This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
13: Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.
Y a. boat the sea anchor N b. paddle away from the fire N c. splash water over the liferaft to cool it N d. get out of the raft and swim to safety 87: Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?
N a. A three-cell flashlight Y b. An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp N c. A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp N d. None of the above 100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.
N a. metacentric height Y b. righting arm N c. righting moment N d. metacentric radius 126: Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?
N a. 12 gallon soda acid N b. 20 gallon foam N c. 30 pound carbon dioxide Y d. 20 pound dry chemical 246: On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided?
Y a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it, the station can hoist the flag signal __________.
N a. ZP Y b. ZL N c. ZR N d. ZK 450: Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?
N a. Dry chemical N b. CO2 N c. Foam Y d. Dry powder 485: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than __________.
N a. 100 psi Y b. 150 psi N c. 200 psi N d. 250 psi 545: The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain __________.
Y a. the name of each person designated as the person in charge of transfer N b. a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping N c. special procedures for topping off tanks N d. a description of the deck discharge containment system 562: One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.
N a. 8 to 10 gallons of foam N b. 25 to 50 gallons of foam N c. 100 to 200 gallons of foam Y d. 500 to 1000 gallons of foam 596: The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered at least once every __________.
N a. week N b. month Y c. three months N d. year 654: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
N a. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz. N b. Channel 16 (156.8 MHz) may be used for distress messages. N c. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency available. Y d. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration. 809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.
N a. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation N b. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth N c. switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation Y d. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation 981: Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.
N a. deteriorate and give off noxious gasses Y b. spontaneously heat and catch fire N c. attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground N d. None of the above 1006: An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) __________.
N a. air bottle for breathing N b. orange smoke canister Y c. whistle, light and retroreflective material N d. sea dye marker 1133: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.
N a. protect your life preserver by holding it above your head Y b. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel N c. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first N d. wear very light clothing 1277: When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?
N a. Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents. Y b. Close the fuel line valve. N c. Check the spread of the fire with foam. N d. Cast the barge off the wharf. 1347: A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.
Y a. large GM N b. high center of gravity N c. excessive free surface N d. small GZ 1367: Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity of the fuel oil is .85 and the ship is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026).
N a. .83 N b. 42.7 Y c. 3787 N d. 4571 1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the __________.
Y a. bow N b. mid-section N c. stern N d. All of the above 1562: Drinking salt water will __________.
N a. protect against heat camps N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water Y d. dehydrate you 1592: A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. The reduction in GM due to free surface effect is __________.
Y a. .27 foot N b. .30 foot N c. .31 foot N d. .33 foot 1795: Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?
N a. These are located in CCIR #476. N b. These are located in FCC Part 83. N c. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. Y d. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. 1848: Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons?
N a. 6.43 feet N b. 6.75 feet N c. 6.99 feet Y d. 7.25 feet 1901: Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?
N a. It will respond only to interrogation by 9-Ghz radar signals. N b. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching vessel's radar if the radar antenna is at least 15 meters high. N c. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching aircraft's radar if the radar's output power is at least 10,000 watts and the aircraft is at a height of 3000 feet and within 30 nautical miles. Y d. All of the above 1964: When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) __________.
N a. tidal bore N b. ebbing current Y c. flood current N d. All of the above 1965: Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUE?
N a. There is minimal hazard potential as long as the Operator notifies other system users aboard the vessel that the potential exists. Y b. The INMARSAT-B ray dome normally prevents nearby persons from being able to determine the direction of the internal antenna. N c. There is equally significant hazard potential from all INMARSAT antenna systems. N d. FCC type acceptance regulations require that radiated power be kept to a minimum so as to prevent hazard potential. 2036: Which system provides maximum communications range?
N a. MF SITOR Y b. INMARSAT N c. Digital Selective Calling on 8414.5KHz N d. VHF ARQ 2140: You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
Y a. 20 tons N b. 50 tons N c. 80 tons N d. 210 tons 2147: Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is intended while he or she is __________.
N a. at work, only N b. in his or her berthing area, only Y c. BOTH at work and in his or her berthing area N d. None of the above 2533: An obstruction on a helodeck is any object that might present a hazard to the __________.
Y a. rotor blades and landing gear N b. unloading of passengers N c. loading of cargo N d. pilot's visibility 2590: Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by __________.
N a. cofferdams N b. empty cargo spaces Y c. gas tight bulkheads N d. areas equipped with power ventilation 2626: Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?
