USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


62: The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.


139: When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________.


180: Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?


397: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

    Y a. within a few hours before or after departure
    N b. prior to departure
    N c. within 24 hours of departure
    N d. within 12 hours of departure

448: Treatment of frostbite includes __________.

    N a. rubbing affected area with ice or snow
    N b. rubbing affected area briskly to restore circulation
    N c. wrapping area tightly in warm cloths
    Y d. warming exposed parts rapidly

563: Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?

    N a. The falls
    Y b. Boat hook
    N c. Boat painter
    N d. Sea painter

610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

    N a. initial stability
    N b. free surface
    N c. permeability
    Y d. stability at large angles of inclination

638: You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately?

    N a. Sound the general alarm
    N b. Secure mechanical cargo hold ventilation
    N c. Call for water on deck
    Y d. Release carbon dioxide into the affected compartment

648: Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color?

    N a. White
    N b. White or international orange
    Y c. Orange
    N d. Any highly visible color easily seen from the air

697: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________.

    Y a. civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel
    N b. civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself
    N c. suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license
    N d. All of the above

743: In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.

    N a. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne
    Y b. the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
    N c. there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube
    N d. the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise

931: The major cause of shock in burn victims is the __________.

    N a. high level of pain
    N b. emotional stress
    N c. increase in body temperature and pulse rate
    Y d. massive loss of fluid through the burned area

951: If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should __________.

    N a. drain any blisters
    N b. apply antiseptic ointment
    N c. scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection
    Y d. immerse the arm in cold water

1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?

    N a. Clean out plates
    N b. Fuel gauges
    N c. Drain valves
    Y d. Shut-off valves

1104: When there is a small craft advisory winds are predicted up to __________.

    N a. 15 knots
    N b. 24 knots
    Y c. 33 knots
    N d. 42 knots

1152: Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if __________.

    N a. they are at least 6 feet long
    N b. they are not operated through a reduction gear
    Y c. they are found satisfactory by the cognizant OCMI
    N d. Both A and C above

1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.

    N a. spray directly on the base of the fire
    Y b. flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
    N c. sweep the fire with the foam
    N d. spray directly on the surface of the fire

1326: All inflatable liferafts have __________.

    N a. safety straps from the overhead
    N b. built in seats
    N c. releasing hooks at each end
    Y d. water stabilizing pockets

1331: A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.

    Y a. has financial backing to meet any liability resulting from the discharge of oil
    N b. has the minimum required amount of P & I and hull insurance
    N c. will assume the responsibility for any damage or loss to the shipper
    N d. has financial reserves to meet reasonable expected crew costs of an intended voyage

1415: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the mean water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft?

    Y a. 8'06"
    N b. 8'03"
    N c. 8'00"
    N d. 7'06"

1467: Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?

    N a. 204 tons
    Y b. 207 tons
    N c. 210 tons
    N d. 213 tons

1522: The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels __________.

    N a. only on the Great Lakes and international waters
    N b. only on the western rivers and international waters
    N c. only on international voyages outside U.S. territorial waters
    Y d. on all international and inland waters

1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

    N a. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire.
    N b. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases.
    N c. Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders.
    Y d. Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising.

1668: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?

    N a. DV
    N b. PR
    N c. FR
    Y d. DR

1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

    Y a. small GM
    N b. low center of gravity
    N c. stiff vessel
    N d. large GZ

1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?

    N a. Class A EPIRBs
    N b. Class B EPIRBs
    Y c. L-Band EPIRBs
    N d. Category I EPIRBs

1966: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090° relative would be __________.

    N a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    Y b. reaching on the starboard tack
    N c. on a broad reach on the starboard tack
    N d. close hauled on the port tack

2070: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    N a. 25 tons
    Y b. 65 tons
    N c. 95 tons
    N d. 175 tons

2163: You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?

    N a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
    Y b. Keep clear of the vessel because it is engaged in pair trawling.
    N c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it requires assistance.
    N d. Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down.

2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?

    N a. Buoyant cushion
    N b. Buoyant vest
    Y c. Life jacket
    N d. Ring life buoy

2521: To enable tying down a helicopter on the landing area of a MODU, the landing deck must be fitted with __________.

    Y a. recessed tie down points
    N b. hydraulically lifted bitts
    N c. air tuggers
    N d. fixed cleats

2562: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower?

