This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
144: The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is __________.
N a. one and one-half times the length of a dot N b. twice the length of a dot Y c. three times the length of a dot N d. four times the length of a dot 607: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?
N a. A 100 GT towboat, 24 feet in length N b. A 90-foot towboat tied to the pier Y c. A 60-foot towboat pushing ahead N d. A 400 GT towboat anchored 628: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
N a. in the midships house N b. at the main deck manifold N c. at the vent header Y d. in the pumproom 642: As an extinguishing agent, foam __________.
Y a. conducts electricity N b. should be directed at the base of the fire N c. is most effective on burning gases which are flowing N d. extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature 811: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.
N a. constantly shifting the rudder Y b. rigging a sea anchor N c. moving all personnel aft N d. moving all personnel forward and low 828: A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class __________.
Y a. A N b. B N c. C N d. D 988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?
Y a. Carbon dioxide N b. Water (stored pressure) N c. Foam N d. Carbon tetrachloride 1248: In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________.
Y a. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed N b. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of extinguishment N c. water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire N d. the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel 1305: When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.
N a. straight Y b. to port N c. to starboard N d. None of the above 1364: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.
N a. Very pistol Y b. orange smoke signal N c. air horn N d. lantern 1521: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? (D006SA )
N a. A N b. B Y c. C N d. D 1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.
N a. turning the victim's head to the side to keep his airway open N b. positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body N c. giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no food Y d. elevating the head and shoulders slightly with a pillow 1666: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 10'-04", AFT 14'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0045
Y a. 1.91 feet N b. 2.09 feet N c. 2.21 feet N d. 2.48 feet 1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.
N a. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks N b. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks N c. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam Y d. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion 1731: Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?
Y a. An inert gas system N b. The deck foam system N c. The fire main system N d. A fixed water spray system 1777: The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain __________.
N a. a list of each port of discharge Y b. a line diagram of the vessel's transfer piping N c. a current crew list N d. the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation 1895: How can a SART's effective range be maximized?
N a. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. Y b. The SART should be held as high as possible. N c. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. N d. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. 1943: Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?
Y a. Once activated, these EPIRBs continuously send up a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. N b. The coded signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. N c. The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. N d. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. 2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
Y a. 2.4 feet (0.70 meters) N b. 2.8 feet (0.85 meters) N c. 3.0 feet (0.90 meters) N d. 3.2 feet (0.98 meters) 2135: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0051
N a. 395 tons Y b. 530 tons N c. 750 tons N d. 990 tons 2215: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a survival craft, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. plot a course for the nearest land N c. take a vote on which direction you should go Y d. shut down the engine(s) and set the sea anchor 2280: A vessel displaces 140,000 cubic feet of saltwater in a light condition. After loading 7500 tons of cargo and 200 tons of fuel, water and stores, she is "full and down". The vessel's light displacement is __________.
N a. 3000 tons N b. 3500 tons Y c. 4000 tons N d. 4500 tons 2455: The element used to keep weight on the bit at a constant value in spite of up-and-down movement of a MODU during floating drilling operations is the heave or drill string __________.
Y a. compensator N b. tensioner N c. stabilizer N d. equalizer 2489: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area?
N a. CO2 N b. Dry chemical N c. Monoxide powders Y d. Foam 2534: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene?
Y a. Nitric acid N b. Amides N c. Alcohols, glycols N d. Phenols, cresols 2629: Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a __________.
Y a. respiratory irritant N b. skin burning agent N c. blood poisoning agent N d. nerve paralyzing irritant 2903: Life jackets should be marked with the __________.
N a. maximum weight allowed N b. stowage space assigned N c. vessel's home port Y d. vessel's name 2979: Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. A vessel operating exclusively on inland waters N b. A vessel limited to 20 miles offshore, which carries a radiotelephone on board Y c. A vessel operating on the high seas or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes N d. A vessel limited to 100 miles offshore 2985: For a MODU with list, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll N b. decrease Y c. increase N d. remain constant 3082: On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be __________.
N a. kept locked up at all times when underway Y b. stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces N c. inaccessible to passengers N d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times 3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.
N a. FSCL N b. KG Y c. KGL N d. GML 3237: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.
