USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.

100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.
178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.
270: When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.
657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13? 

    Y a. 1 watt or less
    N b. 5 watts
    N c. 10 watts
    N d. 20 watts
684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is __________. 

    N a. 2132 kilohertz
    Y b. 2182 kilohertz
    N c. 2670 kilohertz
    N d. 2750 kilohertz
774: If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying? 

    N a. The least depth of water in the channel is 8 meters.
    N b. Derelict dangerous to navigation to the north.
    N c. Navigation is closed.  You should navigate with caution.
    Y d. I have a male age 8 years.
775: During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure of at least __________. 

    N a. 100 pounds per square inch
    N b. the relief valve setting pressure
    N c. the shoreside pump discharge pressure
    Y d. 1½ times the maximum allowable working pressure
800: The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________. 

    N a. LCB and LCF
    N b. LCF and LCG
    N c. LHA and LCG
    Y d. LCB and LCG
1156: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance? 

    N a. It shall be fired at least once in every three months.
    Y b. A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months.
    N c. Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually.
    N d. No drills are required.
1246: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. 

    N a. a Very pistol
    Y b. a towing connection
    N c. a portable radio
    N d. canned milk
1252: When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed __________. 

    N a. over the top of the flames
    N b. off a bulkhead into the fire
    N c. in front of the fire
    Y d. at the base of the fire
1425: Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting? 

    N a. Compatible with all foam agents
    N b. Cleaner
    Y c. More protective against re-flash
    N d. All of the above
1471: What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned? 

    Y a. Immersion suit
    N b. Buoyant apparatus
    N c. Ring buoy
    N d. Life float
1573: The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in cycles of __________. 

    N a. 5 minutes on and 10 minutes off
    N b. 10 minutes on and 5 minutes off
    Y c. 15 minutes on and 5 minutes off
    N d. 15 minutes on and 10 minutes off
1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium? 

    N a. Leaves a residue
    Y b. Cost, relative to other agents
    N c. Breaks down while under prolonged storage
    N d. Conducts electricity
1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire? 

    N a. Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect
    N b. Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil
    Y c. Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment
    N d. Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction
1953: Which fitting is used to connect the boom to the mast? 

    N a. Clevis pin
    N b. Gunter-lug
    Y c. Gooseneck
    N d. Transom
2053: What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs? 

    N a. Channel 1
    N b. Channel 10
    Y c. Channel 16
    N d. Channel 68
2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? 

    N a. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels  responding to calls for assistance.
    N b. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before  entering a U.S. port from offshore.
    Y c. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.
    N d. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render  assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
2168: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress? 

    N a. compression
    Y b. tension
    N c. shear
    N d. racking
2189: Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is known as __________. 

    Y a. jibing
    N b. running before the wind
    N c. tacking
    N d. reefing
2403: A frame with two, or sometimes four, arms through which are threaded the guidelines and which is used to keep the drill stem and bit in line with the center opening in the temporary guide base is the __________. 

    N a. drill stem guide
    Y b. guide frame
    N c. drill string frame
    N d. casing guide
2505: The helicopter deck of a MODU must be marked with the units identification, appropriate aiming circles, and a continuous line on the perimeter which is __________. 

    N a. 8 inches wide
    Y b. 16 inches wide
    N c. 24 inches wide
    N d. 32 inches wide
2509: How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own? 

    Y a. One
    N b. Two
    N c. Three
    N d. None
2523: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower? 

    Y a. 2
    N b. 3
    N c. 4
    N d. 5
2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF? 

    N a. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70.
    Y b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16.
    N c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13.
    N d. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A.
2532: The appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and __________ . 

    N a. soluble oils
    N b. slop oils
    N c. cutting oils
    Y d. viscous oils
2609: Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft? 

    Y a. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on.
    N b. Switch on EPIRB and SART manually prior to launching and remain aboard vessel in distress.
    N c. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC with portable equipment.
    N d. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft.
2938: What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations) 

    Y a. Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants
    N b. Water-light, painter, and signal mirror
    N c. Water-light and painter only
    N d. Two paddles, painter, and six red flares
2967: When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________. 

    N a. centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line
    Y b. righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment
    N c. downflooding point is below water
    N d. deck-edge immersion occurs
3117: For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an increase in GML causes __________. 

    N a. list to stabilize at an angle of loll
    N b. trim to stabilize at an angle of loll
    N c. trim to increase
    Y d. trim to decrease
3149: To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should __________. 

    N a. break the joint in the fuel line at the engine and let the  gas run in the bilges
    N b. disconnect the wires at the spark plugs and make the spark  jump the gap
    N c. prime the engine with ether through spark plug openings
    Y d. ventilate the space, then check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor, and fuel line
3253: A semisubmersible displacing 17,600 long tons has an LCG 3.2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded into P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG? 

