This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
95: A spark arrestor __________.
N a. keeps sparks from falling into an open tank N b. secures covers on ullage openings Y c. prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system N d. grounds static electricity 380: You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
N a. Shutting off electricity to damaged cables Y b. Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard N c. Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side N d. Removing burned debris from the cargo hold 450: Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?
N a. Dry chemical N b. CO2 N c. Foam Y d. Dry powder 527: The VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel is __________.
N a. 156.8 MHz (channel 16) N b. 156.7 MHz (channel 14) Y c. 156.65 MHz (channel 13) N d. 156.6 MHz (channel 12) 555: The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted __________.
N a. in the pilothouse N b. in the officer's lounge N c. in the upper pumproom flat Y d. where they can be easily seen or readily available 565: Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by __________.
N a. driving wooden plugs into the vents N b. closing the lids on the vents Y c. plugging the scuppers N d. plugging the sounding pipes 699: What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel?
N a. Three feet Y b. Four feet N c. Five feet N d. Six feet 720: The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the __________.
Y a. center of buoyancy N b. center of flotation N c. center of gravity N d. tipping center 771: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do?
N a. Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a pilot. Y b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled. N c. Stop your vessel instantly. N d. Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering with difficulty. 1065: Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________.
N a. release the gripes N b. release tricing pendants Y c. put the cap on the drain N d. lift the brake handle 1092: Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator?
Y a. Several seconds will elapse between the taking of a sample and the reading appearing on the dial. N b. The instrument will operate in any atmosphere. N c. Toxicity of the atmosphere is measured by the instrument. N d. All of the above 1374: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.
Y a. sealing clamps N b. repair tape N c. a tube patch N d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit 1417: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.
N a. down by the head N b. down by the stern Y c. inclined due to off-center weight N d. inclined due to wind 1441: On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
N a. 1 of each Y b. 2 of each N c. 3 of each N d. 4 of each 1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Post a lookout. N c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y d. Pick up other survivors. 1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in __________.
N a. sand Y b. soft soil N c. stiff clay N d. heterogeneous soil 1934: Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
N a. Radio Direction Finder (RDF) Y b. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz N c. Survival Craft Transceiver N d. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz 1937: On offshore drilling units, a fire drill must be conducted at least once a __________.
Y a. week N b. month N c. quarter N d. year 2046: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. 8 tons N b. 12 tons N c. 10 tons Y d. 14 tons 2208: Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.
N a. slack the jib sheet Y b. slack the mizzen sheet N c. put your rudder hard to port N d. All of the above 2236: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 25'-11". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 23'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 345 tons 124 feet aft of the tipping center N b. 525 tons 18 feet forward of the tipping center N c. 640 tons 74 feet aft of the tipping center Y d. 690 tons 62 feet aft of the tipping center 2385: When drilling from a MODU, the conductor casing is landed with its top extending to just __________.
N a. above the sea floor Y b. below the drill floor N c. below sea level N d. below the sea floor 2435: The joint of the riser in a marine riser system that compensates for heave, the up-and-down motion of a floater, is the __________.
N a. flex joint Y b. slip joint N c. heave joint N d. riser joint 2446: If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?
N a. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. N b. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout. Y c. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. N d. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in distress to download the necessary information 2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft N b. Available GM 4.24 ft Y c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2604: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
Y a. 37 N b. 31 N c. 26 N d. 23 2728: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-00", AFT 14'-08"; and the KG is 25.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.5 feet off the centerline.
Y a. 0.6 foot N b. 1.3 feet N c. 1.9 feet N d. 2.9 feet 2790: The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is __________.
N a. variable N b. the same N c. lighter Y d. heavier 3149: To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should __________.
N a. break the joint in the fuel line at the engine and let the gas run in the bilges N b. disconnect the wires at the spark plugs and make the spark jump the gap N c. prime the engine with ether through spark plug openings Y d. ventilate the space, then check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor, and fuel line 3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 1/2 inch high N b. 1 inch high Y c. Height not specified N d. 1-1/2 inches high 3447: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the list?
N a. 10 feet to port Y b. 5 feet to port N c. 2.5 feet to port N d. 5 feet to starboard 3503: The transverse distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.
