This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
277: The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
N a. weekly Y b. monthly N c. every 2 months N d. every 3 months 398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.
Y a. immerse the burn in cold water N b. administer aspirin N c. apply petroleum jelly N d. apply a bandage to exclude air 441: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.
N a. moving all personnel aft N b. constantly shifting the rudder Y c. rigging a sea anchor N d. moving all personnel forward and low 645: A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.
N a. the cognizant OCMI N b. superintendent of the shoreside facility N c. local fire department Y d. person in charge of the transfer 699: What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel?
N a. Three feet Y b. Four feet N c. Five feet N d. Six feet 762: The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________.
Y a. breaking the chain reaction N b. the CO2 that is formed by heat N c. smothering N d. shielding of radiant heat 787: To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should __________.
Y a. refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection N b. examine the cargo tanks and fittings N c. ask the terminal supervisor or his representative N d. check the loading order 789: An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
Y a. so as to float free N b. with the vessel's emergency equipment N c. near the wheelhouse N d. as far forward as possible 823: Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.
N a. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general alarm Y b. continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds N c. 1 short blast on the whistle N d. alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle 884: The single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, means __________.
N a. "I require a pilot" N b. "Longitude follows" Y c. "I am going ahead; follow me" N d. "Do not follow me" 974: On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is __________.
N a. 2 1/2 inches nominal pipe size Y b. 1 1/2 inches nominal pipe size N c. Not specified by the Regulations N d. Large enough so it does not cause backpressure and fuel spillage 1193: On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because it __________.
N a. adds as much as 2 volts to battery performance N b. supplies extra nitrogen for the battery Y c. helps dissipate flammable gas accumulations N d. allows less soda water to be used in the diodes 1212: Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?
N a. 6% N b. 10% N c. 15% Y d. 21% 1294: According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called __________.
Y a. loading marks N b. the air draft N c. depth marks N d. Plimsoll marks 1440: A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a distance of 30 ft. from the centerline. A 28-foot pendulum shows a deflection of 12 inches. Displacement including weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is 27.64 feet. What is the KG?
Y a. 21.34 feet N b. 22.06 feet N c. 22.76 feet N d. 23.21 feet 1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1489: The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is __________.
Y a. "Oars" N b. "Up oars" N c. "Way enough" N d. "Hold water" 1489: The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is __________.
Y a. "Oars" N b. "Up oars" N c. "Way enough" N d. "Hold water" 1526: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?
N a. Foam N b. Dry chemical Y c. Water (cartridge-operated) N d. Carbon dioxide 1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?
N a. Conducts electricity N b. Difficult to store N c. Large volume necessary to be effective Y d. Ineffective in powdered metal fires 1644: Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?
N a. Identity of the product to be transferred N b. Details of transferring and receiving systems N c. Emergency shutdown procedures Y d. Estimated time of finishing cargo 1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.
N a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode N b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft N c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB Y d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB 1759: You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.
N a. jack down one leg at a time Y b. jack up first, then down N c. undog doors to the engine room N d. assemble all personnel on the main deck 1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?
N a. 5 nautical miles N b. 10 nautical miles Y c. 12 nautical miles N d. 25 nautical miles 1875: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y c. Get clear of the ship. N d. Dry the liferaft floor and inflate. 1915: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.
N a. apparent wind moves aft Y b. heeling moment increases N c. side slip decreases N d. mainsheet must be eased 2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than __________.
N a. 1.5 inches N b. 2.0 inches Y c. 2.5 inches N d. 3.0 inches 2121: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
N a. smoke flares Y b. a life line N c. a hydrostatic release N d. a signal mirror 2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.
N a. shut off all electrical power N b. close all openings to the area N c. remove combustibles from direct exposure Y d. cool the bulkheads around the fire 2319: What is NOT generally a characteristic of inhaling light naphtha?
N a. Dizziness N b. Headache Y c. Vomiting N d. Coughing 2514: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 5,800 foot-tons N b. 7,600 foot-tons Y c. 9,272 foot-tons N d. 11,200 foot-tons 2551: The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.
N a. maximum counter weight required N b. minimum horsepower required N c. hoist rope strength Y d. allowable load 2682: The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.
N a. allow for cutting out branch circuits Y b. prevent overloading the circuits N c. reduce voltage to the branch circuits N d. permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits 2693: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0076
N a. 1171.5 tons N b. 1311.0 tons N c. 1503.0 tons Y d. 1912.5 tons 2903: Life jackets should be marked with the __________.
