USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


44: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.


58: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.


136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?


358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should __________.

    N a. submerge the burn area in cold water
    N b. make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation
    Y c. cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings
    N d. break blisters and remove dead tissue

499: In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be __________.

    N a. open and individual tank valves open
    N b. open and the individual tank valves closed
    N c. closed and the individual tank valves closed
    Y d. closed and the individual tank valves open

678: Fire may be spread by which means?

    N a. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces
    N b. Direct radiation
    N c. Convection
    Y d. All of the above

727: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment __________.

    N a. constitutes a violation of the Act
    N b. obligates the operator to moor or anchor the vessel immediately
    N c. requires immediate, emergency repairs
    Y d. does not, in itself, constitute a violation of the Act

734: On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________.

    N a. 20.0 meters (65.5 feet) in length
    Y b. 30.5 meters (100 feet) in length
    N c. 10 fathoms (60 feet) in length
    N d. 90 feet (27.5 meters) in length

809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.

    N a. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation
    N b. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth
    N c. switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation
    Y d. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation

864: A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain?

    N a. MNJ
    N b. MNM
    Y c. MNO
    N d. MNI

937: On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?

    N a. Carbon dioxide
    Y b. Water (stored pressure)
    N c. Dry chemical
    N d. Foam

1855: An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an operations manual approved by the __________.

    Y a. Coast Guard
    N b. National Cargo Bureau
    N c. Minerals Management Service
    N d. builder

1892: What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?

    N a. 8 hours
    N b. 2 days
    N c. 3 days
    Y d. 4 days

2078: A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________.

    N a. stopper
    Y b. screen
    N c. filter
    N d. restrictor

2127: On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________.

    N a. 50 percent of all persons on board
    N b. 75 percent of all persons on board
    Y c. 6 persons
    N d. 10 persons

2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    N a. shut off all electrical power
    N b. close all openings to the area
    N c. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    Y d. cool the bulkheads around the fire

2219: Each buoyant work vest must be __________.

    Y a. U.S. Coast Guard approved
    N b. marked with the name of the vessel
    N c. equipped with a water light
    N d. All of the above

2353: Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

    N a. A copy of the IMO master plan of shore-based facilities
    N b. Station logs
    N c. 47 CFR Part 80 FCC Rules and Regulations
    Y d. All of the above

2366: What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?

    Y a. Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
    N b. Pressure-vacuum
    N c. Branch vent line
    N d. Vent header

2447: The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90 feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a __________.

    N a. string
    Y b. stand
    N c. joint
    N d. standpipe

2633: A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.

    N a. Minerals Management Service
    N b. Department of Energy
    N c. Corps of Engineers
    Y d. A recognized classification society approved by the Coast Guard

2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline?

    N a. Aluminum
    Y b. Copper
    N c. Nickel
    N d. Mild steel

2954: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank (capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. Less than 1°
    N b. 2°
    Y c. 4°
    N d. 6°

3003: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

    N a. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track.
    N b. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped.
    Y c. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube.
    N d. It inflates by seawater bleeding into the inflation bladder and reacting with a chemical.

3003: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

    N a. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track.
    N b. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped.
    Y c. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube.
    N d. It inflates by seawater bleeding into the inflation bladder and reacting with a chemical.

3058: Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. with the vessel's name in 3" letters
    N b. conspicuously in 1-1/2" letters with the number of persons allowed
    N c. with the vessel's name on all paddles
    Y d. All of the above

3059: How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry?

    Y a. 1
    N b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

3139: Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________.

    N a. PV valves
    N b. warning signs
    Y c. flame screens
    N d. stop-check valves

3178: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    N a. 2930 tons
    N b. 3110 tons
    N c. 3170 tons
    Y d. 3240 tons

3349: Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine?

    N a. Flow meter
    Y b. Shut-off valve
    N c. Pressure gauge
    N d. Filter

3492: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-03", AFT 18'-09". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the new draft if 450 long tons are loaded in No. 16 hatch.

    N a. FWD 16'-11", AFT 19'-04 2/3"
    N b. FWD 17'-01", AFT 18'-11 1/4"
    Y c. FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-03 3/4"
    N d. FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-11 1/4"

3571: The DEEP DRILLER is anchoring in 600 feet of water. In the absence of environmental forces, the mooring lines should be adjusted to __________.

    N a. 245 kips
    Y b. 222 kips
    N c. 237 kips
    N d. 194 kips

3595: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of TCG?

    Y a. 0.00 on the centerline
    N b. 2.23 feet forward of amidships
    N c. 2.26 feet forward of amidships
    N d. 2.31 feet forward of amidships

3603: While anchored in 600 feet water depth, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #8. Tension on that line is 220 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?

