This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
133: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
N a. 1 can Y b. 1 pint N c. 1 quart N d. 1 gallon 285: The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________.
N a. the most common method used in the United States N b. too expensive for common use N c. generally safe to sea life Y d. authorized only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator 526: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
N a. 6 N b. 12 N c. 18 Y d. 24 543: Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.
N a. to keep the boats covered at all times Y b. not to leave steel or iron tools lying in or near these boats N c. to keep an electric charge on the hull at all times N d. to rinse these boats regularly with salt water 623: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________.
N a. day N b. week Y c. month N d. 3 months 672: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher is most useful in fighting a fire in __________.
N a. generators Y b. oil drums N c. the bridge controls N d. combustible metals 676: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 STARBOARD Y c. 3 N d. 4 788: Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
N a. Classes A and B Y b. Classes B and C N c. Classes C and D N d. Classes A and D 953: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?
N a. 0.8 ft Y b. 1.0 ft N c. 1.2 ft N d. 1.4 ft 1172: What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?
N a. Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute Y b. Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes N c. Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for no more than 2 minutes N d. None of the above 1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________.
N a. At each crew change N b. Every week N c. Every month Y d. To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies 1294: According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called __________.
Y a. loading marks N b. the air draft N c. depth marks N d. Plimsoll marks 1474: In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________.
N a. chemical agent N b. blocker Y c. sorbent N d. None of the above 1536: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?
N a. Foam and water (stored pressure) N b. Foam and carbon dioxide N c. Foam and dry chemical Y d. Dry chemical and carbon dioxide 1545: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing hooks to prevent __________.
N a. the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated accidentally while the boat is being lowered N b. operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne N c. the falls from rehooking after they have been released Y d. accidental unhooking when the falls become slack 1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.
N a. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day N b. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water N c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain Y d. under no conditions 1596: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?
N a. 24 months N b. 36 months Y c. 42 months N d. 54 months 1901: Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?
N a. It will respond only to interrogation by 9-Ghz radar signals. N b. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching vessel's radar if the radar antenna is at least 15 meters high. N c. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching aircraft's radar if the radar's output power is at least 10,000 watts and the aircraft is at a height of 3000 feet and within 30 nautical miles. Y d. All of the above 2026: Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck?
N a. It is a sailing maneuver which brings the vessel's head through the wind. Y b. It connects the boom to the mast and allows the boom to swing freely. N c. It is a sailing condition where there is a loss of air flow over the sails. N d. None of the above 2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
Y a. 55 tons N b. 99 tons N c. 140 tons N d. 360 tons 2097: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.
Y a. becomes less N b. becomes larger N c. does not change N d. moves aft 2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships.
N a. FWD 19'-07", AFT 20'-10" Y b. FWD 19'-09", AFT 21'-01" N c. FWD 20'-00", AFT 21'-00" N d. FWD 20'-01", AFT 21'-05" 2260: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed?
N a. 3.19 feet N b. 3.24 feet N c. 3.40 feet Y d. 3.56 feet 2261: If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________.
Y a. that the fuel valve is open N b. if the air supply system is open N c. if the water sprinkler system is open N d. if the limit switch is on 2398: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.
N a. understanding the GMDSS console's normal operational indicators N b. maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log N c. responding to and comprehending alarms Y d. All of the above 2413: Signaling by flag hoist is completed by the vessel hoisting the __________.
N a. signal AR N b. code flag N N c. code flag R Y d. answering pennant 2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.
Y a. temporary guide base N b. permanent guide base N c. guide frame N d. foundation template 2518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0067
N a. 4.0 feet N b. 5.6 feet Y c. 6.0 feet N d. 6.8 feet 2531: What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?
N a. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized N b. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the distress frequency or channel N c. To ensure that a distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages Y d. To ensure that interference on a particular frequency or channel to communications concerning emergency traffic is minimized 2795: The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.
N a. midway between drafts forward and aft Y b. at the center of flotation N c. at the load line N d. at the center of buoyancy 2823: A vessel heading ESE is on a course of __________.
Y a. 112.5° N b. 135.0° N c. 157.5° N d. 180.0° 2869: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.
