This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
51: On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?
N a. Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached Y b. Combustible gas indicator N c. Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves N d. Flame safety lamp 70: What represents the center of gravity? (D001SA )
N a. GZ N b. M N c. B Y d. G 76: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________.
N a. one B-II N b. one C-II Y c. two B-II's or C-II's N d. two A-II's or B-II's 255: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens ONLY __________.
N a. if the barge is towed on a hawser astern N b. if an approved type B-II fire extinguisher is provided Y c. when the open tanks are gas free N d. for periods not to exceed five minutes 291: A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes __________.
N a. the minimum fire extinguishing equipment, lifejackets, survival and rescue craft she must carry N b. the name of the managing operator N c. any special conditions or restrictions on her operation Y d. All the above 477: The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of __________.
N a. the Master or person in charge of the vessel N b. a person designated by the Master N c. a person on board to pilot the vessel Y d. All of the above 502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________.
N a. be kept as high and as far inboard as possible N b. not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to another N c. have some means to make them watertight Y d. All of the above 513: Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.
N a. the forward boat on the starboard side N b. behind boat number 1 on the port side Y c. behind boat number 1 on the starboard side N d. behind boat number 2 on the port side 542: Before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle, you must __________. (D004SA )
N a. install the high-velocity nozzle tip N b. move the handle to position 2 N c. move the handle to position 1 Y d. remove the high-velocity nozzle tip 993: If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what will be your full rolling period?
N a. 11 seconds N b. 15 seconds N c. 20 seconds Y d. 22 seconds 1069: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.
N a. Monday, Wednesday, and Friday Y b. 48 hours N c. 36 hours N d. 24 hours 1108: The vapor pressure of a substance __________.
Y a. increases with the temperature N b. decreases as temperature increases N c. is not affected by temperature N d. may increase or decrease as the temperature rises 1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
N a. The sailing plan may be sent in any reasonable time before departure, but not later than 12 hours after departure. N b. Distress messages should be sent to the AMVER center. N c. In the body of the sailing plan report, the letter G is used to indicate a great circle course. Y d. There are four different message reports in the AMVER system. 1476: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 6 Y b. 5 N c. 3 N d. 3 STARBOARD 1779: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.
N a. after the first position report Y b. within a few hours before or after departure N c. 24 hours prior to departure N d. 24 hours after departure 1787: Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?
N a. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level N b. The power switch is set to the "high" output position resulting in receiver over loading Y c. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level N d. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16 1809: For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?
N a. Vessels over 500 gross tons must carry at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. N b. Passenger vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry only one licensed GMDSS Radio Operator, but passenger vessels larger than 500 must carry two licensed Operators. Y c. Vessels larger than 500 gross tons must carry certain additional GMDSS equipment than what a vessel between 300-500 gross tons must carry. N d. Vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry no more than one EPIRB, SART and survival craft transceiver, but vessels larger than 500 gross tons must carry two of each unit. 1842: How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?
N a. 2 Y b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 5 1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the __________. (D001SL )
N a. leech N b. clew Y c. luff N d. headboard 1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Acetonitrile N b. Molten sulfur Y c. Dodecanol N d. Soybean oil 2003: Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
Y a. The person in charge N b. The safety man N c. The rig superintendent N d. The driller 2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?
N a. Buoyant cushion N b. Buoyant vest Y c. Life jacket N d. Ring life buoy 2208: Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.
N a. slack the jib sheet Y b. slack the mizzen sheet N c. put your rudder hard to port N d. All of the above 2211: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.
Y a. latitude, longitude and estimated distance from shore N b. latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water N c. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip N d. Latitude and longitude only 2309: Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft; KG is 20.5 ft. The angle of list when the weight is lifted will be __________.
N a. 1.4° N b. 2.8° N c. 3.4° Y d. 5.8° 2356: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 21'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 300 tons are loaded 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 225 tons are loaded 150 feet aft of amidships; and 122 tons of fuel are pumped 72 feet aft.
Y a. FWD 22'-11", AFT 22'-09" N b. FWD 23'-00", AFT 23'-00" N c. FWD 23'-02", AFT 23'-01" N d. FWD 23'-03", AFT 23'-05" 2357: When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?
N a. When the vessel is in an overloaded condition N b. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment AND shore-based maintenance Y c. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged N d. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. 2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.
N a. mean draft N b. calculated draft N c. deep draft Y d. load line draft 2986: What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?
