This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
104: In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance" is __________.
N a. AE Y b. CB N c. DX N d. CP 238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.
N a. the bone has been set Y b. the fracture is immobilized N c. radio advice has been obtained N d. the wound has been washed 305: It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.
N a. a boom N b. suction equipment Y c. chemical agents N d. skimmers 633: A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.
N a. generally shorter than the others and is used to steer with N b. is longer than the others and is used as the stroke oar N c. is raised in the bow of the boat for the steersman to steer by Y d. longer than the others used for steering 645: A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.
N a. the cognizant OCMI N b. superintendent of the shoreside facility N c. local fire department Y d. person in charge of the transfer 657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?
Y a. 1 watt or less N b. 5 watts N c. 10 watts N d. 20 watts 697: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________.
Y a. civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel N b. civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself N c. suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license N d. All of the above 720: The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the __________.
Y a. center of buoyancy N b. center of flotation N c. center of gravity N d. tipping center 730: The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as __________.
N a. one compartment standard N b. center of flotation Y c. permeability N d. form gain 795: The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations rests with the __________.
N a. nearest Coast Guard office N b. Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection N c. Area Commander Y d. Captain of the Port 930: Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.
N a. II, III, and IV N b. I, II, and III Y c. III, IV, and V N d. IV and V 1017: The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.
Y a. carbon dioxide N b. foam N c. water fog N d. water stream 1144: Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, the minimum capacity required per bilge pump is __________.
Y a. 10 gallons per minute N b. 19 gallons per minute N c. 38 gallons per minute N d. 50 gallons per minute 1217: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?
Y a. Dry chemical and carbon dioxide N b. Foam (stored pressure) and soda-acid N c. Carbon dioxide and foam (stored pressure) N d. Dry chemical and soda-acid 1339: The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, the danger angle for a permanent list would be about __________.
N a. 8.5° Y b. 17° N c. 34° N d. 51° 1419: Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?
N a. Press up the slack NO.1 starboard double bottom tank. Y b. Pump out the forepeak tank. N c. Eliminate the water in the 'tween decks aft. N d. Jettison stores out of the paint locker in the fo'c'sle. 1514: "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?
Y a. 10% N b. 50% N c. 75% N d. 100% 1686: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower?
N a. 2 Y b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 5 1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. The true wind is a little abaft your beam, at just under 25 knots. N b. The apparent wind at the top of your mast will be slightly stronger than 25 knots and slightly farther forward than the wind at deck level. N c. If you turn to a close reach, the apparent wind will reduce in strength. Y d. None of the above are true. 1860: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.
N a. remain on course and hold speed N b. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed Y c. change course and put the stern to the wind N d. remain on course but decrease speed 2018: When can routine communications be resumed on a frequency or channel on which radio silence has been imposed?
N a. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use N b. After determining that geographic distance from the distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications Y c. After the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded N d. Routine communications can resume if, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency or channel will not interfere with emergency communications. 2064: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail and overtaking a tug and tow. Which action is correct?
N a. The power-driven tug must maneuver to avoid collision. Y b. You must maneuver to avoid the tug and tow. N c. You must maneuver to avoid collision only if the tug is to leeward and the wind is on your port side. N d. Both vessels are required to maneuver to avoid collision. 2093: The davit launched liferaft can be boarded __________.
N a. from the water only Y b. at the deck N c. by jumping down onto it N d. through the escape tube 2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships.
N a. FWD 19'-07", AFT 20'-10" Y b. FWD 19'-09", AFT 21'-01" N c. FWD 20'-00", AFT 21'-00" N d. FWD 20'-01", AFT 21'-05" 2158: You have approximately 15 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 300 tons)
N a. 0.1 foot N b. 0.2 foot N c. 0.3 foot Y d. 0.4 foot 2178: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. none N b. 10.5 tons Y c. 14.0 tons N d. 17.5 tons 2220: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0053
N a. 395 tons N b. 530 tons Y c. 750 tons N d. 990 tons 2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products?
N a. American Bureau of Shipping N b. National Cargo Bureau Y c. Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard N d. Vessel owner 2523: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?
Y a. 2 N b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 5 2986: What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?