N a. be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery Y b. have a guard over the gearing N c. be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing N d. not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery 3066: Prior to getting underway for the day's operations, every small passenger vessel shall have it's steering gear tested by __________.
N a. the Mate on watch Y b. the Master N c. a Mate or Designated Duty Engineer N d. a licensed Engineer 3084: All life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be clearly and legibly marked or painted with the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. manufacturer's price, stock number, and inspection date N b. vessel's name, tonnage, and horsepower Y c. vessel's name in 3" letters N d. vessel's name, and number of persons allowed, all in at least 3" inch high letters and numbers 3193: Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.
N a. ballast control alarms N b. excessive draft N c. excessive list or trim Y d. a continual worsening of list or trim 3642: When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?
N a. Out Y b. Over N c. Roger N d. Wilco 3696: The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________.
N a. on a tug standing by Y b. available by contract with the shore facility N c. kept at the shoreside hose connection during transfer N d. kept in a protected shoreside location readily accessible 3750: While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.
N a. give artificial respiration Y b. prevent patient from hurting himself N c. keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep him/her awake N d. remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed 3767: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.
N a. "use the float-free method only" Y b. "lower all boats" N c. "raise all boats" N d. "drill is over, secure all boats" 4008: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.
N a. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo N b. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area Y c. have containment capacity for at least one half barrel N d. are opened and the flame screen replaced 4026: When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to carry portable fuel systems on board?
N a. When used for outboard engines N b. When permanently attached to portable equipment such as bilge and fire pumps N c. If the portable tanks used for portable equipment meet published safety standards Y d. All of the above 4111: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?
N a. 6.46 feet N b. 7.09 feet Y c. 7.72 feet N d. 8.39 feet 5038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater.
N a. FWD 22'-10.7", AFT 25'-00.9" N b. FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 25'-00.3" N c. FWD 22'-11.9", AFT 24'-11.7" Y d. FWD 23'-00.5", AFT 24'-11.1" 5067: While a MODU is underway, a look-out must be maintained __________.
Y a. at all times N b. only during periods of restricted visibility N c. only when other vessels are present N d. only during the hours of darkness 5407: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the LCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom?
N a. 114.06 feet AFO N b. 119.44 feet AFO N c. 123.75 feet AFO Y d. 125.91 feet AFO 5507: The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for __________.
N a. anchor chain N b. wire rope Y c. connecting links N d. pendant wires 5645: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension reduces __________.
N a. list N b. KM N c. KG Y d. GM 6065: A fire pump on a MODU requires 175 psi discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. The maximum setting for the relief valve is __________.
N a. 125 psi N b. 175 psi Y c. 200 psi N d. 225 psi 6475: The pneumatic containers which store bulk dry mud additives and cement on a MODU are called __________.
N a. mud hoppers N b. bulk bins Y c. P-tanks N d. mud tanks 6695: Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.
Y a. Coast Guard approved N b. marked with the name of the unit N c. equipped with a water light N d. All of the above 7021: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.
N a. slow and strong pulse N b. flushed and dry skin N c. slow and deep breathing Y d. pale and clammy skin 7307: All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that __________.
Y a. only one person may talk at a time N b. only two persons may talk at the same time N c. the radio only transmits N d. the radio only receives 7575: The upward pressure of displaced water is called __________.
Y a. buoyancy N b. deadweight N c. draft N d. freeboard 7843: After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?
N a. The unit is working properly. N b. The face mask is not sealed properly. Y c. The air bottle needs to be refilled. N d. The air supply hose has a leak. 8551: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one spanner and at least one __________.
N a. fire axe Y b. hose rack N c. sandbag N d. scupper 8711: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast from the forward-starboard column using starboard pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.
Y a. 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N b. 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N c. 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48 N d. 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48 9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.
N a. indication of broken bones Y b. breathing and heartbeat N c. symptoms of concussion N d. bleeding injuries 9381: If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.
N a. climb onto the bottom N b. swim away from the raft Y c. right the raft using the righting strap N d. inflate the righting bag 9605: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds less than 70 knots, has a draft of 10 feet 8 inches. The VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
N a. -2.3 feet N b. 0.0 feet Y c. 23.7 feet N d. 26.0 feet