    N a. 2
    N b. 3
    Y c. 4
    N d. 5

2626: Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?

    N a. Navigational warnings
    N b. Meteorological warnings
    N c. Search and Rescue information
    Y d. All of the above

2792: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-01"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 35° inclination.

    N a. 1.8 feet
    N b. 3.0 feet
    N c. 4.7 feet
    Y d. 5.8 feet

2890: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 17'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.5 feet) and 475 tons in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 2.1 feet
    N b. 1.6 feet
    N c. 1.4 feet
    Y d. 0.6 foot

2906: Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. A non-self-propelled vessel
    N b. A vessel operating in protected waters with a short restricted route
    N c. A vessel operating on the Ohio River
    Y d. A vessel operating on the Gulf of Mexico

3163: A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.

    N a. negative GM
    Y b. progressive flooding
    N c. structural failure
    N d. an immediate need to counterflood

3353: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

    N a. the float free method only
    N b. kicking the hydrostatic release
    Y c. throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft
    N d. removing the securing straps

3477: What is the increase in the transverse free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

    N a. 0.47 foot
    Y b. 0.32 foot
    N c. 0.27 foot
    N d. 0.13 foot

3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the __________.

    Y a. identity
    N b. time of origin
    N c. reply
    N d. procedure code

3535: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the ball joint angle will exceed 10° or the mooring line tensions will exceed __________.

    N a. 348 kips
    N b. 500 kips
    Y c. 522 kips
    N d. 600 kips

3549: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-10", AFT 18'-06". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0140

    N a. FWD 18'-00", AFT 19'-06"
    N b. FWD 18'-02", AFT 19'-04"
    Y c. FWD 18'-04", AFT 19'-02"
    N d. FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-00"

3641: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

    N a. Very pistol
    Y b. orange smoke signal
    N c. air horn
    N d. lantern

3645: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.

    N a. a rocket shoulder rifle
    N b. an oil lantern
    Y c. red flares
    N d. an air horn

3768: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

    Y a. Identify the person in charge.
    N b. Gather up useful floating objects.
    N c. Prepare for arrival of rescue units.
    N d. Arrange watches and duties.

3920: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

    N a. shape
    N b. shallow draft
    N c. large sail area
    Y d. All of the above

4030: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require any fuel line subject to internal head pressure from fuel in the tank to ___________ .

    Y a. be fitted with a positive fuel shut-off valve located at the tank
    N b. have a shut-off valve at the top of the tank
    N c. have a gate valve easily accessible in the space where the tank is located
    N d. have a drain cock at the lowest point in the fuel line

4197: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

    N a. 0.5 second
    N b. 5.0 seconds
    Y c. 10.0 seconds
    N d. 13.5 seconds

4238: You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. Either an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system
    Y b. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system
    N c. An approved water mist fire protection system and a fixed CO2 fire-extinguishing system
    N d. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and an approved water mist fire protection system

4463: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than __________.

    N a. 11,777 kips
    N b. 13,158 kips
    Y c. 14,158 kips
    N d. 17,280 kips

4743: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?

    N a. 46 feet AFO
    Y b. 84 feet AFO
    N c. 189 feet AFO
    N d. 217 feet AFO

5527: With adaptor blocks/chocks in place on an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be __________.

    N a. 20°
    Y b. 30°
    N c. 40°
    N d. 50°

6907: On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for __________.

    Y a. any amount of time
    N b. more than 24 hours
    N c. more than 36 hours
    N d. more than 72 hours

7371: The condition where a MODU on the end of a tow line is riding a wave crest at the same time as its tug rides a wave crest is known as riding in __________.

    N a. synchronism
    N b. harmony
    N c. check
    Y d. step

8615: The LWT anchor has two angular positions for the flukes. These are __________.

    N a. 30° and 40°
    Y b. 30° and 50°
    N c. 30° and 60°
    N d. 40° and 60°

8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    Y a. 10P
    N b. 9P
    N c. 10S
    N d. 1P

9125: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________.

    N a. remote operated valve
    Y b. fusible link
    N c. CO2 system pressure switch
    N d. heat or smoke detector

9323: A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.

    N a. rich to burn
    Y b. lean to burn
    N c. cool to burn
    N d. dense to burn

9341: Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

    N a. A only
    N b. B only
    N c. B and C only
    Y d. A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher

9651: In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

    Y a. 2
    N b. 3
    N c. 4
    N d. 6