Y a. 122'-09" N b. 164'-00" N c. 217'-01" N d. 260'-05" 3519: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the ending, and the __________.
N a. reply Y b. text N c. time N d. answer 3525: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.
N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons N b. eight anchor buoys Y c. anchors N d. lower hull fuel 3689: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.
Y a. without losing the rhythm of respiration N b. only with the help of two other people N c. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes N d. at ten-minute intervals 3763: What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?
N a. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts Y b. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction N c. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain N d. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction 3796: Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?
N a. Ration food and water supplies Y b. Search for survivors N c. Determine position and closest point of land N d. Check pyrotechnic supplies 3883: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
N a. A sailing vessel N b. A fishing vessel Y c. A non self-propelled vessel N d. A towing vessel 4053: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting trim angle?
N a. 3.49 degrees to the stern N b. 4.69 degrees to the stern Y c. 5.18 degrees to the stern N d. 5.68 degrees to the stern 4140: In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.
N a. trick wheel Y b. follow-up control N c. six-way valve N d. Rapson slide 4371: Where the seabed consists of sand or silt, the most severe potential problem for an independent-leg jack-up can result from __________.
Y a. scour N b. penetration N c. marine growth N d. insufficient preload 4455: What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The davit-launched liferaft is easier to maintain. N b. The davit-launched liferaft is made of fire-retardant material. N c. The davit-launched liferaft has a built-in sprinkler system for fire protection. Y d. The davit-launched liferaft enables personnel to enter the raft without having to enter the water. 4773: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what longitudinal moment would have to be created to level the unit in trim at the new draft?
N a. 25,846 ft-kips N b. 17,119 ft-kips N c. 8,727 ft-kips Y d. 1,788 ft-kips 5061: During a move to a new location, a jack-up drilling unit with personnel on board is towed through a heavy rainstorm. What signal must be sounded by the drilling rig when visibility is restricted?
N a. One prolonged blast N b. Two prolonged blasts N c. One prolonged and two short blasts Y d. One prolonged and three short blasts 5354: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.
N a. 17'-00" N b. 16'-10" N c. 16'-07" Y d. 16'-04" 5461: Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as the __________.
Y a. safe operating load N b. normal operating tension N c. emergency working load N d. allowable storm load 5644: You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________.
N a. containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents Y b. a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet N c. at least two pumps that may be put in line N d. at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck 5933: Each fire hydrant must have at least one spanner and at least one __________.
Y a. hose rack or reel N b. all purpose nozzle N c. foam applicator N d. pick axe 5936: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0188
N a. Available GM 4.1 ft Y b. Available GM 4.3 ft N c. Available GM 4.7 ft N d. Available GM 5.1 ft 6667: On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.
N a. be located in close proximity to the main control station N b. be equipped with battery powered emergency lighting Y c. be marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS" N d. All of the above 7081: In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________.
N a. provide the necessary medication Y b. rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries N c. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury N d. prescribe treatment for the victim 7591: Stability is determined principally by the location of the center of gravity and the __________.
N a. aft perpendicular Y b. center of buoyancy N c. keel N d. center of flotation 8645: In the analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregarded are the beneficial effects of moorings and __________.
N a. horizontal area of the platform N b. vertical area of the platform Y c. countermeasures N d. wind strength 8716: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?
Y a. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge. N b. They are to be kept closed at all times. N c. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down. N d. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire. 8845: A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60?
N a. 17 feet 9 inches Y b. 18 feet 3 inches N c. 18 feet 9 inches N d. 21 feet 3 inches 8993: The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.
N a. baseline N b. vertical reference plane Y c. hull N d. horizontal reference plane 9257: The shear rams of a MODU blowout preventer stack are used in emergency well control to __________.
N a. close and seal around the drill pipe N b. close and seal around casing Y c. cut off pipe inside the preventer stack N d. close and seal around drill collars 9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.
N a. accumulators Y b. control pods N c. consoles N d. shuttle controls 9547: A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
N a. lower than the keel Y b. at the same height as the center of gravity N c. exactly at midships N d. at the center of the waterplane area