This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
N a. It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts. N b. It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline. N c. It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel. Y d. The correction decreases as the draft increases due to loading dry cargo. 242: You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
N a. One N b. Two Y c. Three N d. Four 462: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will __________.
Y a. produce high-velocity fog N b. produce low-velocity fog N c. produce a straight stream N d. shut off the water 483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4184 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0008
Y a. KG 25.8 feet N b. KG 26.6 feet N c. KG 27.2 feet N d. KG 28.0 feet 650: Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
N a. Metacentric height N b. Righting moment N c. Rolling period Y d. Freeboard 702: Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?
Y a. Foam conducts electricity. N b. To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire. N c. Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing. N d. Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires. 746: The quantity of fuel required to be carried in a motor lifeboat is __________.
Y a. the quantity needed for 24 hours continuous operation N b. the quantity needed for 48 hours continuous operation N c. 55 gallons N d. 90 gallons 919: After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?
N a. Slightly elevate the head and feet. N b. Keep the person awake. Y c. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature. N d. Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow. 941: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0019
N a. 0.96 foot Y b. 1.45 feet N c. 1.96 feet N d. 2.96 feet 1011: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
N a. All towing vessels 25 feet or less in length N b. All passenger vessels of 50 gross tons or less, carrying one or more passengers Y c. Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or longer N d. An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge 1035: The letter G, when sent with a complement, may be followed by __________.
N a. two numerals N b. two letters N c. three or four numerals Y d. four or five numerals 1112: A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.
N a. vapor to oxygen N b. the flammable limit concentration N c. the autoignition concentration Y d. the lower explosive limit concentration 1143: For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least __________.
N a. one fixed power pump and one portable hand pump N b. one fixed hand pump and one portable hand pump N c. two portable hand pumps Y d. either "A" or "B" 1253: If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that the survival craft could be dropped into the water?
N a. 2 ft. N b. 6 ft. Y c. 10 ft. N d. 14 ft. 1701: Movement of liquid in a tank when a vessel inclines causes an increase in __________.
N a. righting arm N b. metacentric height N c. height of the uncorrected KG Y d. natural rolling period 1783: Which statement concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is FALSE?
N a. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability. N b. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability. Y c. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. N d. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. 1871: If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.
N a. increase the righting moment N b. cause an increase in the righting arm N c. bring the vessel to an upright equilibrium position Y d. cause the vessel to flop to a greater angle 1961: Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?
N a. The Operator can make fine internal adjustments to the transmitter as long as the output power does not change by more than one percent. Y b. The Operator is responsible for ensuring that INMARSAT antennas are free of built-up soot and clear of obstacles. N c. All levels of maintenance must be performed by a licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. N d. The Operator may install an EPROM in order to ensure that the equipment continues to operate within legal constraints. 2194: Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?
N a. KB increases, increasing BM and therefore GM N b. KG increases due to the weight of the added water on deck Y c. BM decreases from loss of water plane and greater volume. N d. There is no effect on transverse stability. 2247: When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.
N a. tie up to the rescue vessel N b. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick Y c. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel N d. transfer all personnel immediately 2419: Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship?
N a. In the Captain's office N b. In the sea cabin Y c. At the GMDSS operating position N d. Anywhere on board the vessel 2438: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 95 tons of cargo are loaded 76 feet forward of amidships.
Y a. FWD 21'-01", AFT 22'-11" N b. FWD 20'-09", AFT 22'-09" N c. FWD 20'-09", AFT 23'-01" N d. FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00" 2487: The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the __________.
Y a. outer barrel of the telescoping joint N b. inner barrel of the telescoping joint N c. marine riser connector N d. ball joint 2499: What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid?
N a. Allyl alcohol N b. Phenol N c. Acetaldehyde Y d. Carbon disulfide 2549: Vessels "A" and "B" are identical; however, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.
N a. lower KG Y b. smaller GM N c. smaller roll angle N d. larger GZ 2667: Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________.
N a. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted six months before expiration N b. only once every five years, with a letter submitted six months before expiration N c. and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, six months before expiration Y d. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted to the Coast Guard within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval 2748: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.
Y a. passengers are strapped to their seats N b. fuel tanks are not less than half full N c. sea anchor is deployed to windward N d. lower ballast tanks are filled with water 2883: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.