Y a. Emergency Instructions N b. A tide table for the area N c. Instructions on artificial respiration N d. The location of the first aid kit 3009: Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. Natural supply and mechanical exhaust N b. Mechanical supply and natural exhaust N c. Mechanical supply and mechanical exhaust N d. Natural supply and natural exhaust 3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
N a. volume of liquid in the tank Y b. volume of displacement of the vessel N c. location of the tank in the vessel N d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel 3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. decrease N c. increase N d. remain constant 3141: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0108
N a. Available GM 4.81 ft N b. Available GM 4.69 ft N c. Available GM 4.60 ft Y d. Available GM 4.28 ft 3449: How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
N a. 12 Y b. 14 N c. 18 N d. 24 3525: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.
N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons N b. eight anchor buoys Y c. anchors N d. lower hull fuel 3669: The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.
N a. volume of liquid in the tank Y b. displacement of the vessel N c. location of the tank in the vessel N d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel 3702: You may have to give artificial respiration after an accidental __________.
N a. drowning N b. electrocution N c. poisoning Y d. All of the above 3799: With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the correct posture should include __________.
Y a. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm, crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and keeping the feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for a feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed 3813: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the vertical moments for this quantity of ballast?
N a. 729 ft-long tons Y b. 991 ft-long tons N c. 19,609 ft-long tons N d. 27,652 ft-long tons 3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
Y a. convection N b. conduction N c. radiation N d. direct contact 4160: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.
N a. 0.9 feet Y b. 2.1 feet N c. 4.0 feet N d. 5.9 feet 4265: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is __________.
N a. 545 kips N b. 450 kips N c. 245 kips Y d. 224 kips 4289: What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Y a. Civil penalty of no more than $650 N b. Civil penalty of no more than $5,000 N c. $5,000 fine and imprisonment for not more than one year, or both N d. $1,000 fine or imprisonment for not more than two years 4607: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by hydrostatic alarm switches connected to a remote panel located in the __________.
N a. OIM's quarters Y b. OIM's office N c. control house N d. SCR room 4703: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the stern to re-level the jack-up if 75 kips is applied at the bow?
N a. 50 kips N b. 75 kips N c. 100 kips Y d. 150 kips 4733: In the COASTAL DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.
N a. adding the sum of the weights N b. subtracting the sum of the weights N c. multiplying by the sum of the weights Y d. dividing by the sum of the weights 5201: If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________.
Y a. saltwater eductor system N b. raw water tower pumps N c. mud pumps N d. preload pumps 5245: To maintain a high state of readiness against the possibility of damage and subsequent flooding while aboard the DEEP DRILLER, you should __________.
N a. post a watch in the pump room N b. keep tanks no more than half filled Y c. cap sounding tubes except when in use N d. keep bilge pumps operating continuously 5547: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.
N a. increase fatigue life N b. eliminate the need for mooring buoys N c. prevent the anchor from fouling Y d. increase the catenary 5553: The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the __________.
N a. holding angle N b. fleet angle Y c. fluke angle N d. shank angle 5568: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out?
N a. 1 N b. 2 Y c. 3 N d. 4 5911: What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list?
N a. Names of all crew members N b. Use and application of special equipment N c. Listing of approved emergency equipment Y d. Duties and station of each person during emergencies 6037: When testing fire hoses on offshore drilling units, each hose must be subjected to a test pressure of at least __________.
Y a. 100 psi N b. 110 psi N c. 120 psi N d. 150 psi 6641: On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?
N a. One ring life buoy Y b. One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU N c. Three ring life buoys N d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU 6837: With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile offshore drilling units, what must the Master or person in charge log?
N a. The name of each person berthed in each space Y b. The date of each inspection of each space N c. The condition of each space at the beginning of a trip N d. The number of persons assigned to each space 7643: When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the __________.
N a. metacentric radius N b. height of the baseline Y c. height of the metacenter N d. righting arm 7647: The abbreviation GM is used to represent the __________.
N a. height of the metacenter N b. righting arm N c. righting moment Y d. metacentric height 9337: Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.
Y a. portable N b. semi-portable N c. fixed N d. compact 9447: When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.
N a. free surface moments N b. righting arm Y c. height of the metacenter N d. corrected height of the center of gravity