USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


1: Your vessel is on an even keel. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag?


18: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?


70: What represents the center of gravity? (D001SA )


157: On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.

    N a. Master and Second Mate
    Y b. Master and Chief Engineer
    N c. Master and union delegate
    N d. Master and Chief Mate

325: For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________.

    Y a. three barrels
    N b. four barrels
    N c. six barrels
    N d. eight barrels

336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed __________.

    N a. 150 lbs
    Y b. 300 lbs
    N c. 450 lbs
    N d. 600 lbs

382: A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________.

    Y a. make the trip only after obtaining a "Permit to Proceed to Another Port for Repair", Form CG-948
    N b. get underway as soon as possible
    N c. hire a tug and pilot instead
    N d. request an Expiration Certificate if the vessel displays a tendency to sink

415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?

    N a. A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard
    Y b. A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
    N c. A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
    N d. A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility

483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4184 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0008

    Y a. KG 25.8 feet
    N b. KG 26.6 feet
    N c. KG 27.2 feet
    N d. KG 28.0 feet

541: The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals means "________________".

    N a. Over
    N b. Finished with transmission
    Y c. Wait
    N d. Repeat this signal

602: What does "EPIRB" stand for?

    N a. Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy
    N b. Electronic Pulse Indicating Radio beacon
    Y c. Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon
    N d. None of the above

798: A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?

    N a. A
    N b. B
    Y c. C
    N d. D

836: What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

1060: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0024

    N a. FWD 26'-06", AFT 28'-10"
    N b. FWD 26'-10", AFT 28'-05"
    Y c. FWD 27'-00", AFT 28'-03"
    N d. FWD 27'-03", AFT 28'-00"

1123: On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with __________.

    N a. mechanical air supply fans and natural exhaust
    Y b. natural air supply and mechanical exhaust fans
    N c. cowls and scoops which can be closed during foul weather
    N d. air conditioning to control moisture

1499: A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

    N a. 5.4°
    Y b. 5.72°
    N c. 6.12°
    N d. 6.4°

1787: Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?

    N a. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level
    N b. The power switch is set to the "high" output position resulting in receiver over loading
    Y c. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level
    N d. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16

1918: Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?

    N a. EPIRB's that transmit on 406 MHz
    Y b. Survival craft VHF transceivers that provide a beacon on 121.5 MHz
    N c. COSPAS-SARSAT EPIRBs
    N d. SARTs operating on 9 GHz

1986: Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into the sea more than 25 miles offshore.
    Y b. You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility.
    N c. You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship.
    N d. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped.

2062: You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from accidentally jibing by using a(n) __________.

    N a. buntline
    N b. clewline
    N c. outhaul
    Y d. preventer

2083: On offshore drilling units each inflatable liferaft that is not intended for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be __________.

    Y a. equipped with a hydrostatic release
    N b. stowed in approved racks
    N c. located above the main deck area
    N d. replaced every 12 months

2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft.

    Y a. FWD 18'-09", AFT 22'-01"
    N b. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-01"
    N c. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-08"
    N d. FWD 19'-01", AFT 21'-04"

2386: What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?

    N a. Two licensed GMDSS radio operators
    N b. Equipment carriage requirements
    N c. Distress alerting and response
    Y d. All of the above

2404: Regulations require that cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges be vented with __________.

    Y a. gooseneck vents and flame screens
    N b. pressure-vacuum relief valves
    N c. branch vent lines and a vent header
    N d. forced draft blowers

2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower?

    N a. 2
    N b. 3
    Y c. 4
    N d. 5

2655: Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.

    N a. beams
    N b. girders
    Y c. frames
    N d. bulkheads

2829: Aboard small passenger vessels the steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and communication system shall be tested by the Master __________.

    N a. once a week
    Y b. before getting underway for the day's operation
    N c. at every inspection and reinspection
    N d. at least once in every 48 hours

2843: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

    Y a. two years
    N b. one year
    N c. until the next Coast Guard inspection
    N d. until the end of the voyage

2926: The sailing drafts are: FWD 16'-06", AFT 17'-04" and the GM is 2.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 15° inclination.

    N a. 0.4 foot
    Y b. 0.8 foot
    N c. 1.2 feet
    N d. 1.9 feet

2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.

    N a. 9°
    N b. 12°
    N c. 15°
    Y d. 19°

3044: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-00".

    N a. 12°
    Y b. 24°
    N c. 48°
    N d. 52°

3072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0101

    N a. LCG-FP 272.6 feet
    Y b. LCG-FP 269.8 feet
    N c. LCG-FP 266.5 feet
    N d. LCG-FP 263.8 feet

3098: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN).

