This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
N a. pushing up on one side Y b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards N c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder N d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate 198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________.
N a. be assisted in walking around N b. be examined then walked to a bunk Y c. not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives N d. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk 236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?
N a. 5 N b. 8 Y c. 12 N d. 15 236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?
N a. 5 N b. 8 Y c. 12 N d. 15 513: Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.
N a. the forward boat on the starboard side N b. behind boat number 1 on the port side Y c. behind boat number 1 on the starboard side N d. behind boat number 2 on the port side 538: A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should __________.
N a. perform the Heimlich maneuver N b. immediately start CPR N c. give back blows and something to drink Y d. allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the obstruction on his own 541: The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals means "________________".
N a. Over N b. Finished with transmission Y c. Wait N d. Repeat this signal 574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that __________.
Y a. he cannot accept traffic immediately N b. you should proceed with your message N c. you should send your message in International Code N d. you should send your message in plain language 737: When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?
N a. The waters in which vessels may operate N b. Special construction limitations N c. Grades of cargo which may be carried Y d. Type of vessel to which the regulation applies 744: You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger. You should use the urgent signal __________.
N a. "ASSISTANCE NEEDED" Y b. "PAN-PAN" N c. "MAYDAY" N d. "SECURITE" 756: A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of __________.
N a. 12 hours N b. 18 hours Y c. 24 hours N d. 36 hours 863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
N a. The moment of inertia would remain unchanged. Y b. The moment of inertia would be 1/4 its original value. N c. The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value. N d. None of the above 869: As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to __________.
N a. hold a victim in a stretcher Y b. stop uncontrolled bleeding N c. hold a large bandage in place N d. restrain a delirious victim 906: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.
N a. 12 months N b. 15 months Y c. 17 months N d. 18 months 908: If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?
N a. Magnesium N b. Paper N c. Wood Y d. Diesel Oil 981: Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.
N a. deteriorate and give off noxious gasses Y b. spontaneously heat and catch fire N c. attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground N d. None of the above 1100: The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.
N a. limit switches N b. emergency disconnect switch Y c. governor brake N d. position of the counterweight on the brake handle 1334: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.
N a. cutting the straps that enclose the container N b. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container N c. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap Y d. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release 1342: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.
N a. notify the Coast Guard Y b. sound the alarm N c. have passengers put on life preservers N d. cut off air supply to the fire 1454: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D005SA )
N a. A N b. C Y c. E N d. I 1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?
Y a. Firing of a green star signal N b. Firing of a red star signal N c. An orange smoke signal N d. Three white star rockets at 1-minute intervals 1722: Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?
N a. Bridge and engine control consoles N b. Bridge and tank(s) being inerted N c. Main deck and engine control consoles Y d. Cargo control and engine control consoles 1735: On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________.
N a. 6" reducer Y b. stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face N c. pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange N d. hose saddle 1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.
N a. close hauled on the starboard tack N b. close hauled on the port tack N c. on a broad reach on a port tack Y d. running before the wind 1919: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050° relative would be __________.
Y a. close hauled on the starboard tack N b. reaching on a starboard tack N c. on a broad reach on a port tack N d. running before the wind 1982: Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?
N a. NAVTEX Y b. EGC N c. AMVER N d. DSC 1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )
N a. 1.35 feet N b. 1.86 feet N c. 2.56 feet Y d. 3.60 feet 2038: Which system is least likely to be subject to fading or static interference?
N a. HF SITOR Y b. INMARSAT N c. Digital Selective Calling on channel 70 N d. VHF ARQ 2529: What is a grade B flammable liquid?
N a. Ethylene oxide N b. Paraldehyde Y c. Chlorallylene N d. Allyl alcohol 2596: Drinking salt water will __________.
Y a. dehydrate you N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water N d. protect against heat cramps 2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.
N a. reserve ballast Y b. reserve buoyancy N c. lightweight displacement N d. critical motions 2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45° inclination.