N a. survival craft N b. messrooms Y c. readily accessible locations N d. locked watertight containers 2899: All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. 3 red hand flare distress signals and 3 orange smoke hand distress signals N b. 8 red hand flare distress signals and 8 orange smoke hand distress signals N c. 6 red hand flare distress signals and 6 orange smoke hand distress signals N d. None of the above 2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
N a. be tender N b. have a slow and easy motion Y c. be stiff N d. have a tendency to yaw 2938: What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants N b. Water-light, painter, and signal mirror N c. Water-light and painter only N d. Two paddles, painter, and six red flares 2948: Licenses are issued for __________.
N a. 3 years Y b. 5 years N c. 1 year N d. 2 years 3076: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0103
N a. 0.87 foot N b. 0.98 foot Y c. 1.14 feet N d. 1.25 feet 3086: Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the pilothouse?
N a. A tank barge with a sign reading "No Visitors, No Smoking, No Open Lights" N b. An open hopper barge carrying coal N c. A gas-free chlorine barge Y d. An empty (not gas-free) barge that last carried benzene 3099: Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank barge?
N a. Only air N b. Only steam N c. Air or steam only Y d. Steam, air, or electricity 3167: Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers __________.
N a. is usually below the center of gravity and has little effect on stability N b. will cause water on deck to pocket and increase stability Y c. may decrease stability by increasing free surface effect due to water on deck N d. increases the effective freeboard and increases the wind-heel affect 3536: There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________.
Y a. the lack of cooling effect on heated materials N b. that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pump N c. that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases N d. there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space 3553: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG while drilling?
Y a. 4.58 feet N b. 5.24 feet N c. 6.27 feet N d. 6.94 feet 3582: You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take?
N a. No action is required; the icebreaker will move out of the channel. N b. Move to the right hand side of the channel and slow to bare steerageway. Y c. Stop your headway and await further signals. N d. Slow to bare steerageway and be prepared to come ahead as the icebreaker commences escorting your vessel. 3772: The abandon ship signal sounded by the vessel's whistle is __________.
N a. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast N b. more than 6 short blasts Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast N d. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds 3885: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when flooding through the overboard discharge into ballast tank 1S is valve __________.
Y a. 2 N b. 3 N c. 7 N d. 37 3940: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.
N a. wear as much clothing as possible N b. enter the water feet first Y c. swim with the wind N d. cover eyes with one hand when entering the water 4122: Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?
N a. 50 feet Y b. 100 feet N c. 150 feet N d. 200 feet 4345: What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?
N a. Soil conditions N b. Overturning moment Y c. Water depth N d. Specific gravity of the sea water 5127: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for displacement is __________.
Y a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 5421: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new TCG?
N a. -1.61 feet N b. -1.58 feet N c. 0.43 feet Y d. 0.99 feet 5721: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.
N a. litmus paper N b. combustible gas indicator N c. oxygen breathing apparatus Y d. oxygen indicator 6497: The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the blades turning is __________.
N a. a helicopter carrying cargo only Y b. a turbine-equipped helicopter N c. a Sikorsky N d. a helicopter carrying injured personnel in an emergency situation 6523: On the cargo manifest, the total weight of a box containing cargo is the __________.
N a. tare weight N b. net weight Y c. gross weight N d. cargo weight 6613: What class of bulkhead is required around the galley on a MODU?
Y a. Class A N b. Class B N c. Class C N d. Class D 6724: In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?
N a. Water-wall tubes N b. Downcomers Y c. Screen tubes N d. Water drums 6947: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a MODU?
N a. Preventive maintenance log Y b. Storage plans N c. Oil Record Book N d. Repair record book 7063: The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.
N a. leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs N b. pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms N c. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement Y d. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury 7335: When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?
Y a. Low power N b. Medium power N c. High power N d. Extra high power 8171: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. counterflood in 1P N b. counterflood in 10S N c. pump from C1P N d. pump from C3S 8384: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?
N a. 50.00 feet N b. 25.00 feet N c. 0.04 foot Y d. 0.02 foot 8713: Port ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast the forward-port column using port ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.
Y a. 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N b. 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N c. 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48 N d. 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48 8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?
N a. 0.00 feet N b. 1.03 feet Y c. 1.69 feet N d. 2.22 feet 8903: The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.
N a. apply ointment to the burned area Y b. flood the affected area with water N c. wrap the burn with sterile dressing N d. apply an ice pack to the burned area 9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.
N a. 20° N b. 30° N c. 40° Y d. 50°