USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.


115: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?


179: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 6780 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5. What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book)


303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which is __________.

    N a. 25 miles from shore
    N b. 12 miles from shore
    N c. 3 miles from shore
    Y d. None of the above are correct.

720: The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the __________.

    Y a. center of buoyancy
    N b. center of flotation
    N c. center of gravity
    N d. tipping center

849: You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken?

    N a. Replace the suit.
    N b. Replace the inflation bladder.
    Y c. Take it out of service and repair in accordance with the manufacturers instructions.
    N d. Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is provided; no other action is necessary.

1003: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?

    N a. 10.0 seconds
    N b. 10.5 seconds
    Y c. 11.0 seconds
    N d. 11.5 seconds

1340: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.

    N a. be dryer
    N b. be lighter
    N c. be less heat resistant
    Y d. not cling to vertical surfaces

1404: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.

    N a. a rocket shoulder rifle
    N b. an oil lantern
    Y c. red flares
    N d. an air horn

1484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 16'-00", AFT 18'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.6 feet.

    N a. Tanks: DB1, DT1A
    N b. Tanks: DT6, DT7
    N c. Tank: DT8
    Y d. Tank: DB3

1620: One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.

    N a. it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumes
    N b. it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectiveness
    Y c. fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire
    N d. it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment

1746: An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than __________.

    N a. 90% of compartment capacity
    Y b. 95% of compartment capacity
    N c. 97% of compartment capacity
    N d. 99% of compartment capacity

1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________.

    N a. shoreside loading rate
    Y b. cargo pump discharge rate
    N c. boiler forced draft fan rate
    N d. size of the largest cargo tank

1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?

    N a. 5 nautical miles
    N b. 10 nautical miles
    Y c. 12 nautical miles
    N d. 25 nautical miles

1859: The parts of the sail shown are correctly labeled EXCEPT the __________. (D003SL )

    N a. head
    N b. leach
    Y c. luff
    N d. tack

1959: You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)

    N a. 0.1 foot
    N b. 0.2 foot
    N c. 0.3 foot
    Y d. 0.4 foot

2069: The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay are called_________.

    Y a. hanks
    N b. shackles
    N c. warps
    N d. gudgeons

2206: Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack?

    N a. Heading up until your sails begin to luff
    N b. Easing sheets
    N c. Reefing sails
    Y d. Changing to larger sails

2414: The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F?

    N a. It will boil off to the atmosphere.
    Y b. It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present.
    N c. It will become less volatile and easier to handle.
    N d. None of the above

2470: According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The last digit "2" of the rating means __________.

    N a. chemical vapors will cause a slight smarting of the eyes or respiratory system if present in high concentrations
    N b. the chemical contains fairly severe skin irritants, causing second- and third-degree burns after a few minutes contact
    Y c. the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm
    N d. the chemical is severely hazardous, usually having threshold limits below 10 ppm

2494: An example of a grade C product is __________.

    Y a. naphtha, vm and p
    N b. tridecanol
    N c. cottonseed oil
    N d. camphor oil

2564: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 1 and 2 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    N a. 19
    N b. 24
    Y c. 32
    N d. 39

2638: Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?

    N a. AMVER
    Y b. SafetyNET
    N c. NAVTEX
    N d. INMARSAT-M SES

2669: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 61 tons
    N b. 72 tons
    Y c. 79 tons
    N d. 86 tons

2762: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination.

    N a. 1.9 feet
    Y b. 2.1 feet
    N c. 3.5 feet
    N d. 4.2 feet

2827: For a floating MODU, true mean draft is always the __________.

    N a. average of the observed drafts
    Y b. draft at the center of flotation
    N c. draft corresponding to the calculated displacement
    N d. mean of the calculated drafts

2838: How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. 6
    N b. 5
    Y c. 3
    N d. 2

3019: All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. on the stern of the vessel
    N b. with a twenty fathom line attached
    N c. with no line attached
    Y d. with a water light to be attached during nighttime operation

3046: How long is the Certificate of Inspection issued to a 50 gross ton, passenger carrying vessel which is 60 feet (18 meters) in length valid? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. One year
    N b. Two years
    Y c. Three years
    N d. Four years

3075: Although KG for a MODU in lightweight is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________.

    N a. KM is small
    Y b. KM is high
    N c. BL is small
    N d. KB is large

3202: Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. Buoyant cushion
    Y b. Life jacket
    N c. Ring buoy
    N d. Buoyant vest

3257: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is discharged from a height of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?

    Y a. 1.5 feet upward
    N b. 1.5 feet downward
    N c. 0.8 foot upward
    N d. 0.8 foot downward

3627: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling on location at a 60 foot draft. Waves are approaching within 2 feet of the underside of the spider deck. You should __________.

