This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
294: If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist it should __________.
N a. hoist ZQ N b. hoist ZL Y c. keep the answering pennant at the dip N d. raise and lower the answering pennant 338: A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a __________.
N a. major burn N b. secondary burn Y c. second-degree burn N d. blister burn 381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
N a. The distance is 325 miles. Y b. The longitude is 3°25'. N c. The course is 325°. N d. Change course to 325°. 461: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
Y a. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration. N b. Channel 16 (156.8 MHz) may be used for distress messages. N c. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency available. N d. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz. 480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.
Y a. 33'-00" N b. 33'-04" N c. 33'-08" N d. 33'-11" 640: The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its __________.
N a. free surface N b. marginal stability Y c. reserve buoyancy N d. freeboard 772: What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel?
N a. It be operated at one and one half times normal operating pressure for ten minutes. N b. Safety and/or relief valves settings be checked at two and one half times normal operating pressures. Y c. It be installed to the satisfaction of the cognizant OCMI N d. All of the above 945: The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance is __________.
N a. white N b. green Y c. red N d. yellow 951: If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should __________.
N a. drain any blisters N b. apply antiseptic ointment N c. scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection Y d. immerse the arm in cold water 1070: On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of __________.
N a. plastic, rubber, or seamless steel tubing N b. stainless steel, iron, or brass N c. copper, plastic, stainless steel, or galvanized iron Y d. annealed tubing of copper, nickel-copper, or copper nickel 1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.
N a. keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly N b. prevent voltage fluctuations Y c. keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated N d. make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the fuses blow 1372: It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________.
N a. allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke N b. extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering Y c. prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire N d. protect fire fighting personnel from smoke 1395: After you have thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the liferaft by __________.
Y a. pulling on the painter line N b. forcing open the container which operates the CO2 N c. hitting the hydrostatic release N d. using the hand pump provided 1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the __________.
Y a. bow N b. mid-section N c. stern N d. All of the above 1513: Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.
N a. 2 months N b. 4 months N c. 6 months Y d. year 1538: Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________.
Y a. collecting and discharging garbage N b. disposing waste from marine sanitation devices N c. reducing the amount of shipboard waste N d. segregating the different types of shipboard waste 1544: While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. These entries shall be made __________.
N a. before the end of the voyage N b. before arriving at your next port N c. no later than 24 hours after disposal of the garbage Y d. at the time the garbage was disposed 1664: The number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor vessel" is based on the vessel's __________.
N a. length Y b. gross tonnage N c. draft N d. crew list 1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?
N a. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. N b. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. N c. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. Y d. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. 1770: On a survival craft VHF radio precautions shall be taken to prevent the inadvertent selection of which channel __________.
N a. 6 N b. 8 Y c. 16 N d. 22 1785: What is a GMDSS functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?
N a. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) licensed GMDSS operators N b. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements that are determined by where the vessel sails. N c. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts. Y d. All of the above 1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)
N a. 2.17 feet N b. 2.32 feet Y c. 2.52 feet N d. 3.01 feet 2120: You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 34 tons Y b. 62 tons N c. 134 tons N d. 186 tons 2158: You have approximately 15 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 300 tons)
N a. 0.1 foot N b. 0.2 foot N c. 0.3 foot Y d. 0.4 foot 2235: You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.
Y a. 1650 feet (500 meters) N b. 1750 feet (533 meters) N c. 1970 feet (600 meters) N d. 2500 feet (762 meters) 2244: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is __________.
Y a. -20°F N b. 43°C N c. 108°F N d. not available 2291: The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to __________.
Y a. right the craft in case of capsizing N b. increase area for radar detection N c. act as a sail in case of a power loss N d. steady the craft in heavy seas 2302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0056
N a. Available GM 6.8 ft N b. Available GM 5.4 ft Y c. Available GM 4.1 ft N d. Available GM 3.6 ft 2359: An example of a grade D product is __________.
N a. heavy fuel oil N b. aviation gas grade 115/145 Y c. kerosene N d. commercial gasoline 2432: You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be __________.
