USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


27: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.


173: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.


365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974?


603: The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.

    N a. be fitted at the end with an approved safety shackle
    N b. have a long eye splice at the end, and a shackle and pin should be attached to the painter with a lanyard
    Y c. have a long eye splice at the end, and a hardwood toggle should be attached to the thwart with a lanyard
    N d. be fitted with a swivel and quick-releasing pelican hook

610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

    N a. initial stability
    N b. free surface
    N c. permeability
    Y d. stability at large angles of inclination

642: As an extinguishing agent, foam __________.

    Y a. conducts electricity
    N b. should be directed at the base of the fire
    N c. is most effective on burning gases which are flowing
    N d. extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature

702: Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?

    Y a. Foam conducts electricity.
    N b. To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire.
    N c. Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing.
    N d. Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires.

707: If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must __________.

    N a. immediately anchor your vessel and arrange for repairs to the system
    N b. moor your vessel at the nearest dock available and arrange for repairs to the system
    N c. arrange for the repair of the system to be completed within 48 hours
    Y d. exercise due diligence to restore the system at the earliest practicable time

892: While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________.

    N a. secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders
    N b. continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2
    Y c. retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning
    N d. make sure all doors and vents are secured

902: Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

    N a. Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.
    N b. Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.
    Y c. Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.
    N d. Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.

925: The center of flotation of a vessel is the geometric center of the __________.

    N a. underwater volume
    N b. above water volume
    N c. amidships section
    Y d. waterplane area

1012: The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed __________.

    Y a. at the base of the flames
    N b. at the center of the flames
    N c. to the lee side of the flames
    N d. over the tops of the flames

1063: Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens __________.

    N a. and 30 square inches of louvers
    N b. three inches in diameter with a check valve to prevent water from entering in heavy weather
    N c. three inches in circumference inside the fill pipe
    Y d. consisting of a single screen of at least 30 X 30 mesh, corrosion resistant wire

1161: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?

    N a. Give the vessel a wide berth as she is carrying dangerous goods.
    N b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled.
    N c. Stop your vessel instantly.
    Y d. Slow your vessel and keep well clear because she has a diver down.

1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?

    Y a. They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered.
    N b. They are normally attached to the davit span.
    N c. They are needed only on radial davits.
    N d. They are used to clear the puddings.

1242: The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord __________.

    Y a. serves as a sea painter
    N b. detaches from the liferaft automatically
    N c. is used to rig the boarding ladder
    N d. is cut immediately as it is of no further use

1596: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

    N a. 24 months
    N b. 36 months
    Y c. 42 months
    N d. 54 months

1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium?

    N a. Leaves a residue
    Y b. Cost, relative to other agents
    N c. Breaks down while under prolonged storage
    N d. Conducts electricity

1843: With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?

    N a. Communication is permitted between survival craft.
    N b. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship.
    N c. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit.
    Y d. All of the above

1984: You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    N a. 20 tons
    N b. 60 tons
    Y c. 120 tons
    N d. 240 tons

2088: If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once every __________.

    N a. 3 months
    Y b. 6 months
    N c. year
    N d. 2 years

2110: You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    N a. 15 tons
    N b. 48 tons
    Y c. 83 tons
    N d. 140 tons

2253: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.

    Y a. reduce your drift rate
    N b. keep the survival craft from turning over
    N c. aid in recovering the survival craft
    N d. increase your visibility

2255: The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant __________.

    N a. foam
    N b. marine plywood
    N c. steel
    Y d. fiberglass

2382: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 4521 tons
    Y b. 5349 tons
    N c. 7242 tons
    N d. 9750 tons

2382: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 4521 tons
    Y b. 5349 tons
    N c. 7242 tons
    N d. 9750 tons

2403: A frame with two, or sometimes four, arms through which are threaded the guidelines and which is used to keep the drill stem and bit in line with the center opening in the temporary guide base is the __________.

    N a. drill stem guide
    Y b. guide frame
    N c. drill string frame
    N d. casing guide

2411: The storage device for nitrogen-pressurized hydraulic fluid, which is used in closing the blowout preventers is called the __________.

    N a. actuator
    N b. annulus
    Y c. accumulator
    N d. annular preventer

2449: You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________.

    N a. 2 ppm
    Y b. 10 - 25 ppm
    N c. 40 ppm
    N d. 105 ppm

2527: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0070

    N a. 1171.5 tons
    N b. 1311.0 tons
    Y c. 1503.0 tons
    N d. 1710.5 tons

2737: During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide __________.

    Y a. buoyancy
    N b. extra storage space
    N c. additional tank capacity
    N d. reduced stability

2766: How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. As many as possible
    Y b. The amount on the Certificate of Inspection
    N c. Use your own judgment
    N d. No more than 40 passengers

3042: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0100

    N a. 271.2 ft
    N b. 260.3 ft
    Y c. 251.9 ft
    N d. 247.2 ft

3056: The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to a period of __________.

