This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
N a. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth N b. keeping the head elevated Y c. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth N d. holding the jaw down firmly 163: You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________.
N a. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed Y b. hypothermia caused by cold temperature N c. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures N d. starvation 304: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute?
Y a. F2131 N b. F2132 N c. F213213 N d. F213F213 612: The service life of distress signals must be not more than __________.
Y a. forty two months from the date of manufacture N b. thirty six months from the date of the last inspection N c. twenty four months from the date of approval N d. twelve months from the date of purchase 662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.
N a. cooling N b. chemical action Y c. smothering N d. inerting the air 684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is __________.
N a. 2132 kilohertz Y b. 2182 kilohertz N c. 2670 kilohertz N d. 2750 kilohertz 844: If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
N a. MPO Y b. MPR N c. MPK N d. MPJ 982: In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher is limited to __________.
N a. 2 to 4 feet Y b. 3 to 8 feet N c. 9 to 12 feet N d. 10 to 15 feet 1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.
N a. keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly N b. prevent voltage fluctuations Y c. keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated N d. make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the fuses blow 1219: 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________.
N a. only be used in non-vital systems N b. not be used in gasoline or diesel fuel systems N c. have approved metallic fittings and cutoff valves where it penetrates a watertight deck or bulkhead Y d. All of the above 1636: How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?
N a. 54.3N N b. 0543N Y c. 5419N N d. 54°N 1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.
Y a. a weather deck N b. the main deck N c. the control house N d. the escape capsules 1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50° on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. If you slack the mizzen sheet, the center of effort will move aft. N b. If you slack the main sheet, the lift to drag ratio of the mainsail will increase. N c. If you sheet in the mainsail without changing course, the vessel will heel farther and speed up. Y d. If you strike the mainsail, the center of effort of the whole rig will move down. 1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the __________. (D001SL )
N a. leech N b. clew Y c. luff N d. headboard 1900: The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries is best prevented by __________.
N a. covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure N b. mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible Y c. natural or mechanical ventilation N d. securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting brackets 1933: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.
N a. within 12 hours of departure N b. within 24 hours of departure Y c. within a few hours before or after departure N d. prior to departure 2017: A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of __________.
N a. all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application N b. any barge or ship constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard Y c. an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above, or other ship of 400 gross tons and above N d. an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above 2017: A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of __________.
N a. all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application N b. any barge or ship constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard Y c. an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above, or other ship of 400 gross tons and above N d. an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above 2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
N a. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable INMARSAT unit. N b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. Y c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them to the survival craft. N d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. 2075: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 28'-06", AFT 29'-10". The KG is 27.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
N a. 3.7° N b. 4.4° Y c. 5.0° N d. 6.5° 2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. 14.8 tons N b. 18.0 tons Y c. 25.0 tons N d. 32.0 tons 2165: A schooner is a fore-and-aft rigged vessel with __________.
N a. a single mast N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post Y d. at least two masts: a foremast and a mainmast 2466: According to regulations, access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo shall be __________.
N a. from areas equipped with power ventilation N b. only from enclosed areas free from sources of vapor ignition Y c. from the open deck N d. from within the vessel 2664: Gasoline fumes tend to __________.
Y a. settle near the bottom of the bilge N b. settle near the top of the bilge N c. settle evenly throughout all levels of the bilge by mixing with air N d. disperse to atmosphere 2800: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 8° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.
N a. 0.0 foot Y b. -0.2 foot N c. -0.8 foot N d. -1.0 foot 2913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-09.5", AFT 22'-09.5". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0087
N a. FWD 21'-06.3", AFT 22'-06.6" Y b. FWD 21'-11.3", AFT 23'-01.8" N c. FWD 22'-06.6", AFT 21'-06.9" N d. FWD 23'-00.2", AFT 22'-00.4" 2989: When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Loss of life N b. Major damage affecting the seaworthiness of a vessel Y c. Damage amounting to $2,000 N d. Injury to a person which requires medical treatment beyond first aid 3088: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.
Y a. reduce your drift rate N b. keep the survival craft from turning over N c. aid in recovering the survival craft N d. increase your visibility 3152: U. S. Coast Guard approved work vests may be substituted life jackets __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. aboard work vessels N b. aboard towing vessels N c. aboard sailing vessels Y d. under no circumstances 3161: The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
Y a. filling completely N b. developing free surfaces N c. developing free surface moments N d. collapsing 3323: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 foot to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded in P-tanks located 50 feet starboard to the centerline. What is the new TCG?
Y a. 0.49 foot starboard of centerline N b. 0.51 foot starboard of centerline N c. 0.99 foot starboard of centerline N d. 1.49 feet starboard of centerline 3454: A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes?
