    N b. 1.64 feet
    Y c. 2.26 feet
    N d. 3.00 feet

1257: Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?

    N a. 3 nm
    N b. 6 nm
    Y c. 12 nm
    N d. 25 nm

1434: Halon fire extinguishers are NOT effective when used on which types of fires?

    N a. Fires in electrical equipment
    N b. Flammable oils and greases
    N c. Class "A" fires in ordinary combustibles
    Y d. Materials containing their own oxygen

1437: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D007SA )

    Y a. F
    N b. G
    N c. J
    N d. K

1462: When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________.

    N a. absorb the oil for easy removal
    N b. dissolve the oil in the water
    Y c. facilitate the removal of the pollutant from the water
    N d. sink the oil

1592: A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. The reduction in GM due to free surface effect is __________.

    Y a. .27 foot
    N b. .30 foot
    N c. .31 foot
    N d. .33 foot

1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

    N a. Conducts electricity
    N b. Difficult to store
    N c. Large volume necessary to be effective
    Y d. Ineffective in powdered metal fires

1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.

    N a. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks
    N b. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks
    N c. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
    Y d. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion

2025: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged on a 15 meter sail vessel. Which statement is TRUE?

    Y a. This condition is indicated by a conical shape, apex downwards.
    N b. You should maintain course and speed when approaching a power-driven vessel.
    N c. You must display two green lights in a vertical line at or near the masthead.
    N d. You are considered a sailing vessel as long as sail propulsion affects the vessel's maneuverability.

2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    N a. 14.8 tons
    N b. 18.0 tons
    Y c. 25.0 tons
    N d. 32.0 tons

2200: To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is __________.

    Y a. 0.71 foot
    N b. 0.95 foot
    N c. 1.26 feet
    N d. 2.01 feet

2230: To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

    N a. 0.21 foot
    N b. 0.43 foot
    Y c. 0.88 foot
    N d. 1.02 feet

2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

    N a. 7 psia and a flash point of 80°F
    Y b. more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72°F
    N c. 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95°F
    N d. above 14 psia

2273: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.

    N a. pass out food and water to personnel
    N b. open the doors and start the sprinkler system
    N c. activate the emergency release handle
    Y d. open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding

2441: A set of clamps that are latched onto the drill pipe to allow the driller to raise or lower the drill string out of or into the hole are the __________.

    N a. lifts
    N b. collars
    Y c. elevators
    N d. clamps

2652: Which vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. 99 GT towing vessel on Inland Waters
    N b. 199 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
    N c. 299 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
    Y d. 199 GT towing vessel on an international voyage

2664: Gasoline fumes tend to __________.

    Y a. settle near the bottom of the bilge
    N b. settle near the top of the bilge
    N c. settle evenly throughout all levels of the bilge by mixing with air
    N d. disperse to atmosphere

2708: Upon release to the atmosphere, LFG readily __________.

    Y a. vaporizes
    N b. attacks caustically
    N c. rises
    N d. attacks corrosively

2715: The certificate of inspection of a MODU will specify the __________.

    Y a. number of licensed personnel required on board
    N b. maximum load line draft
    N c. maximum water depth for drilling
    N d. next date for an inclining experiment

2815: A vessel heading WNW is on a course of __________.

    N a. 270.0°
    Y b. 292.5°
    N c. 315.0°
    N d. 337.5°

2880: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1150 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.0 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    Y a. 1.8 feet
    N b. 2.4 feet
    N c. 2.8 feet
    N d. 3.1 feet

2909: Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________.

    N a. if he can do so without any risk to his vessel
    N b. if he can do so without undue delay
    Y c. if he can do so without serious danger to his vessel or to individuals on board
    N d. without regard to any danger to his vessel

2989: When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. Loss of life
    N b. Major damage affecting the seaworthiness of a vessel
    Y c. Damage amounting to $2,000
    N d. Injury to a person which requires medical treatment beyond first aid

3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

    N a. volume of liquid in the tank
    Y b. volume of displacement of the vessel
    N c. location of the tank in the vessel
    N d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel

3055: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?