N a. maximum weight allowed N b. stowage space assigned N c. vessel's home port Y d. vessel's name 3137: With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the preservation of __________.
N a. bilge pumping capacity Y b. reserve buoyancy N c. level attitude N d. instability 3183: The order of importance in addressing damage control on a MODU is __________.
N a. control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage N b. restore vital services, control fire, control flooding N c. control fire, restore vital services, control flooding Y d. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage 3443: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGT of 57.11 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port. What is the list angle?
N a. 2° port N b. 3° port N c. 4° port Y d. 5° port 3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
N a. density of the liquid N b. placement of the tank above the keel Y c. displacement volume of the vessel N d. size of the surface area in the tank 3488: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The person in charge Y b. An approved servicing facility N c. Shipyard personnel N d. A certificated lifeboatman 3515: The lightweight longitudinal free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
N a. 680,914 ft-long tons Y b. 000 ft-long tons N c. -5,937 ft-long tons N d. -6,716 ft-long tons 3717: During the passage of a severe storm, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determined that, although the unit is level, the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. The value of the wind heeling moment is __________.
N a. 40,402 ft-long tons Y b. 32,099 ft-long tons N c. 21,343 ft-long tons N d. 19,982 ft-long tons 3973: What are the additional vertical moments created when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER sample load form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?
N a. 2,252 foot-tons Y b. 9,413 foot-tons N c. 11,665 foot-tons N d. 13,917 foot-tons 4153: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?
N a. 60 feet 9.6 inches N b. 59 feet 2.7 inches N c. 57 feet 11.5 inches Y d. 56 feet 10.9 inches 4259: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
N a. The primary color of the suit's exterior may be red, orange or yellow. Y b. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. N c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer swimming in burning oil. N d. The suit may be stored in a machinery space where the ambient temperature is 160°F. 4303: During a long ocean tow of a jack-up the clearance in the upper guide should be reduced to zero to restrain the leg and eliminate the impact loads from dynamic responses. This is best done by __________.
N a. lowering the spud cans below the hull N b. raising the spud cans into hull recesses Y c. tapering the upper guides and building up the teeth N d. remove certain lengths of leg 4653: What is the increase in transverse free surface moments for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?
N a. 9,172 foot-kips Y b. 3,914 foot-kips N c. 2,109 foot-kips N d. 932 foot-kips 5386: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?
N a. Carbon dioxide Y b. Carbon monoxide N c. Nitric oxide N d. Hydrogen sulfide 5481: A common means of connecting shots of anchor chain in the field is to use a __________.
N a. sprocket Y b. Kenter link N c. swivel N d. end shackle 5765: Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________.
Y a. still water level N b. wave crest N c. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections N d. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal correction and storm surge 6065: A fire pump on a MODU requires 175 psi discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. The maximum setting for the relief valve is __________.
N a. 125 psi N b. 175 psi Y c. 200 psi N d. 225 psi 6107: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is __________.
N a. CO2 N b. dry chemical N c. water Y d. foam 6251: Explosive and flammable gasses are most likely to be encountered on a MODU __________.
N a. at any location Y b. on the drill floor and liquid mud handling areas N c. in bulk storage tanks N d. in machinery spaces 6573: To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.
N a. Muster List ("Station Bill") N b. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate Y c. Certificate of Inspection N d. Operations Manual 6742: With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.
Y a. inserting an applicator in the nozzle N b. putting the handle of the nozzle in the forward position N c. directing a straight stream of water against the ship's structure N d. the combination nozzle only when the water pressure exceeds 125 psi 7377: A semisubmersible rig under tow should be ballasted down if __________.
Y a. motion begins to be excessive N b. water begins to break over the pontoons N c. period of roll exceeds 12 seconds N d. forward progress is halted by head wind 8151: Laying down drill pipe from the derrick of a semisubmersible on location reduces the __________.
Y a. natural roll period N b. metacentric height N c. waterplane area N d. righting moment 9217: Apparent wind speed blowing across a MODU under tow can be measured by a(n) __________.
N a. barometer N b. wind vane Y c. anemometer N d. thermometer 9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.
N a. indication of broken bones Y b. breathing and heartbeat N c. symptoms of concussion N d. bleeding injuries 9473: What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies?
Y a. metacentric height N b. metacentric radius N c. height of the metacenter N d. righting arm