This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?
N a. Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint. N b. Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply a pressure dressing. N c. Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and splint. Y d. Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice. 284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.
N a. G421G Y b. G4214 N c. G421G421 N d. G4211 557: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or channel __________.
N a. 12 Y b. 13 N c. 14 N d. 16 582: Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.
N a. in a freezer Y b. in a cool dry place N c. at a temperature not less than 80°F N d. in open bins 678: Fire may be spread by which means?
N a. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces N b. Direct radiation N c. Convection Y d. All of the above 709: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 ft. wide and 60 ft. long is partially filled with saltwater? (The vessel's displacement is 10,000 tons.)
N a. 3.00 feet Y b. 3.09 feet N c. 3.15 feet N d. 3.20 feet 799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.
N a. conspicuously marked N b. stowed anywhere N c. left on deck Y d. secured or stowed out of the way 958: Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion?
N a. Coal N b. Scrap rubber N c. Leather Y d. All of the above 1206: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.
N a. knife N b. towing connection N c. lifeline Y d. All of the above 1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.
N a. keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly N b. prevent voltage fluctuations Y c. keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated N d. make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the fuses blow 1332: An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to __________.
N a. stop ventilation N b. stop the vessel Y c. de-energize the circuit N d. apply water to extinguish the fire 1494: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
Y a. 6 N b. 5 N c. 3 N d. 3 PORT 1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Post a lookout. N c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y d. Pick up other survivors. 1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in __________.
N a. sand Y b. soft soil N c. stiff clay N d. heterogeneous soil 1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?
N a. A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail. Y b. You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze. N c. You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet. N d. You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension. 1839: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020° relative would be __________.
Y a. coming about N b. close hauled on the port tack N c. running before the wind N d. on a broad reach on the starboard tack 1884: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Unless the rules require otherwise, a sailing vessel must keep out of the way of __________.
N a. an overtaking vessel N b. a pilot vessel on station N c. another sailing vessel on a crossing course Y d. a vessel trawling 1995: Who is responsible for insuring that each survival craft on a mobile offshore drilling unit is cleaned and inspected once a year?
N a. The certificated lifeboatman assigned to that craft N b. The certificated able seaman assigned to that craft N c. The Coast Guard inspecting officer Y d. The designated person in charge of the rig 1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?
N a. AMVER Y b. SafetyNET N c. NAVTEX N d. INMARSAT-M SES 2229: To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that __________.
N a. the jib is on one side of the vessel and the mainsail on the other Y b. an air slot is formed between the two sails N c. one sail is as close to a right angle as possible to the other N d. as much of a gap as possible exists between the two sails in order to catch the most wind 2335: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
Y a. Chain reaction N b. Electricity N c. Pressure N d. Smoke 2396: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 25.6 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 17,222 foot-tons Y b. 19,709 foot-tons N c. 21,137 foot-tons N d. 22,002 foot-tons 2507: When using a crane for transferring personnel in a basket, the load hook must be equipped with a __________.
N a. moused shackle Y b. safety latch N c. safety belt for each rider N d. quick-release device 2562: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower?
N a. 2 N b. 3 Y c. 4 N d. 5 2630: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire?
N a. Alcohol foam N b. CO2 N c. Dry chemical Y d. Water fog 2673: A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.
N a. longitudinally framed Y b. transversely framed N c. cellular framed N d. web framed 2706: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline.
Y a. 15° N b. 18° N c. 21° N d. 24° 2949: Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Location of the occurrence N b. Number and name of vessel N c. Names of owners Y d. All of the above 3060: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 5928 tons N b. 6016 tons Y c. 6149 tons N d. 6242 tons 3157: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.
N a. C1S Y b. 9S N c. 9P N d. 2P 3194: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?
Y a. non-toxic gas N b. Oxygen N c. Hydrogen N d. Helium 3346: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. Which action occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?
Y a. The sea anchor is deployed. N b. The floor inflates. N c. If upside down, the raft will right itself. N d. The painter detaches from the raft. 3426: In illustration D011SA, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )
N a. releasing gear N b. sea painter Y c. Fleming gear N d. McCluny hook 3510: When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure?
N a. 4 N b. 8 Y c. 12 N d. 24 3831: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.
N a. 24 Port N b. 33 Port Y c. 34 Port N d. 44 Port 3851: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.
N a. 33 Starboard Y b. 36 Starboard N c. 33 Port N d. 36 Port 3971: What weight is added when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?
N a. 19.54 long tons N b. 55.71 long tons Y c. 75.25 long tons N d. 94.79 long tons 4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?
N a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area. N b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port. N c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing. Y d. All of the above 4109: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
N a. Subchapter B N b. Subchapter D N c. Subchapter F Y d. Subchapter T 4134: Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
N a. with both pumps on line at the same time Y b. with one pump on standby N c. with the follow-up gear disconnected N d. only when the rudder is moved amidships 4189: You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)
N a. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to sea. Y b. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany. N c. You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to compensate. N d. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical mark upon arrival in the tropical zone. 4250: A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in salt water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"?
N a. 65.1 Y b. 69.6 N c. 74.3 N d. 76.8 4405: Leg penetration to depths which require pullout forces greater than that which can be supplied by the buoyancy of the hull may exist in __________.
N a. soft mud N b. sand N c. silt Y d. soft to firm clays 4763: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred between tanks 6 and 7 to level the vessel in list?
N a. 47.2 kips tank #7 to tank #6 N b. 23.6 kips tank #7 to tank #6 Y c. 23.6 kips tank #6 to tank #7 N d. 47.2 kips tank #6 to tank #7 5038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater.
N a. FWD 22'-10.7", AFT 25'-00.9" N b. FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 25'-00.3" N c. FWD 22'-11.9", AFT 24'-11.7" Y d. FWD 23'-00.5", AFT 24'-11.1" 5163: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?
N a. 61.13 feet Y b. 61.19 feet N c. 61.22 feet N d. 62.94 feet 5434: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
N a. 4.11 N b. 4.54 Y c. 4.98 N d. 5.13 5565: What is the bow type anchor shackle primarily used for?
N a. Chain to chain connections N b. Chain to anchor connections N c. Kenter link to anchor connections Y d. Wire rope connections 5752: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0184
N a. Available GM 2.8 ft N b. Available GM 3.2 ft Y c. Available GM 3.5 ft N d. Available GM 3.8 ft 5806: Damage stability is the stability __________.
N a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots N b. before collision Y c. after flooding N d. at the maximum load 5958: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you are advancing?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6213: When patching holes in the hull of a MODU, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as __________.
N a. caulking Y b. gaskets N c. strongbacks N d. wedges 6785: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit __________.
N a. easy access to its storage compartment N b. replacement of the battery without exposure to the weather Y c. it to float free if the unit sinks N d. it to remain attached to the unit 7075: Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?
N a. Major multiple fractures N b. Eye injuries N c. Back injuries with spinal-cord damage Y d. Airway and breathing difficulties 8417: Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause __________.
N a. decreased fuel efficiency N b. increased exhaust temperature N c. black smoke Y d. overspeed trip 8537: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. satisfactory, keep the unit at transit draft N b. satisfactory, put the unit in standby Y c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 9273: After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.
N a. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air Y b. regular checks of bilge levels N c. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise N d. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water 9467: When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting moment is __________.
N a. negative Y b. zero N c. positive N d. maximum 9633: Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
N a. Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve. N b. Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space. N c. An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied. Y d. All of the above 9703: Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
N a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. N b. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system. Y c. The installation of a water sprinkler extinguishing system is prohibited. N d. All of the above