N a. 1.8 feet N b. 2.6 feet N c. 2.9 feet Y d. 3.6 feet 2742: A vessel with a small GM will __________.
N a. have a large amplitude of roll Y b. provide a comfortable ride for the crew and passengers N c. have drier decks in heavy weather N d. be likely to have cargo shift in heavy weather 2805: A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.
N a. 274.5° N b. 292.0° N c. 315.5° Y d. 337.5° 3185: Control of flooding on a MODU should be addressed __________.
N a. first Y b. following control of fire N c. following restoration of vital services N d. only if a threat exists 3251: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.
N a. must be wet before it will release N b. should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency N c. will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually Y d. must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically 3255: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is added at a VCG of 10 feet. What is the change in KG?
Y a. 2.5 feet downward N b. 2.0 feet downward N c. 1.5 feet downward N d. 1.0 foot downward 3341: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.
N a. Very pistol Y b. towing connection N c. portable radio N d. canned milk 3373: The DEEP DRILLER at survival draft loads 2,068.1 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?
N a. 30.0 feet N b. 45.0 feet Y c. 60.0 feet N d. 75.0 feet 3430: How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. QWE BEC N b. QUE BACH Y c. KEH BECK N d. QU UE 3440: How should the number "7" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Y a. SAY-TAY-SEVEN N b. SEE-ETA-SEVEN N c. NUM-BER-SEVEN N d. NEW-MER-AL-SEVEN 3497: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?
Y a. To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks N b. To inflate the raft automatically N c. To test the rafts hydrostatically N d. None of the above 3886: Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going OSV carry?
N a. Class A N b. Class B N c. Class C Y d. Category I 4117: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
Y a. Subchapter T N b. Subchapter Q N c. Subchapter F N d. Subchapter C 4260: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. N c. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure to flame and burning. N d. The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship. 4658: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.
N a. 18'-06" N b. 18'-02" Y c. 17'-11" N d. 17'-08" 4787: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater than 70 knots?
Y a. 0 kips N b. 200 kips N c. 600 kips N d. 1,000 kips 5105: The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your MODU in the Gulf of Mexico and the northwest wind of a few hours ago has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are located in the __________.
Y a. navigable semicircle N b. dangerous semicircle N c. low pressure area N d. eye of the storm 5313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
Y a. 2.6 feet N b. 4.1 feet N c. 26.3 feet N d. 26.8 feet 5587: What is the primary disadvantage of a permanent chain chaser system?
N a. It requires anchor handling boats with more horsepower. N b. Chain chasers work in shallow water only. Y c. Chain chasers will not work with piggyback anchors. N d. It takes longer to deploy anchors using chain chasers. 5655: When the air temperature is just below 32°F, snow FIRST adheres to __________.
N a. surfaces near the waterline N b. vertical surfaces Y c. horizontal surfaces N d. leeward surfaces 5677: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.
Y a. critical motion limits have not been exceeded N b. waves approach within two feet of the spider deck N c. the maximum wave height is greater than 64 feet N d. winds are greater than 70 knots 5725: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain in comparison to the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.
N a. longer N b. identical Y c. shorter N d. indeterminable 6003: The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU is __________.
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6806: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.
N a. blows the fire back toward the vessel N b. comes over the stern Y c. comes over the bow N d. comes over either beam 7047: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?
N a. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing N b. Diarrhea and frequent urination Y c. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen N d. Extreme sweating and reddening skin 7413: Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?
N a. Distress signal Y b. Urgency signal N c. Safety signal N d. None of the above 7595: For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives the __________.
Y a. righting moment N b. vertical moment N c. longitudinal moment N d. transverse moment 8093: What is the displacement of the DEEP DRILLER with a draft of 19.5 feet in fresh water?
Y a. 11,932.8 long tons N b. 12,232.8 long tons N c. 12,602.9 long tons N d. 18,919.8 long tons 9700: The regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel are found in __________.
N a. 46 CFR subchapter S N b. 46 CFR subchapter T N c. 46 CFR subchapter B Y d. 46 CFR subchapter I