    N a. 460 tons per hatch
    N b. 520 tons per hatch
    Y c. 690 tons per hatch
    N d. 730 tons per hatch

3139: Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________.

    N a. PV valves
    N b. warning signs
    Y c. flame screens
    N d. stop-check valves

3221: A MODU with a displacement of 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. A load of 300 kips is shifted from a VCG of 100 feet to a VCG of 10 feet. How far does the KG move?

    N a. 0.2 foot downward
    N b. 0.2 foot upward
    Y c. 1.8 feet downward
    N d. 1.8 feet upward

3380: At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. checked for pressure loss
    N b. discharged and recharged
    N c. sent ashore to an approved service facility
    Y d. weighed

3647: A distress signal __________.

    N a. consists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus
    N b. consists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag
    Y c. may be used individually or in conjunction with other distress signals
    N d. is used to indicate doubt about another vessel's intentions

3679: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

    N a. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
    Y b. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
    N c. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
    N d. 30 compressions then 4 inflations

3742: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.

    Y a. carotid artery in the neck
    N b. femoral artery in the groin
    N c. brachial artery in the arm
    N d. radial artery in the wrist

3771: What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P?

    N a. 15,265 ft-tons
    Y b. 14,609 ft-tons
    N c. 7,293 ft-tons
    N d. 5,174 ft-tons

3797: What are the longitudinal moments for the contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

    Y a. -3,096 ft-tons
    N b. -3,880 ft-tons
    N c. -4,663 ft-tons
    N d. -6,509 ft-tons

3823: What is the change in vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?

    N a. 6,707 foot-tons decrease
    N b. 4,984 foot-tons decrease
    Y c. 1,914 foot-tons decrease
    N d. 155 foot-tons decrease

3905: On the DEEP DRILLER, when using the starboard #2 ballast pump to provide water to the main deck from the sea, it is necessary to open valves __________.

    Y a. 37, 35, 36, 45
    N b. 37, 36, 46, 47
    N c. 38, 47
    N d. 38, 47, 45, 46

3971: What weight is added when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?

    N a. 19.54 long tons
    N b. 55.71 long tons
    Y c. 75.25 long tons
    N d. 94.79 long tons

4004: To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must __________.

    N a. hold a valid officer's license for inspected vessels
    Y b. hold a tankerman-PIC endorsement
    N c. be 30 years old
    N d. have a letter from the company stating his qualification

4055: In the DEEP DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.

    N a. adding displacement
    N b. subtracting displacement
    N c. multiplying by displacement
    Y d. dividing by displacement

4574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4824 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0164

    N a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet
    N b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    Y c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    N d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet

4697: A tank with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with fresh water weighing 62.4 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?

    N a. 54.4 kips
    N b. 64.7 kips
    N c. 95.8 kips
    Y d. 124.8 kips

5183: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?

    N a. 18.2 feet
    N b. 19.4 feet
    Y c. 19.7 feet
    N d. 22.8 feet

5311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in field transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

    N a. 3.0 feet
    N b. 3.4 feet
    Y c. 26.0 feet
    N d. 26.4 feet

5521: Prior to magnetic particle inspection of anchor chain, the chain should be __________.

    N a. degaussed
    N b. demagnetized
    N c. soaked
    Y d. sandblasted

6843: With regard to the opening and closing of watertight integrity appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, what must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook?

    N a. The time required to close the appliances
    Y b. The reason for opening or closing each appliance
    N c. The name of the person performing the opening and closing of such appliances
    N d. The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not

7047: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

    N a. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing
    N b. Diarrhea and frequent urination
    Y c. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen
    N d. Extreme sweating and reddening skin

7096: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

    N a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    N b. burning liquids flowing into another space
    Y c. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
    N d. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space

8163: The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in the __________.

    N a. wheelhouse under glass
    N b. toolpusher's quarters
    N c. OIM's office
    Y d. ballast control room

8185: When the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by __________.

    Y a. raw water tower pumps
    N b. fire pumps
    N c. bilge pumps
    N d. mud pumps

8551: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one spanner and at least one __________.

    N a. fire axe
    Y b. hose rack
    N c. sandbag
    N d. scupper

8673: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft. What is the value of GMT?

    N a. 0.05 foot
    N b. 1.02 feet
    N c. 2.63 feet
    Y d. 4.34 feet

9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.

    N a. accumulators
    Y b. control pods
    N c. consoles
    N d. shuttle controls

9673: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

    N a. rotate personnel, due to heat stress
    N b. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck
    N c. cool the deck directly above the space on fire
    Y d. All of the above