N a. 1.09 feet N b. 1.60 feet Y c. 1.64 feet N d. 2.73 feet 3279: You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that __________.
N a. all wing voids and rakes are pumped dry before tying off the barge N b. the barge is moored next to the bank where it will be protected from a possible collision Y c. the barge is under the care of a watchman N d. a rake end is facing upstream to minimize the effect of current on the mooring lines 3365: What is the correct procedure to follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an OSV?
N a. Connect the float free link to the vessel. Y b. Pull the painter from the container and make it fast to the cleat provided. N c. Open the canopy relief valves. N d. Remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation. 3408: As shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )
N a. McCluny hook Y b. Fleming gear N c. releasing gear N d. sea painter 3414: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________.
N a. rigid liferaft Y b. life float N c. inflatable liferaft N d. survival capsule 3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?
N a. Once each day N b. Once each week Y c. Once each month N d. Once each trip 3535: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the ball joint angle will exceed 10° or the mooring line tensions will exceed __________.
N a. 348 kips N b. 500 kips Y c. 522 kips N d. 600 kips 3578: The "call" part of a signal by flashing light is made by the general call or by __________.
N a. sending "CQ" Y b. the identity signal of the station called N c. spelling the name of the station called N d. omitting the call if the name of the station is unknown 3695: In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be __________.
N a. tightened N b. slacked slightly Y c. completely slacked N d. adjusted to give the same line tensions as the windward lines 3800: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.
N a. spread apart as far as possible N b. held as tightly against your chest as possible N c. in a kneeling position Y d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles 4068: On board an OSV, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.
N a. switching to hydraulic steering N b. a dedicated crew N c. good equipment Y d. good communication 4285: During an ocean tow when the winds are less than 70 knots, the maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
N a. 38.75 feet N b. 42.00 feet N c. 44.00 feet Y d. 65.00 feet 4321: Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________.
Y a. preload N b. liquid variable load N c. fixed load N d. basic load 4355: If the maximum leg penetration of the COASTAL DRILLER is 75 feet, the water depth value in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts must be increased by __________.
N a. 75 feet Y b. 50 feet N c. 25 feet N d. 0 feet 4644: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 7240 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 273.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0165
N a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet N b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet N c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet Y d. LCG-FP 275.3 feet 4751: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #20. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with this transfer?
Y a. 565 ft-kips N b. 900 ft-kips N c. 2603 ft-kips N d. 3168 ft-kips 5177: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?
N a. 19.0 feet N b. 19.3 feet Y c. 19.6 feet N d. 20.4 feet 5225: If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.
N a. increase the righting moment N b. cause an increase in the righting arm N c. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position Y d. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle 5314: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 18'-08". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0176
N a. 1.05 feet N b. 1.15 feet Y c. 1.25 feet N d. 1.31 feet 5386: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?
N a. Carbon dioxide Y b. Carbon monoxide N c. Nitric oxide N d. Hydrogen sulfide 5781: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring line 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about __________.
N a. 375 kips Y b. 330 kips N c. 275 kips N d. 220 kips 5817: The two main types of load cells used in mooring tension gauges are __________.
Y a. distortion and compression N b. hydraulic and mechanical N c. magnetic and applied torque N d. frictionless and hydraulic 8367: How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?
N a. Light blue haze N b. Light brown haze N c. Light gray haze Y d. Perfectly clear 8747: If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated, the setback in the derrick should be lowered and placed in the pipe rack. Its weight should be accounted for as __________.
Y a. variable loads N b. drilling loads N c. environmental loads N d. fixed weight 9323: A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.
N a. rich to burn Y b. lean to burn N c. cool to burn N d. dense to burn 9414: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.
Y a. the fire to spread through the ventilation system N b. fixed foam systems to be ineffective N c. faster cooling of the fire N d. the accumulation of explosive gases 9605: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds less than 70 knots, has a draft of 10 feet 8 inches. The VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
N a. -2.3 feet N b. 0.0 feet Y c. 23.7 feet N d. 26.0 feet 9633: Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
N a. Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve. N b. Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space. N c. An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied. Y d. All of the above 9704: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
N a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. N b. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system. N c. The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing system. Y d. All of the above