This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
42: The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________.
N a. for faster loading Y b. tank atmosphere with low oxygen content N c. better fuel economy N d. All of the above 178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.
Y a. applying direct pressure to the wound N b. heavy application of a disinfectant N c. pouring ice water directly onto the wound N d. pinching the wound closed 232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
Y a. One N b. Two N c. Three N d. Four 336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed __________.
N a. 150 lbs Y b. 300 lbs N c. 450 lbs N d. 600 lbs 489: An extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size __________.
N a. I Y b. II N c. III N d. IV 572: Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?
N a. 200 gallons N b. 420 gallons Y c. 667 gallons N d. 986 gallons 788: Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
N a. Classes A and B Y b. Classes B and C N c. Classes C and D N d. Classes A and D 925: The center of flotation of a vessel is the geometric center of the __________.
N a. underwater volume N b. above water volume N c. amidships section Y d. waterplane area 974: On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is __________.
N a. 2 1/2 inches nominal pipe size Y b. 1 1/2 inches nominal pipe size N c. Not specified by the Regulations N d. Large enough so it does not cause backpressure and fuel spillage 985: What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"?
N a. A074T N b. B074 N c. B074T Y d. A074 1117: Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.
N a. increases the size of foam bubbles formed N b. increases the rate of foam production N c. improves the extinguishing properties of foam Y d. gives the nozzleman more freedom of movement, since it can be placed anywhere in the hose line 1264: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.
N a. removing the top half of the shell, cutting the line at its source, and renewing completely N b. cutting the line where it enters the case and replacing that portion N c. leaving the original line and tying another one to it so the two lines will take the strain Y d. an approved servicing facility ashore 1345: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
N a. the float-free method ONLY N b. breaking the weak link on the painter Y c. throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft N d. removing the securing straps 1345: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
N a. the float-free method ONLY N b. breaking the weak link on the painter Y c. throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft N d. removing the securing straps 1385: An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.
N a. pulling a cord N b. cutting the wire restraining bands N c. removing the rubber packing strip Y d. throwing the entire container overboard 1398: The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.
N a. 1 inch Y b. 2-1/2 inches N c. 3 inches N d. 3-1/2 inches 1451: Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to __________.
N a. negative GM N b. flooding Y c. off-center weight N d. reserve buoyancy 1472: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water level aft is 2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )
N a. 11'-08" N b. 11'-06" N c. 11'-04" Y d. 11'-00" 1533: Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into the sea more than 25 miles offshore. N b. You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship. N c. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped. Y d. You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility. 1667: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.
N a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary N b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk Y c. immediately start CPR N d. administer oxygen 1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
N a. 0.74 foot N b. 1.24 feet Y c. 1.41 feet N d. 1.66 feet 1895: How can a SART's effective range be maximized?
N a. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. Y b. The SART should be held as high as possible. N c. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. N d. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. 1905: What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of the mast?
N a. Chainplate N b. Hound N c. Crowfoot Y d. Spreader 2018: When can routine communications be resumed on a frequency or channel on which radio silence has been imposed?
N a. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use N b. After determining that geographic distance from the distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications Y c. After the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded N d. Routine communications can resume if, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency or channel will not interfere with emergency communications. 2177: What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?
N a. SART N b. EPIRB Y c. NAVTEX N d. INMARSAT-B 2184: Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?
N a. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks to eliminate free surface N b. Flood any empty double-bottom tanks to add weight low and down N c. Jettison topside weights to reduce KG and KB Y d. Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard 2460: During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the correct procedure would be to __________.
N a. immediately flush the spill with large quantities of fresh water N b. cover the contaminated surface with soda-ash-soaked lime solution Y c. add sodium bisulfate on the contaminated surface and spray it down with water N d. move to a position upwind of the spill and allow the product to boil off 2470: According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The last digit "2" of the rating means __________.
N a. chemical vapors will cause a slight smarting of the eyes or respiratory system if present in high concentrations N b. the chemical contains fairly severe skin irritants, causing second- and third-degree burns after a few minutes contact Y c. the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm N d. the chemical is severely hazardous, usually having threshold limits below 10 ppm 2674: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 2 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
N a. 76 Y b. 67 N c. 60 N d. 52 2789: As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. charts N b. Coast Pilots N c. Light Lists Y d. All of the above 2838: How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. 6 N b. 5 Y c. 3 N d. 2 2853: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a confined space?