    N a. 24 months
    N b. 36 months
    Y c. 42 months
    N d. 60 months

3122: All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    Y a. with the vessel's name
    N b. with the vessel's official number
    N c. with the maximum weight to be held by the life preserver
    N d. with the maximum serviceable life of the life preserver

3285: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0118

    N a. 271.2 ft
    N b. 288.8 ft
    N c. 292.3 ft
    Y d. 307.2 ft

3365: What is the correct procedure to follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an OSV?

    N a. Connect the float free link to the vessel.
    Y b. Pull the painter from the container and make it fast to the cleat provided.
    N c. Open the canopy relief valves.
    N d. Remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation.

3427: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim?

    N a. 8 feet by the stern
    Y b. 4 feet by the stern
    N c. 2 feet by the stern
    N d. 4 feet by the head

3713: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface corrections is __________.

    N a. 1.25 feet
    N b. 0.90 foot
    N c. 0.84 foot
    Y d. 0.22 foot

3760: Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.

    N a. fever and thirst
    Y b. nausea and dizziness
    N c. stomach cramps and diarrhea
    N d. reddening of skin and hives

3793: When the ullage is 6.4 feet in P-Tank #5 for the Deep Driller, what is the value of the longitudinal moment?

    N a. -2,254 foot-tons
    N b. -2,949 foot-tons
    N c. -3,392 foot-tons
    Y d. -4,249 foot-tons

4061: In the DEEP DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.

    N a. adding the free surface correction
    N b. subtracting the free surface correction
    N c. multiplying by displacement
    Y d. dividing by displacement

4061: In the DEEP DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.

    N a. adding the free surface correction
    N b. subtracting the free surface correction
    N c. multiplying by displacement
    Y d. dividing by displacement

4133: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the unit?

    Y a. 526.87 long tons
    N b. 276.87 long tons
    N c. 241.50 long tons
    N d. 189.51 long tons

4477: If you see someone fall overboard from a MODU, you should __________.

    N a. immediately jump in the water to help the individual
    Y b. call for help and keep the individual in sight
    N c. run to the radio room to send an emergency message
    N d. go to the control room for the distress flares

4723: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?

    N a. 2.02 degrees by the stern
    N b. 1.51 degrees by the stern
    N c. 0.98 degrees by the stern
    Y d. 0.61 degrees by the stern

4786: Which number indicates the hydrostatic release? (D015SA )

    N a. 3
    Y b. 6
    N c. 7
    N d. 10

5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    Y a. counterflood in 1P
    N b. counterflood in 10S
    N c. pump from C1P
    N d. pump from C3S

5805: A permanent chain chasing system is used to __________.

    N a. clean anchor chain as it's hauled in
    N b. recover anchors which have lost their buoys
    Y c. run and retrieve anchors
    N d. prepare anchor chain for inspection

6123: On offshore drilling units, the minimum required number of fireman's outfits which must be carried is __________.

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

6305: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must back it up with a piggyback (backing) anchor or __________.

    N a. reduce the riser tension
    Y b. reposition it at a greater range
    N c. change the winch
    N d. change the anchor heading

7411: What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?

    N a. Red Alert
    N b. Security
    Y c. Mayday
    N d. Pan

7645: What abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?

    N a. BK
    Y b. KB
    N c. CB
    N d. BM

7693: Increasing the number of slack liquid tanks has the effect of raising the __________.

    N a. uncorrected KG
    N b. maximum allowed KG
    Y c. virtual height of the center of gravity
    N d. metacentric height

8091: When preparing a MODU for heavy weather, fuel oil day tanks should be __________.

    N a. pumped overboard to calm the seas
    N b. drained to the lower hull to reduce free surfaces
    Y c. filled to ensure that sufficient fuel oil is available during a lengthy emergency
    N d. partially drained to increase free surfaces in order to reduce motions

8295: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.

    Y a. port drill water pump
    N b. port saltwater service pump
    N c. port ballast pumps
    N d. starboard ballast pumps and crossover system

8523: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    N a. 4,060 kips
    N b. 5,145 kips
    Y c. 5,559 kips
    N d. 5,816 kips

8733: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 0.59 foot
    Y b. 1.64 feet
    N c. 2.23 feet
    N d. 2.82 feet

8777: On a MODU, an obvious indicator of lost circulation of drilling fluid is __________.

    N a. fluid level in the mud pits increases rapidly
    Y b. fluid level in the mud pits decreases rapidly
    N c. increased cuttings on the shale shaker
    N d. decreased cuttings on the shale shaker

9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

    N a. 10 minutes
    N b. 15 minutes
    Y c. 30 minutes
    N d. 45 minutes