N a. Navigational warnings N b. Meteorological warnings N c. Search and Rescue information Y d. All of the above 2711: The number of able seamen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.
N a. American Bureau of Shipping code N b. Department of Energy regulations N c. Mineral Management Service rules Y d. Certificate of Inspection 2724: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 18'-09"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.4 feet off the centerline.
N a. 18° Y b. 22° N c. 26° N d. 30° 2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________.
N a. sweep flames away with water spray Y b. shut off the leak N c. use a chemical foam fire extinguisher N d. call the local fire department 3032: Controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system shall be mounted __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. directly outside the space protected by the system N b. as near the gas cylinders as possible N c. in the pilothouse N d. on the main deck near the bow 3850: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.
N a. every six months after initial installation N b. every 12 months after initial installation N c. every 24 months after initial installation Y d. on or before the expiration date of the power source 3865: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean service?
N a. 4 Y b. 8 N c. 12 N d. 16 3872: For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________.
N a. spring-loaded line thrower N b. hand thrown buoyant line Y c. shoulder type line throwing gun N d. heaving line 3947: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?
N a. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire. Y b. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge. N c. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down. N d. They are to be kept closed at all times. 4052: The test of a towing vessel's steering gear control system includes each item EXCEPT ___________ .
N a. a test from the alternative power supply, if installed Y b. timing the movement of the rudder from hard over to hard over N c. verification that the rudder angle indicator shows the actual position of the rudder(s) N d. visual inspection of the steering linkage 4200: A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)
N a. 27' 07.5" N b. 27' 08.5" N c. 28' 03.5" Y d. 28' 04.5" 4307: To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70 knots?
N a. 0.0 feet N b. 1.2 feet N c. 25.0 feet Y d. 60.5 feet 4383: In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of elevating the unit with a loading of __________.
N a. 14,158 kips N b. 14,400 kips Y c. 17,280 kips N d. 21,297 kips 4764: You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.
N a. 17'-01" Y b. 17'-05" N c. 17'-10" N d. 18'-00" 5191: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should __________.
Y a. continue towing operations and carefully monitor vessel motions N b. alter course into the wind to improve motion characteristics N c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motion at the new draft N d. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and check vessel motion at the new draft 5421: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new TCG?
N a. -1.61 feet N b. -1.58 feet N c. 0.43 feet Y d. 0.99 feet 5433: It is vital to the safety of the elevated COASTAL DRILLER that the hull be kept above __________.
N a. the charted water depth N b. the charted water depth plus tidal corrections N c. the still water level Y d. wave action 5702: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0183
N a. Available GM 2.8 ft Y b. Available GM 3.2 ft N c. Available GM 3.5 ft N d. Available GM 3.8 ft 5722: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?
N a. 25.1 feet Y b. 25.4 feet N c. 25.7 feet N d. 26.0 feet 5924: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0187
N a. 1.30 feet N b. 1.07 foot N c. 0.96 foot Y d. 0.73 foot 6583: When weight-testing a davit-launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the test weight must be equivalent to the weight of the raft, its required equipment, and __________.
N a. 90% of the allowed capacity of persons for the raft Y b. 100% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft N c. 110% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft N d. 120% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft 6604: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.
Y a. the heat of a fire melting the link N b. a break-glass and pull-cable system N c. electrical controls on the bridge N d. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct 6937: A casualty report of an intentional grounding of a MODU is required under what condition?
N a. Under any condition N b. If the grounding lasts over 24 hours Y c. If it creates a hazard to the environment N d. At the owner's discretion 7351: The range of a SSB transmission is MOST affected by __________.
N a. atmospheric noise and radiated power Y b. the frequency band selected and time of day or night N c. interference and position of the moon N d. radiated power and nearness to shore 7603: Initial stability refers to stability __________.
Y a. at small angles of inclination N b. when loaded with minimum deck load N c. when at transit draft N d. when GZ is zero 8541: The process of waiting a period of time before pretensioning an anchor is known as __________.
Y a. soaking N b. settling N c. sinking N d. bedding in 8771: Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has been detected on the drill floor. The abandon rig signal has been sounded. To evacuate the rig, the crew should use __________.
N a. all survival capsules and liferafts N b. only the leeward survival capsules and liferafts Y c. only the windward survival capsules N d. only the windward liferafts 8835: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 foot-kips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet. How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet?
N a. 67.5 kips N b. 81.0 kips N c. 126.6 kips Y d. 253.1 kips