This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
3: To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.
N a. canopy N b. manropes N c. sea painter Y d. righting strap 20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.
Y a. decrease N b. increase N c. remain unchanged N d. be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle 115: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
N a. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. Y b. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket. N c. They should be tight fitting. N d. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. 217: Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test?
Y a. A stability letter. N b. Tank sounding tables and draft mark locations. N c. Capacity plans showing the vertical and longitudinal centers of gravity of stowage spaces and tanks. N d. General arrangement plans of decks; holds and inner bottoms. 303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which is __________.
N a. 25 miles from shore N b. 12 miles from shore N c. 3 miles from shore Y d. None of the above are correct. 415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?
N a. A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard Y b. A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility N c. A portable system to discharge the slops overboard N d. A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility 775: During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure of at least __________.
N a. 100 pounds per square inch N b. the relief valve setting pressure N c. the shoreside pump discharge pressure Y d. 1½ times the maximum allowable working pressure 784: While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain?
N a. MAO 32 N b. MAJ 32 N c. MAL 32 Y d. MAK 32 812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
Y a. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge N b. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire N c. over the top of the fire N d. at the main body of the fire 1054: By day, the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land" is a __________.
N a. vertical motion of a red flag Y b. vertical motion of a white flag or the arms N c. white smoke signal N d. white star rocket 1292: What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?
N a. Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces Y b. Danger of shock to personnel N c. The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher N d. Maintaining electrical power 1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
N a. cool the bulkhead around the fire Y b. close all openings to the area N c. shut off all electrical power N d. remove combustibles from direct exposure 1597: Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?
Y a. Electrically non-conductive N b. Relatively inexpensive N c. Effective against chemicals containing an oxidizer N d. All of the above 1607: A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line?
N a. one N b. two Y c. three N d. four 1735: On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________.
N a. 6" reducer Y b. stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face N c. pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange N d. hose saddle 1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )
N a. 1.35 feet N b. 1.86 feet N c. 2.56 feet Y d. 3.60 feet 2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?
N a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency. Y b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. N c. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. N d. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received. 2169: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?
N a. 0 Y b. 1.3 to 7.6% N c. over 7.6% N d. over 100% 2176: According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a complete change of air in not more than __________.
N a. 1 minute N b. 2 minutes Y c. 3 minutes N d. 5 minutes 2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________.
N a. EPIRB Y b. inflatable liferaft N c. life float N d. buoyant apparatus 2314: Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo?
N a. A and below N b. B and below N c. C and below Y d. D and E only 2554: How is "radio silence" imposed?
Y a. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC) N b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency N c. It is imposed by the Public Correspondence Station (PCS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel N d. It is imposed by the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel 2554: How is "radio silence" imposed?
Y a. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC) N b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency N c. It is imposed by the Public Correspondence Station (PCS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel N d. It is imposed by the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel 2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline?
N a. Aluminum Y b. Copper N c. Nickel N d. Mild steel 2806: A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.
N a. 274.5° N b. 292.5° Y c. 315.0° N d. 337.5° 2935: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?
Y a. They should be replaced. N b. They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. N c. They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. N d. They can be used for children. 2938: What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants N b. Water-light, painter, and signal mirror N c. Water-light and painter only N d. Two paddles, painter, and six red flares 3021: A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have __________.
N a. KMT greater than KML Y b. KMT less than KGT N c. an off-center LCG N d. TCG greater than level-vessel TCB 3050: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 7280 tons Y b. 7879 tons N c. 8004 tons N d. 8104 tons 3181: Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________.
N a. free surface effects N b. capsizing the MODU Y c. continued progressive flooding N d. wind overturning moments 3189: If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.
Y a. a defective ignition system N b. low lube oil level N c. weak valve springs N d. too heavy a load 3228: A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to __________.
N a. batten down the engine room N b. start the fire pump N c. apply carbon dioxide to the fire Y d. shut off the fuel supply 3235: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.