    N a. 0.80 foot forward of amidships
    N b. 1.20 feet forward of amidships
    Y c. 2.00 feet forward of amidships
    N d. 4.40 feet forward of amidships
3389: The draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 23'-06" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition. 

    N a. 77 tons
    Y b. 96 tons
    N c. 120 tons
    N d. 124 tons
3414: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________. 

    N a. rigid liferaft
    Y b. life float
    N c. inflatable liferaft
    N d. survival capsule
3425: What is the trim of a jack-up with a forward draft of 12 feet and an after draft of 13 feet? 

    N a. 0.5 foot by the stern
    Y b. 1.0 foot by the stern
    N c. 2.0 feet by the stern
    N d. 0.5 feet by the head
3607: With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is __________. 

    Y a. 1,378 feet
    N b. 1,423 feet
    N c. 1,591 feet
    N d. 1,624 feet
3738: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________. 

    Y a. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
    N b. administer a liquid stimulant
    N c. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
    N d. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness
3941: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and __________. 

    Y a. supplement the bilge pumps
    N b. provide saltwater service to the deck
    N c. emergency fuel-oil recovery
    N d. supplement the ballast pumps
4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")? 

    N a. "P"
    N b. "C"
    Y c. "H"
    N d. "Z"
4105: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials? 

    Y a. 0.06 foot aft
    N b. 0.14 foot aft
    N c. 0.27 foot aft
    N d. 0.40 foot aft
4116: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations will you find the answer? 

    N a. Subchapter D
    N b. Subchapter G
    Y c. Subchapter T
    N d. Subchapter U
4183: What is the shift in KG if all the liquid mud is dumped when the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load #3 (Preparing to Drill)? 

    N a. 1.26 feet downward
    Y b. 1.51 feet downward
    N c. 2.77 feet downward
    N d. 1.47 feet downward
4202: Your vessel is floating in water of density 1010. The fresh water allowance is 8 inches. How far below her marks may she be loaded so as to float at her mark in saltwater of density 1025? 

    N a. 3.2 inches
    Y b. 4.8 inches
    N c. 6.4 inches
    N d. 8.0 inches
4203: While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________. 

    N a. 0.8 second
    N b. 6.2 seconds
    Y c. 13.0 seconds
    N d. 17.0 seconds
4255: What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever? 

    N a. 450 kips
    Y b. 529 kips
    N c. 550 kips
    N d. 750 kips
4312: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 14'-07". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0158 

    Y a. 1.30 feet
    N b. 1.17 foot
    N c. 1.06 foot
    N d. 0.91 foot
4534: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5577 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.55 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0163 

    Y a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet
    N b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet
    N c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet
    N d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet
4593: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the port leg reaction? 

    N a. 5,063 kips
    N b. 5,104 kips
    Y c. 5,233 kips
    N d. 5,345 kips
5124: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 18'-08". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0173 

    Y a. 1.05 feet
    N b. 1.15 feet
    N c. 1.25 feet
    N d. 1.31 feet
5225: If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________. 

    N a. increase the righting moment
    N b. cause an increase in the righting arm
    N c. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position
    Y d. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
5561: What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system? 

    N a. Guy wire
    N b. Joining pendant
    N c. Wildcat leader
    Y d. Anchor pendant
5644: You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________. 

    N a. containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents
    Y b. a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet
    N c. at least two pumps that may be put in line
    N d. at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck
6621: Locations on a MODU where flammable hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to drilling operations are defined as __________. 

    N a. gaseous locations
    N b. hazardous locations
    Y c. classified locations
    N d. designated locations
6684: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 19'-04", AFT 21'-02". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 68 tons of seawater. 

    N a. FWD 19'-09.7", AFT 20'-10.0"
    Y b. FWD 19'-11.1", AFT 20'-09.4"
    N c. FWD 19'-11.7", AFT 20'-08.8"
    N d. FWD 20'-00.3", AFT 20'-08.2"
8127: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter? 

    N a. 134.95 feet
    N b. 135.91 feet
    Y c. 136.38 feet
    N d. 136.89 feet
8713: Port ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast the forward-port column using port ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________. 

    Y a. 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
    N b. 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
    N c. 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48
    N d. 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48
9002: On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of each accommodation space must be located above __________. 

    N a. the operating draft
    N b. the survival draft
    N c. the transit draft
    Y d. the deepest load line
9243: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark? 

    N a. 43 feet 6 inches
    Y b. 45 feet 6 inches
    N c. 48 feet 0 inches
    N d. 49 feet 6 inches
9487: The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of __________. 

    N a. hydrodynamic forces
    N b. flotation
    N c. gravity
    Y d. buoyancy