N a. Flame safety lamp N b. Combustible gas indicator Y c. Oxygen indicator N d. H2S meter 3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. decrease N c. increase N d. remain constant 3270: Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel?
N a. 2-1/2 gallon foam extinguisher Y b. 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher N c. 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher N d. None of the above 3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0126
Y a. 595 tons N b. 870 tons N c. 1200 tons N d. 1350 tons 3401: While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea?
Y a. "P" N b. "H" N c. "U" N d. "A" 3433: An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard ship by using __________.
N a. the single hook at the top of the raft N b. two line passed under the raft Y c. the towing bridle N d. All of the above 3581: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 58 feet, has VM of 900,000 ft-tons, and FSMT of 20,000 ft-tons. What is the KGT?
Y a. 51.6 feet N b. 52.3 feet N c. 53.8 feet N d. 55.0 feet 3731: If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to __________.
Y a. 50 knots N b. 70 knots N c. 90 knots N d. 100 knots 4015: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for transverse free surface effects?
N a. 53.78 feet Y b. 54.82 feet N c. 55.47 feet N d. 56.01 feet 4572: You are underway at sea. A fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.
N a. remain on course and hold speed Y b. change course and put the stern to the wind N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed N d. remain on course but decrease speed 5156: Your non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system?
N a. A 5-gallon can or a fixed containment system Y b. A stop valve N c. A non-return valve N d. A means to stop each pump 5479: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine the __________.
Y a. location of the center of gravity of the light ship N b. position of the center of buoyancy N c. position of the metacenter N d. maximum load line 5518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0180
N a. 1.15 feet N b. 1.25 feet N c. 1.31 feet Y d. 1.48 feet 5571: Which two components pass through the shank of an LWT anchor?
Y a. Anchor shackle and stock N b. Tripping palm and flukes N c. Crown and chocks N d. Swivel and stabilizer bar 5647: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension increases __________.
Y a. KG N b. GM N c. KM N d. free surface moments 5683: You should consider placing the drilling operations of the DEEP DRILLER in standby when __________.
Y a. sustained winds exceed 50 knots N b. winds exceed 70 knots N c. critical motion limits have been exceeded N d. waves are greater than 64 feet 6827: What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit after conducting a fire drill?
Y a. The condition of all fire fighting equipment, watertight door mechanisms, and valves used during each drill N b. The location of the unit at the time each drill is conducted N c. The name of each crew member who participated in the drill and their responsibilities N d. All of the above 6917: Injuries resulting in loss of life or incapacitation, aboard vessels, must be reported to the __________.
N a. Minerals Management Service N b. American Petroleum Institute Y c. U.S. Coast Guard N d. International Association of Drilling Contractors 6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.
Y a. tour reports N b. hull reports N c. machinery repair record book N d. deck equipment log 7065: What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?
N a. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts Y b. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction N c. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain N d. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction 8047: An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.
N a. only when the load is taken off the cable N b. only when there is a load on the cable N c. only when activated by the controls at the lowering station Y d. at any time 8107: What is the minimum required GML for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?
N a. 0.17 foot Y b. 2.63 feet N c. 4.34 feet N d. 9.12 feet 8123: To effectively use the crossover system on the DEEP DRILLER to pump from the low side using a high side ballast pump, transverse inclinations should not exceed __________.
N a. 8° N b. 6° N c. 4° Y d. 2° 8127: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?
N a. 134.95 feet N b. 135.91 feet Y c. 136.38 feet N d. 136.89 feet 8281: In storm conditions, when the DEEP DRILLER is in 600 feet water depth, and the high-line tension (HLT) is 350 kips, completely slacking the two leeward mooring line tensions reduces the HLT to __________.
N a. 375 kips Y b. 275 kips N c. 245 kips N d. 220 kips 8327: When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?
N a. 20 Y b. 50 N c. 100 N d. 200 8825: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel?
N a. 1 foot 6 inches to starboard Y b. 3 feet to starboard N c. 3 feet to port N d. 1 foot 6 inches to port 9391: Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?
N a. Small sips at regular intervals during the day N b. The complete daily ration at one time during the day Y c. One-third the daily ration three times daily N d. Small sips only after sunset 9432: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.
Y a. green N b. white N c. red N d. yellow