    N a. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
    Y b. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water.
    N c. Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
    N d. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used.

3101: Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.

    N a. FSCT
    N b. KG
    Y c. KGT
    N d. GMT

3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.

    N a. stabilize at an angle of loll
    Y b. decrease
    N c. increase
    N d. remain constant

3131: Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.

    N a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots
    N b. before collision
    Y c. after flooding
    N d. at survival draft

3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. 1/2 inch high
    N b. 1 inch high
    Y c. Height not specified
    N d. 1-1/2 inches high

3168: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6080 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0111

    N a. LCG-FP 270.8 feet
    N b. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    N c. LCG-FP 267.6 feet
    Y d. LCG-FP 266.7 feet

3286: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0119

    N a. 270.6 ft
    N b. 261.2 ft
    Y c. 250.5 ft
    N d. 246.8 ft

3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.

    N a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire
    Y b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system
    N c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system
    N d. use high-expansion foam

3520: How should the number "5" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    N a. FIVE-ER
    N b. NEW-MARL-FIVE
    N c. NUM-ERL-FIVE
    Y d. PAN-TAH-FIVE

3590: The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n) __________.

    N a. nightstick
    Y b. flashlight
    N c. passenger list showing assigned berths
    N d. A-I fire extinguisher

3664: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101.6 tons of seawater.

    N a. FWD 29'-04.5", AFT 30'-07.5"
    N b. FWD 29'-07.6", AFT 30'-05.0"
    N c. FWD 29'-04.5", AFT 30'-10.0"
    Y d. FWD 30'-00.8", AFT 30'-01.0"

3691: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

    N a. the failure of mooring lines 5 and 6
    N b. the drilling crew dumping the mud
    N c. the drill string breaking
    Y d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1P

4000: On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________.

    N a. bailer
    N b. sponge
    N c. whistle
    Y d. fishing kit

4127: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?

    N a. 0.45 foot
    Y b. -0.45 foot
    N c. -1.78 feet
    N d. -2.68 feet

4281: The maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER in normal transit at a draft of 10.5 feet is __________.

    N a. 40 feet
    N b. 45 feet
    N c. 55 feet
    Y d. 65 feet

4501: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.0 feet. It loads 216.43 kips of weight aboard. What is the new draft?

    N a. 10.2 feet
    Y b. 10 feet 2 inches
    N c. 10 feet 3 inches
    N d. 10 feet 4 inches

4521: While in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet, the COASTAL DRILLER has a KGT of 60.0 feet. What is the GMT?

    N a. 139.92 feet
    N b. 138.89 feet
    N c. 79.92 feet
    Y d. 78.89 feet

4673: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    N a. 48.41 feet
    N b. 49.16 feet
    Y c. 50.79 feet
    N d. 51.40 feet

4723: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?

    N a. 2.02 degrees by the stern
    N b. 1.51 degrees by the stern
    N c. 0.98 degrees by the stern
    Y d. 0.61 degrees by the stern

5907: The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.

    Y a. person in charge
    N b. Coast Guard marine inspection officer
    N c. company safety director
    N d. entire crew

6084: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    Y a. 1050 foot-tons
    N b. 1065 foot-tons
    N c. 1090 foot-tons
    N d. 1130 foot-tons

6594: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2500 brake horsepower?

    N a. 2
    Y b. 3
    N c. 4
    N d. 5

6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.

    Y a. the name of the person conducting the test
    N b. the weight of the charge
    N c. recommendations for the next test
    N d. All of the above

7591: Stability is determined principally by the location of the center of gravity and the __________.

    N a. aft perpendicular
    Y b. center of buoyancy
    N c. keel
    N d. center of flotation

8317: The minimum concentration of H2S which can cause death if a person is exposed for even an instant is __________.

    N a. 200 ppm
    N b. 400 ppm
    N c. 600 ppm
    Y d. 1000 ppm

8716: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

    Y a. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.
    N b. They are to be kept closed at all times.
    N c. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.
    N d. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire.