This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
64: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0001
N a. 338 tons N b. 309 tons N c. 281 tons Y d. 263 tons 129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
N a. a righting line N b. red hand flares Y c. pendants N d. drinking water 298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?
Y a. Slow, deep breathing N b. Pale, cold skin N c. Weak, rapid pulse N d. Restlessness and anxiety 313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be __________.
N a. stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted N b. used as seats, pillows, or foot rests N c. left on open decks Y d. All of the above 348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.
N a. Minor burn N b. Superficial burn N c. Extremity burn Y d. First-degree burn 517: The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.
Y a. 156.8 MHz (channel 16) N b. 156.7 MHz (channel 14) N c. 156.65 MHz (channel 13) N d. 156.6 MHz (channel 12) 608: A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________.
N a. cooling the gas below the ignition point N b. cutting off the supply of oxygen Y c. stopping the flow of gas N d. interrupting the chain reaction 617: For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry __________.
N a. A radiotelephone Y b. Three hand red flare distress signals, and three hand orange smoke distress signals N c. A "Very" pistol and flare kit N d. An approved noise-making device 656: The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.
N a. a safe speed only specified N b. not less than 120 feet per minute Y c. not more than 120 feet per minute N d. not more than 90 feet per minute 690: Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the __________.
N a. domestics N b. settlers N c. deeps Y d. peaks 713: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent __________.
N a. the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated accidentally N b. operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne N c. the falls from rehooking after they have been released Y d. accidental unhooking when the falls become slack 781: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
N a. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track. N b. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped. Y c. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. N d. It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and reacting with a chemical therein. 1188: The most effective way to apply a foam stream if the fire is on deck or is a running fire, is to direct the stream __________.
N a. onto the surface of the burning liquid Y b. ahead of the burning liquid and bounce it on the fire N c. at the base of the burning liquid in a sweeping motion N d. just above the surface of the burning liquid 1262: Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?
N a. Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) N b. Water (cartridge-operated) N c. Water (pump tank) Y d. Carbon dioxide 1471: What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned?
Y a. Immersion suit N b. Buoyant apparatus N c. Ring buoy N d. Life float 1615: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.
N a. monitor blood pressure Y b. clear airways N c. use the rhythmic pressure method N d. know all approved methods 1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________.
N a. use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to get the strain properly aligned N b. avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth Y c. be sure to orient the weave of the patch material, on large patches, in the same orientation as the sail cloth being repaired N d. All of the above 1898: Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 18'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 15.4 tons)
Y a. 0.66 foot N b. 1.12 feet N c. 1.37 feet N d. 1.58 feet 1950: The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be __________.
N a. inspected weekly N b. stowed in locked compartments Y c. readily accessible N d. tested yearly 2064: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail and overtaking a tug and tow. Which action is correct?
N a. The power-driven tug must maneuver to avoid collision. Y b. You must maneuver to avoid the tug and tow. N c. You must maneuver to avoid collision only if the tug is to leeward and the wind is on your port side. N d. Both vessels are required to maneuver to avoid collision. 2124: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02", AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?
Y a. 73° N b. 79° N c. 87° N d. 98° 2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
N a. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance. N b. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore. Y c. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system. N d. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant. 2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?
Y a. On a ketch, you will most likely strike the jib before making your final approach. N b. On a yawl, the last sail you will strike after you have picked up the mooring will normally be the mainsail. N c. On a sloop, if your initial approach is to be downwind you could slow your approach by striking the jib and letting your main sheet out as far as it will go. N d. All of the above are correct. 2559: What is NOT a grade B flammable liquid?
N a. tert-Butylamine N b. Allyl chloride Y c. Ethyl chloride N d. Carbon disulfide 2748: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.
Y a. passengers are strapped to their seats N b. fuel tanks are not less than half full N c. sea anchor is deployed to windward N d. lower ballast tanks are filled with water 3089: What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge?
N a. Enforcement of smoking restrictions N b. Restricting vessels from coming alongside the barge Y c. Insuring that a combustible gas indicator is aboard N d. Protecting cargo hose with chafing gear 3195: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0113
N a. FWD 18'-05", AFT 21'-05" N b. FWD 18'-00", AFT 21'-10" N c. FWD 18'-06", AFT 22'-01" Y d. FWD 17'-10", AFT 22'-00" 3259: Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?
N a. To keep visitors away from the barge N b. To prohibit smoking N c. To prohibit open lights Y d. All of the above 3303: Your fireman's outfit includes a(n) __________.
N a. chemical protection face shield N b. approved work vest Y c. self-contained breathing apparatus N d. marlinspike 3324: How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free?
N a. With gooseneck vents N b. With warning signs Y c. With flame screens N d. With pressure-vacuum relief valves 3336: Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?
Y a. They are heavier than air and will settle in the lowest part of the vessel. N b. They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel. N c. They should be vented into the engine to improve combustion. N d. They should be vented into the wheelhouse. 3425: What is the trim of a jack-up with a forward draft of 12 feet and an after draft of 13 feet?
N a. 0.5 foot by the stern Y b. 1.0 foot by the stern N c. 2.0 feet by the stern N d. 0.5 feet by the head 3466: A sea anchor is __________.
N a. a heavy metal anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in deep water Y b. a cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect N c. a pad eye to which the sea painter is made fast N d. made of wood if it is of an approved type 3521: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.
N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons N b. eight anchor buoys N c. lower-hull fuel Y d. loading hoses 3545: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and center of gravity locations for the changes to lightweight shown in the permanent record for the Deep Driller are treated as __________.
Y a. variable load N b. fixed load N c. basic load N d. gross tonnage 3579: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs.
N a. 1150 tons each N b. 1180 tons each Y c. 1220 tons each N d. 1250 tons each 3644: When should distress flares and rockets be used?
N a. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel Y b. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by a rescue vessel N c. At one hour intervals N d. At half hour intervals 3789: The signal for a fire emergency on an OSV is __________.
N a. a 30 second on 30 second off alternating signal Y b. the continuous blast of the ships whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds N c. an intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than ten seconds N d. announced over the PA system 3877: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.
N a. 8 N b. 19 N c. 20 Y d. 48 3903: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is __________.
N a. 33 N b. 36 Y c. 46 N d. 48 3912: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.
N a. protect your life preserver by holding it above your head Y b. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel N c. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first N d. wear very light clothing 3946: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.
N a. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct Y b. the heat of a fire melting the link N c. electrical controls on the bridge N d. a break-glass and pull-cable system 4076: In the illustration shown, the equipment bags are indicated by item number __________. (D014SA )
N a. 12 N b. 15 N c. 17 Y d. 19 4083: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
N a. 67.04 feet N b. 68.02 feet N c. 68.72 feet Y d. 69.21 feet 4200: A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)
N a. 27' 07.5" N b. 27' 08.5" N c. 28' 03.5" Y d. 28' 04.5" 4256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 30'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 110.8 tons of seawater.
N a. FWD 28'-08.2", AFT 29'-11.6" N b. FWD 28'-09.0", AFT 29' 11.0" Y c. FWD 28'-09.8", AFT 29' 10.4" N d. FWD 28'-10.6", AFT 29' 09.8" 4362: The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a vessel increase with the __________.
Y a. surface area of the fluid in the tank N b. displacement volume of the vessel N c. draft of the vessel N d. height of the tank above the keel 4401: Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.
N a. the hull being in the storm wave zone Y b. increased overturning moments N c. reduced exposed area N d. increased static leg loading 5447: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 3 or 4 Y b. failure of mooring lines 7 or 8 N c. leak in ballast tank #2S N d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S 5473: Where do fatigue failures of wire rope mooring lines usually occur?
N a. In the middle part of the line length Y b. Near the socketed end fitting adjacent to the anchor N c. At the point where the line touches the bottom N d. At the place the anchor buoy is attached to the line 5741: A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an anchor handling vessel is __________.
Y a. pelican hook N b. connecting link N c. shackle N d. retaining hook 6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.
N a. conduct a fire drill N b. conduct a boat drill Y c. log the fore and aft draft marks N d. test the emergency generator 6871: Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made?
Y a. Every 3 months N b. Every 6 months N c. Every year N d. Only after conducting a boat drill 7367: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP DRILLER while on location is __________.
N a. consumption of on board variables N b. miscalculation of loads N c. external environmental forces Y d. flooding due to column damage 7373: When a semisubmersible rig under tow experiences pounding on the forward transverse brace, the surest way to alleviate the condition would be to __________.
N a. adjust the length of the tow line N b. have the tug slow down Y c. ballast down N d. change course 8895: The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by the __________.
Y a. U.S. Coast Guard N b. Minerals Management Service N c. Department of Energy N d. Corps of Engineers 8913: In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline that used principally for __________.
N a. equipment storage N b. machinery N c. elevators Y d. reserve buoyancy 9113: After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be __________.
N a. put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains N b. repainted N c. discarded Y d. recharged 9185: The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________.
N a. only after two hours in the water N b. only after four hours in the water N c. before entry into the water Y d. upon entry into the water 9303: When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.
N a. increase Y b. decrease N c. are directly proportional N d. remain unchanged