N a. sweet N b. similar to turpentine Y c. fishy N d. similar to ammonia 2468: What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid?
N a. Methyl alcohol N b. Heptane Y c. Mineral spirits N d. iso-Hexane 2536: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.
N a. shut off all electrical power N b. close all openings to the area Y c. cool the bulkheads around the fire N d. remove combustibles from direct exposure 2599: Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.
Y a. cutting off the supply of oxygen N b. removing the fuel N c. cooling below the ignition temperature N d. spraying with water 2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline?
N a. Aluminum Y b. Copper N c. Nickel N d. Mild steel 2683: On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.
Y a. plating N b. beam N c. stiffener N d. stanchion 2700: According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?
N a. Electrical cut off switch Y b. A fusible link N c. Manual cut off switch N d. A water spray actuator 2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.
N a. empty Y b. fully ballasted N c. partially ballasted N d. sealed 2930: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 16'-08". If you then load 1225 tons of cargo in the lower hold (VCG 12 feet) and 875 tons of cargo in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 0.0 feet Y b. 0.8 foot N c. 1.2 feet N d. 1.9 feet 3189: If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.
Y a. a defective ignition system N b. low lube oil level N c. weak valve springs N d. too heavy a load 3558: Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________.
Y a. stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position N b. limit the amount of cable on the drum N c. limit the ascent rate N d. stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit 3757: What are the symptoms of sun stroke?
N a. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, skin is cold and clammy. Y b. Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot and dry. N c. Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, skin is clammy. N d. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, skin is clammy. 3769: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
N a. abandon ship N b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations Y c. fire and emergency N d. man overboard 3910: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.
N a. be of a light color N b. be 250 meters in length Y c. have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs N d. be made of synthetic material 4066: The most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns is __________.
N a. reducing disfigurement Y b. preventing infection N c. cooling with ice water N d. reducing swelling 4169: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine about to surface from periscope depth is __________.
N a. green N b. yellow Y c. white N d. red 4273: The overturning forces acting on a floating jack-up are generally dominated by __________.
N a. waves N b. current Y c. wind N d. tide 5493: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that connecting links and anchor shackles be inspected using __________.
N a. visual examinations Y b. magnetic particle inspection N c. dye penetrant inspection N d. x-ray inspection 5507: The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for __________.
N a. anchor chain N b. wire rope Y c. connecting links N d. pendant wires 5547: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.
N a. increase fatigue life N b. eliminate the need for mooring buoys N c. prevent the anchor from fouling Y d. increase the catenary 5573: To develop maximum anchor holding power, the optimum angle between the anchor's shank and the mooring lines is __________.
Y a. 0 degrees N b. 10 degrees N c. 20 degrees N d. 30 degrees 5735: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.
N a. weaker Y b. greater N c. equal N d. indeterminable 5793: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the offset is 7%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.
N a. 6.5% N b. 5.0% Y c. 4.0% N d. 2.5% 5905: The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated __________.
N a. at each alarm bell N b. at each alarm actuator N c. near all exits Y d. on the Muster List ("Station Bill") 6071: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must withstand a bursting pressure of at least __________.
N a. 5,000 pounds per square inch Y b. 6,000 pounds per square inch N c. 8,000 pounds per square inch N d. 10,000 pounds per square inch 6811: A mobile offshore drilling unit crane certificate is required to be maintained __________.
Y a. on the unit N b. in the company office N c. on file with the OCMI N d. on file with the American Bureau of Shipping 7595: For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives the __________.
Y a. righting moment N b. vertical moment N c. longitudinal moment N d. transverse moment 8055: When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.
N a. sea anchor is deployed N b. hydraulic starting system has been drained Y c. hydraulic pressure is within the specified range N d. steering controls are locked 8997: Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.
N a. TCG Y b. transverse moment N c. righting moment N d. transverse free surface moment 9313: When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to __________.
Y a. look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body N b. locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes N c. remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn N d. apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth 9373: If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________.
N a. release the CO2 flooding system N b. open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire N c. enter and use a portable extinguisher Y d. secure the ventilation