Y a. 6 N b. 4 N c. 2 N d. 1 3470: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?
N a. Proof tested N b. End-for-ended Y c. Renewed N d. Weight tested 3507: The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
N a. 680,914 ft-long tons N b. 9,733 ft-long tons N c. -5,937 ft-long tons Y d. -6,716 ft-long tons 3709: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.
N a. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water N b. drain water from the lungs before ventilating Y c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible N d. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting 3812: If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________.
Y a. remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel N b. head for the closest land N c. head for the closest sea-lanes N d. get a majority opinion 4035: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGL?
N a. 52.60 feet N b. 53.65 feet Y c. 54.32 feet N d. 54.92 feet 4093: Towing vessels of more than 39.4 feet in length must carry charts or maps _____________ .
N a. of the area to be navigated N b. with enough detail to make safe navigation possible N c. of the current edition or currently corrected edition Y d. All of the above 4095: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival). What is the new longitudinal location of the center of buoyancy if all the bulk materials are discharged?
N a. 2.34 feet N b. 2.48 feet N c. 2.50 feet Y d. 2.53 feet 4136: If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can be initially and best maintained by using the __________.
N a. trick wheel N b. accumulator Y c. standby pump N d. telemotor 4334: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system?
N a. Condenses moisture N b. Provides overpressure protection N c. Purifies the air Y d. Acts as an accumulator 4577: When the COASTAL DRILLER is properly preloaded, each of the leg reactions should be __________.
N a. 7,200 kips Y b. 7,099 kips N c. 4,720 kips N d. 3,381 kips 4778: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5540 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0169
N a. LCG-FP 266.5 feet Y b. LCG-FP 267.8 feet N c. LCG-FP 268.4 feet N d. LCG-FP 269.2 feet 5191: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should __________.
Y a. continue towing operations and carefully monitor vessel motions N b. alter course into the wind to improve motion characteristics N c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motion at the new draft N d. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and check vessel motion at the new draft 5323: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 520,462 ft-kips, FSML are 26,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 25,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?
N a. 26.90 feet N b. 25.00 feet N c. 1.90 feet Y d. 0.00 feet 5536: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?
N a. 3240 N b. 2731 N c. 2390 Y d. 2024 5786: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0185
N a. Available GM 2.8 ft N b. Available GM 3.2 ft N c. Available GM 3.5 ft Y d. Available GM 3.8 ft 5845: Yawing can be described as __________.
N a. jumping on the tow line as the rig pitches N b. jumping on the tow line as the rig slams into waves Y c. veering from side to side on the end of the tow line N d. corkscrew motion due to wave action 6067: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must discharge at least 85 percent of the required amount of CO2 within __________.
N a. 1 minute Y b. 2 minutes N c. 3 minutes N d. 4 minutes 6603: A weathertight door on a MODU must not allow water to penetrate into the unit in __________.
N a. 50 knot winds N b. 70 knot winds N c. 100 knot winds Y d. any sea condition 6645: Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio apparatus that meets the requirements of the __________.
N a. American Bureau of Shipping N b. Minerals Management Service N c. U.S. Coast Guard Y d. Federal Communications Commission 7381: One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is to __________.
N a. dump deck tanks into lower hulls N b. plug ballast tank vents N c. head into the waves Y d. increase tank free surface 7431: What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?
N a. Daylight before noon N b. At noon N c. Daylight after noon Y d. During darkness 7951: What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system for powering drilling rig machinery?
N a. Commutators are eliminated. N b. Several machines can be operated from a DC bus. N c. SCR systems are simpler. Y d. Required power can be drawn from a common AC bus. 8163: The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in the __________.
N a. wheelhouse under glass N b. toolpusher's quarters N c. OIM's office Y d. ballast control room 8517: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips. LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The port leg reaction is __________.
N a. 4,536 kips N b. 4,716 kips N c. 4,824 kips Y d. 4,890 kips 8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?
N a. 0.00 feet N b. 1.03 feet Y c. 1.69 feet N d. 2.22 feet 8821: A jack-up is trimmed six inches by the bow. The moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 1200 foot-kips. Transferring 200 kips of drill water from a tank with an LCG of 20 feet to a tank with an LCG of 140 feet results in a final trim of __________.
N a. zero trim (level) Y b. 1 foot 2 inches by the stern N c. 1 foot 8 inches by the stern N d. 2 feet 2 inches by the stern 9021: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
N a. inclining moments N b. righting moments N c. vertical moments Y d. longitudinal position of the center of gravity 9551: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability?
N a. Stable N b. Neutral Y c. Unstable N d. Positive