    Y a. suspend drilling operations and deballast to a 45 foot draft
    N b. continue drilling while ballasting to a 20 foot draft maximum air gap
    N c. deballast when the waves just begin to hit the underside of the spider deck
    N d. reduce tension on all anchor chains to increase draft

3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    N a. administer oxygen
    Y b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR
    N c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    N d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary

3920: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

    N a. shape
    N b. shallow draft
    N c. large sail area
    Y d. All of the above

3930: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.

    N a. take measures to maintain morale
    N b. prepare and use radio equipment
    N c. identify the person in charge of liferaft
    Y d. search for survivors

4079: Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be reinspected no later than __________.

    Y a. January 2003
    N b. June 2003
    N c. April 2004
    N d. January 2007

4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?

    N a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area.
    N b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port.
    N c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing.
    Y d. All of the above

4101: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the transverse metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    N a. 63.14 feet
    N b. 64.05 feet
    Y c. 64.30 feet
    N d. 66.09 feet

4120: Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?

    N a. An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts
    Y b. A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids
    N c. An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen
    N d. An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores"

4288: The Master or person in charge of a vessel subject to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" who fails to comply with the Act or the regulations thereunder may be charged a civil penalty of __________.

    N a. $2,000
    N b. $1,500
    N c. $1,000
    Y d. $650

5435: The COASTAL DRILLER is operating with a wave clearance of about 20 feet. The out-of-level alarm sounds and the unit is found to be inclined 0.5 degree bow down. The recommended course of action is to __________.

    N a. prepare to take action in case inclination increases
    N b. jack the hull up on the bow leg
    Y c. jack the hull down on the aft two legs
    N d. transfer weight, such as drill water, toward the stern

5455: What percentage of the breaking strength is the generally accepted safe operating load of an anchor cable?

    N a. 10%
    N b. 25%
    Y c. 35%
    N d. 50%

5721: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

    N a. litmus paper
    N b. combustible gas indicator
    N c. oxygen breathing apparatus
    Y d. oxygen indicator

5824: The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of __________.

    N a. stability at all angles of inclination
    Y b. initial stability
    N c. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability
    N d. stability at angles less than the downflooding angle

5945: Each part of the fire-main system located on an exposed deck must be __________.

    Y a. protected against freezing
    N b. locked to prevent theft
    N c. numbered sequentially
    N d. pressurized at all times

6195: Each person on the rig has a designated area to proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is shown clearly on the rig's __________.

    N a. fire fighting plan
    N b. shipping articles
    N c. Certificate of Inspection
    Y d. Muster List ("Station Bill")

6275: During a storm, the mooring line on a MODU should be long enough so that the angle between the anchor shank and the ocean floor is __________.

    Y a. 0°
    N b. 30°
    N c. 60°
    N d. 90°

6496: In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?

    N a. Mud drum
    Y b. Superheater
    N c. Economizer
    N d. Firebox

6573: To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

    N a. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    N b. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    Y c. Certificate of Inspection
    N d. Operations Manual

6651: The factor of safety, based on the elastic limit of the material, for the forks used on power operated industrial trucks aboard a MODU must be at least __________.

    N a. 2 to 1
    Y b. 3 to 1
    N c. 4 to 1
    N d. 5 to 1

6843: With regard to the opening and closing of watertight integrity appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, what must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook?

    N a. The time required to close the appliances
    Y b. The reason for opening or closing each appliance
    N c. The name of the person performing the opening and closing of such appliances
    N d. The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not

6871: Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made?

    Y a. Every 3 months
    N b. Every 6 months
    N c. Every year
    N d. Only after conducting a boat drill

7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

    N a. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
    N b. faster cooling of the fire
    N c. the accumulation of explosive gases
    Y d. the fire to spread through the ventilation system

7601: At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is the __________.

    N a. metacentric height
    N b. displacement
    Y c. righting moment
    N d. inclining moment

8235: What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?

    N a. Direction is unimportant
    N b. Depends on seat configuration
    Y c. From below the seat
    N d. From above the seat

8297: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.

    Y a. starboard drill water pump
    N b. starboard saltwater service pump
    N c. starboard ballast pumps
    N d. port ballast pumps and crossover system

8997: Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.

    N a. TCG
    Y b. transverse moment
    N c. righting moment
    N d. transverse free surface moment

9604: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

    N a. removing the oxygen
    Y b. removing the fuel
    N c. interrupting the chain reaction
    N d. removing the heat

9634: A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.

    Y a. one control
    N b. two controls
    N c. three controls
    N d. none of the above