    N a. 994 feet
    Y b. 1,422 feet
    N c. 1,728 feet
    N d. 2,550 feet

3715: The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's __________.

    N a. vomiting
    Y b. blue color and lack of breathing
    N c. irregular breathing
    N d. unconscious condition

3775: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this amount of fuel?

    Y a. -17,416 ft-long tons
    N b. -874 ft-long tons
    N c. 3,992 ft-long tons
    N d. 17,416 ft-long tons

3776: If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it will __________.

    N a. weigh you down
    Y b. preserve body heat
    N c. reduce your body heat
    N d. make it more difficult to breathe

3868: The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.

    N a. 1 knot
    Y b. 2 knot
    N c. 5 knot
    N d. 10 knot

3918: If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should FIRST __________.

    Y a. cut the line to the sea anchor
    N b. paddle away from the fire
    N c. splash water over the liferaft to cool it
    N d. get out of the raft and swim to safety

3944: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

    N a. The fire pump
    N b. Exposed hard piping
    N c. The hydrant valve
    Y d. The fire hose

4196: You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. You cannot load beyond the summer mark at port A and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B.
    N b. You can only load to the winter mark plus any fresh water allowance and burnout to sea at port A.
    Y c. You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the summer mark upon departing port A.
    N d. You can load so that upon arrival at the pier at port B your freeboard is equal to the summer mark less any fresh water allowance.

4647: What is the increase in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

    Y a. 4783 foot-kips
    N b. 3446 foot-kips
    N c. 2109 foot-kips
    N d. 1234 foot-kips

4657: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the four bulk tanks are back-loaded to a supply boat, what would be the new draft?

    N a. 7.16 feet
    N b. 10.31 feet
    Y c. 10.57 feet
    N d. 11.19 feet

5461: Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as the __________.

    Y a. safe operating load
    N b. normal operating tension
    N c. emergency working load
    N d. allowable storm load

5863: If a MODU under tow starts jumping on its tow line, the most appropriate action to alleviate the condition is to __________.

    N a. change course
    N b. slow down
    N c. heave to
    Y d. adjust tow line length

6653: Diesel powered industrial trucks on a MODU that are provided with safeguards to the exhaust, fuel, and electrical systems are designated __________.

    N a. DEFE
    N b. DE
    Y c. DS
    N d. DES

6685: On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?

    N a. To replace a damaged life preserver
    N b. For use during fire drills
    N c. For use during boat drills
    Y d. At no time

6806: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

    N a. blows the fire back toward the vessel
    N b. comes over the stern
    Y c. comes over the bow
    N d. comes over either beam

7005: Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with __________.

    Y a. acids or alkalies
    N b. diesel oil
    N c. acids, but not alkalies
    N d. alkalies, but not acids

7033: A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injured. The symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma may include __________.

    N a. reduced appetite and thirst
    N b. sneezing and coughing
    N c. only a low grade fever
    Y d. slurred speech and loss of coordination

7581: For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.

    Y a. KG is minimum
    N b. angle of inclination is a maximum
    N c. small-angle stability applies
    N d. KM is a minimum

7677: Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.

    N a. uncorrected KG
    Y b. virtual height of the center of gravity
    N c. metacenter
    N d. metacentric height

8107: What is the minimum required GML for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?

    N a. 0.17 foot
    Y b. 2.63 feet
    N c. 4.34 feet
    N d. 9.12 feet

8117: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps by using the __________.

    N a. starboard ballast pump
    N b. port saltwater service pump
    Y c. port drill water pump
    N d. starboard ballast pump and crossover system

8191: During a severe storm while the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, on board loads must be shifted so that the TCG is on the centerline and the LCG is __________.

    N a. 40.00 feet AF0
    N b. 68.33 feet AF0
    Y c. 119.44 feet AF0
    N d. 160.33 feet AF0

8403: What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?

    N a. Carbon on cylinder heads
    N b. Faulty unloader
    Y c. Leaking air valves
    N d. Plugged air cooler

8631: What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?

    N a. 0.88 foot forward of amidships
    Y b. 0.85 foot forward of amidships
    N c. 0.82 foot forward of amidships
    N d. 0.79 foot forward of amidships

8757: The routes to be used during evacuation of the COASTAL DRILLER are shown in the __________.

    N a. official log
    N b. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    Y c. posted Fire Control/Lifesaving Plan
    N d. control room under glass

9327: Accumulations of oily rags should be __________.

    N a. kept in nonmetal containers
    Y b. discarded as soon as possible
    N c. cleaned thoroughly for reuse
    N d. kept in the paint locker

9702: Which of the following is/are NOT required on Ro-Ro vessels, regarding spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    N a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
    Y b. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas.
    N c. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.
    N d. All of the above