This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
59: Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?
N a. Emergency gear locker N b. Bridge or pilothouse area N c. Where they can be readily found Y d. The same location as the equipment it reactivates 105: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________.
N a. lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys N b. the display of load line markings N c. minimum horsepower for tugs involved in rig moves Y d. lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed 137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the __________.
N a. Master N b. Chief Mate Y c. Chief Engineer N d. First Assistant 305: It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.
N a. a boom N b. suction equipment Y c. chemical agents N d. skimmers 474: You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.
Y a. VHF-FM service N b. coastal harbor service N c. high seas service N d. emergency broadcast service 476: What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic acid?
N a. Open Y b. Restricted N c. Closed N d. None of the above 576: Each lifeboat must be lowered and maneuvered in the water at least once every __________.
N a. 2 months Y b. 3 months N c. 4 months N d. 5 months 651: Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry __________.
N a. a radar maintained in good operating condition N b. a collision bulkhead N c. a white 20 point anchor light Y d. at least one floating water light 706: The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.
N a. have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the capacity of the lifesaving gear is 50 persons or greater N b. be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration N c. be stowed to pay out freely if the vessel sinks Y d. All of the above 881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________.
N a. attempting to set the fracture Y b. preventing further movement of the bone N c. applying a tourniquet N d. alternately applying hot and cold compresses 906: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.
N a. 12 months N b. 15 months Y c. 17 months N d. 18 months 940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.
N a. shape of the vessel's underwater hull remains the same N b. vessel's center of gravity shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull Y c. vessel's center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull N d. vessel's mean draft increases 990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.
Y a. negative GM N b. off-center weight N c. pocketing of free surface N d. excessive freeboard 1055: The signal K4 sent by any method means __________.
N a. a distance of 4 miles N b. a speed of 4 knots N c. the wind is from the south Y d. "I wish to communicate with you by sound signals" 1139: You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.
N a. slack the main sheet N b. slack the main outhaul N c. trim the foreguy Y d. slack the jib sheet 1212: Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?
N a. 6% N b. 10% N c. 15% Y d. 21% 1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
N a. Spliced into the ring on the stem post N b. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart Y c. Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls N d. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls 1504: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What is the draft? (D032DG )
N a. 10'-04" N b. 10'-02" Y c. 9'-08" N d. 9'-04" 1550: The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to __________.
N a. cool the lifeboat engine Y b. keep the lifeboat from reaching combustion temperature while operating in a fire N c. keep the lifeboat warm in a cold climate by applying heated water spray from the engine to the boat N d. put out a fire inside the lifeboat 1677: After an engine is started you should __________.
N a. increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all parts of the engine N b. pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the engine Y c. check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks N d. run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased 1759: You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.
N a. jack down one leg at a time Y b. jack up first, then down N c. undog doors to the engine room N d. assemble all personnel on the main deck 1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?
N a. 4.98 feet N b. 5.21 feet Y c. 5.43 feet N d. 5.67 feet 1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________.
Y a. on a close reach on a port tack N b. close hauled on a starboard tack N c. on a broad reach on a port tack N d. on a beam reach on a starboard tack 2134: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registers 55 on the instrument. What is the concentration of gases?
N a. 55% N b. 5.5% N c. 4.1% Y d. 0.7% 2220: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0053
N a. 395 tons N b. 530 tons Y c. 750 tons N d. 990 tons 2242: An example of a grade B product is __________.
Y a. piperyline N b. motor gasoline N c. kerosene N d. mineral spirits 2287: The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.
Y a. stop the winch just before the craft reaches the final stowage position N b. limit the amount of cable on the drum N c. limit the ascent rate N d. stop the winch in case the craft weighs too much 2341: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0060
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft Y b. Available GM 4.24 ft N c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2363: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 22.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?
N a. 76° N b. 84° N c. 89° Y d. 98° 2480: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire?
N a. CO2 Y b. Alcohol foam N c. Dry chemical N d. Water fog 2483: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.
Y a. cubic meters N b. both cubic meters and cubic feet N c. both kilos and pounds N d. barrels of 55 gallon capacity 2557: When transferring personnel with a MODU crane, the weight of the loaded personnel carrier must not exceed __________.
N a. 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius Y b. 1/3 of the static rated load at the lift radius N c. 1/2 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used N d. 1/3 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used 2593: Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand __________.
N a. deck loads from above N b. dynamic forces while afloat Y c. hydrostatic pressure N d. over-pressurization 2733: Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jack-up MODU during jacking operations can cause __________.
Y a. capsizing N b. delays N c. progressive flooding N d. negative buoyancy 2759: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 110 tons Y b. 103 tons N c. 100 tons N d. 98 tons 2947: A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.
N a. 8,929 long tons N b. 19,509 long tons Y c. 20,000 long tons N d. 24,500 long tons 3059: How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry?
Y a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 3326: The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.
Y a. in contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark N b. from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark N c. in contact with the fill opening to allow proper venting N d. None of the above 3338: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)
N a. 1410 tons N b. 1450 tons N c. 1490 tons Y d. 1520 tons 3498: Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys required for the vessel is __________.
N a. 2 Y b. 4 N c. 6 N d. 8 3534: When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT required to show information on the __________.
N a. fire detection system N b. portable fire extinguishers Y c. lifeboats, liferafts, and life preservers N d. ventilation systems 3665: The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened with heavy weather, while under tow, is about __________.
Y a. 2 hours N b. 3 hours N c. 4 hours N d. 5 hours 3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.
N a. administer oxygen Y b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR N c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk N d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary 3783: What is the weight of bulk in P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?
N a. 34.3 long tons Y b. 58.0 long tons N c. 83.6 long tons N d. 121.9 long tons 3852: The light on a personal flotation device on an OSV must be replaced __________.
N a. when the power source is replaced N b. each year after installation N c. every six months Y d. when it is no longer serviceable 4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?
N a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area. N b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port. N c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing. Y d. All of the above 4097: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?
N a. 61.34 feet N b. 62.13 feet Y c. 62.35 feet N d. 64.00 feet 4230: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will enter the winter zone after an additional three days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
N a. 61.4 inches Y b. 64.5 inches N c. 70.6 inches N d. 77.5 inches 4234: Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Dry chemical Y b. Water mist N c. Chemical foam N d. Steam smothering 4484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6285 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0162
N a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet Y b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet N c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet N d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet 6233: When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.
Y a. maximum possible area N b. minimum possible area N c. nearest watertight door N d. nearest longitudinal girder 6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.
Y a. tour reports N b. hull reports N c. machinery repair record book N d. deck equipment log 7625: The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.
Y a. metacentric height is negative N b. KM is higher than KG N c. KG exceeds maximum allowable limits N d. free surfaces are excessive 8156: Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________.
N a. small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes N b. all deep draft vessels Y c. fishing industry vessels N d. small passenger vessels 8384: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?
N a. 50.00 feet N b. 25.00 feet N c. 0.04 foot Y d. 0.02 foot 8693: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 65.00 feet. What is the GMT?
Y a. 7.55 feet N b. 5.42 feet N c. 5.30 feet N d. 5.10 feet 9437: A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.
N a. list Y b. heel N c. trim N d. flotation 9445: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the __________.
Y a. metacentric height N b. height of the righting arm N c. fore and aft perpendicular N d. height of the center of buoyancy 9521: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
Y a. height of the center of gravity N b. vertical moments N c. righting moments N d. inclining moments 9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
N a. the midships house Y b. in the pumproom N c. at the vent header N d. at the main deck manifold