N a. 1.09 feet N b. 1.60 feet Y c. 1.58 feet N d. 2.73 feet 3302: What is the minimum number of Type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required to be aboard a 3,000 BHP, 99 GT harbor tug? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. 2 N b. 3 Y c. 5 N d. 6 3357: What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter. Y b. Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter. N c. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. N d. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. 3412: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch.
N a. FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4" Y b. FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3" N c. FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3" N d. FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4" 3444: The nautical term "lee shore" refers to the __________.
Y a. shore on the lee side of the vessel N b. shore that is in the lee N c. western shore of the Lesser Antilles N d. shore in a harbor of refuge 3521: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.
N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons N b. eight anchor buoys N c. lower-hull fuel Y d. loading hoses 3528: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0137
N a. 271.2 ft N b. 288.8 ft Y c. 294.4 ft N d. 305.3 ft 3604: You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?
N a. Switch to flag hoists. Y b. Broadcast "Seelonce Distress". N c. Broadcast "Charlie Quebec-Mayday-Quiet". N d. Key the microphone three times in quick succession. 3671: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.
N a. 2P N b. 9P N c. C2BS Y d. C2BP 3764: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?
N a. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing N b. Diarrhea and frequent urination Y c. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen N d. Extreme sweating and reddening skin 4160: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.
N a. 0.9 feet Y b. 2.1 feet N c. 4.0 feet N d. 5.9 feet 4291: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit, stability is acceptable provided that neither the KGL nor the KGT exceed __________.
N a. the height of the righting arm N b. KML or KMT N c. GML or GMT Y d. maximum allowable KG 4457: Prior to entering a davit-launched liferaft, you should make sure that __________.
Y a. the liferaft is well ventilated of excess carbon dioxide N b. all personnel have removed their life preservers to facilitate boarding N c. the door flap has been cut away and stowed inside the raft N d. All of the above 4525: Preload tank 22B on the COASTAL DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of preload. It is decided to complete filling the tank. What is the TCG of the added liquid?
N a. 65.60 feet N b. 65.74 feet N c. 65.77 feet Y d. 65.83 feet 4747: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load?
N a. 46 feet port of the centerline Y b. 46 feet starboard of the centerline N c. 84 feet port of the centerline N d. 84 feet starboard of the centerline 5125: A MODU with the TCG off the longitudinal centerline inclines to an angle of __________.
Y a. list N b. heel N c. trim N d. loll 5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. counterflood in 1P N b. counterflood in 10S N c. pump from C1P N d. pump from C3S 5274: The type davits shown are __________. (D008SA )
N a. round-bar davits N b. radial davits Y c. gravity davits N d. quadrantal davits 5615: Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses due to __________.
Y a. environmental loads N b. variable loads N c. ballast loading N d. mooring loads 6157: Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited __________.
Y a. at all times N b. during evening hours N c. unless another person is present N d. during drilling operations 6626: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.
N a. 11,650 tons N b. 11,800 tons Y c. 12,000 tons N d. 12,250 tons 7591: Stability is determined principally by the location of the center of gravity and the __________.
N a. aft perpendicular Y b. center of buoyancy N c. keel N d. center of flotation 8435: A MODU which is required to carry an Oil Record Book must log in the book __________.
Y a. discharge of ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks N b. sounding levels of all fuel tanks on a daily basis N c. the grade and specific gravity of all fuel oil carried N d. fuel consumption rates on a weekly basis 8597: On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested __________.
N a. daily N b. weekly Y c. monthly N d. yearly 9435: For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.
Y a. waterline N b. freeboard deck N c. Plimsoll mark N d. amidships section 9453: At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.
Y a. vertically above the center of buoyancy N b. vertically above the center of gravity N c. at the intersection of the upright vertical centerline and the line of action of the buoyant force N d. at the geometric center of the underwater volume 9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
N a. 4 of each N b. 3 of each Y c. 2 of each N d. 1 of each 9701: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
Y a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. N b. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas. N c. The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems. N d. All of the above