Y a. Emergency Instructions N b. A tide table for the area N c. Instructions on artificial respiration N d. The location of the first aid kit 3036: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0098
N a. 262.3 ft N b. 264.9 ft Y c. 268.1 ft N d. 270.3 ft 3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. decrease N c. increase N d. remain constant 3148: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 29'-06", AFT 29'-02". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0110
N a. FWD 29'-07", AFT 29'-08" N b. FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-10" Y c. FWD 29'-03", AFT 30'-00" N d. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-02" 3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 1/2 inch high N b. 1 inch high Y c. Height not specified N d. 1-1/2 inches high 3181: Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________.
N a. free surface effects N b. capsizing the MODU Y c. continued progressive flooding N d. wind overturning moments 3345: When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.
Y a. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel N b. not fastened to anything N c. secured to the hydrostatic release N d. fastened to the raft container 3400: How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. NEW-MER-AL-NINER N b. NUM-BER-NINE Y c. NO-VAY-NINER N d. OK-TOH-NINE 3601: For the DEEP DRILLER, the maximum permissible offset which can be tolerated while drilling is __________.
N a. 10% of water depth Y b. 6% of water depth N c. 4% of water depth N d. 2% of water depth 3723: A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be __________.
Y a. moved to a cool room and told to lie down N b. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously N c. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest N d. None of the above is correct. 3819: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.
N a. tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current Y b. group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle N c. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance N d. from a raft by lashing their life jackets together 4078: When shifting to a course where the wind comes more from astern, easing the mainsheet will __________.
N a. bring the boom more fore and aft N b. decrease the force needed to haul on the mainsheet N c. bring the head of the sail down from the top of the mast Y d. allow the sail to catch more wind 4203: While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________.
N a. 0.8 second N b. 6.2 seconds Y c. 13.0 seconds N d. 17.0 seconds 4257: Considering the lightweight changes to the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum permitted hook load permitted when 450 kips are in the setback and 200 kips are in the cantilever pipe rack?
N a. 350 kips Y b. 529 kips N c. 550 kips N d. 750 kips 4260: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. N c. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure to flame and burning. N d. The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship. 4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.
Y a. environmental loading N b. variable loading N c. fixed loading N d. basic loading 5091: Obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf must be displayed __________.
N a. at all times Y b. between sunset and sunrise N c. whenever visibility is restricted N d. whenever vessels approach within one-half mile 5616: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?
N a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 Y d. 4 5751: When piggybacking anchors, the distance between the primary anchor and the secondary anchor is determined by __________.
N a. bottom conditions N b. anchor types Y c. water depth N d. workboat winch capacity 5752: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0184
N a. Available GM 2.8 ft N b. Available GM 3.2 ft Y c. Available GM 3.5 ft N d. Available GM 3.8 ft 5897: The type of shackle used in making up tow lines to a MODU should be __________.
N a. screw pin N b. chain N c. anchor Y d. safety 5907: The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.
Y a. person in charge N b. Coast Guard marine inspection officer N c. company safety director N d. entire crew 6761: Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or, from the date of manufacture, not later than __________.
N a. 6 months N b. 12 months N c. 24 months Y d. 42 months 6821: How long shall the Master or person in charge of a MODU maintaining an unofficial logbook retain this logbook on board?
N a. 6 months N b. 1 year N c. 5 years Y d. Until the next inspection for certification 8117: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps by using the __________.
N a. starboard ballast pump N b. port saltwater service pump Y c. port drill water pump N d. starboard ballast pump and crossover system 8377: What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?
N a. Cooling water pressure N b. Jacket water treatment Y c. Air flow through the radiator N d. Low heat of combustion 8563: How often must CO2 systems be inspected to confirm cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge?
N a. quarterly N b. semiannually Y c. annually N d. biannually 8627: What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?
N a. 0.62 foot aft Y b. 0.65 foot aft N c. 0.68 foot aft N d. 0.71 foot aft 8713: Port ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast the forward-port column using port ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.
Y a. 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N b. 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N c. 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48 N d. 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48 8825: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel?
N a. 1 foot 6 inches to starboard Y b. 3 feet to starboard N c. 3 feet to port N d. 1 foot 6 inches to port 9101: Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by __________.
N a. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only Y b. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling with powder N c. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation N d. recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder 9303: When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.
N a. increase Y b. decrease N c. are directly proportional N d. remain unchanged