USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.


84: After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.


86: On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you __________.


284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.

    N a. G421G
    Y b. G4214
    N c. G421G421
    N d. G4211

388: A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury?

    Y a. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and bandage.
    N b. Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment and bandage.
    N c. Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure that nothing is in contact with the burn.
    N d. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister and apply burn ointment.

509: Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________.

    N a. faking
    N b. flemishing down
    Y c. mousing
    N d. worming

518: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

    N a. boric acid solution
    Y b. water
    N c. baking soda solution
    N d. ammonia

566: Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?

    N a. It is propelled by engine or hand-propelling gear.
    N b. It has a sufficient fuel capacity, if motorized, for 48 hours of operation.
    Y c. It must be able to maintain a loaded speed of 6 knots.
    N d. All of the above

585: How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board?

    N a. One week
    N b. Two weeks
    Y c. One month
    N d. Three months

863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?

    N a. The moment of inertia would remain unchanged.
    Y b. The moment of inertia would be 1/4 its original value.
    N c. The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value.
    N d. None of the above

979: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

    N a. After 12 hours
    Y b. After 24 hours
    N c. Within 48 hours
    N d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later.

1000: A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. The vessel has negative GM.
    N b. The center of gravity is on the centerline.
    N c. The list can be corrected by reducing KM.
    Y d. The vessel has asymmetrical weight distribution.

1343: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-03". The KG is 25.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    N a. 3.0°
    Y b. 4.5°
    N c. 5.0°
    N d. 6.5°

1365: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

    N a. open the CO2 inflation valve
    N b. open the raft container
    Y c. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
    N d. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side

1543: The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for __________.

    N a. one year
    N b. two years
    Y c. ten years
    N d. the life of the vessel

1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    N a. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    N b. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water
    N c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    Y d. under no conditions

1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    N a. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    N b. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water
    N c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    Y d. under no conditions

1668: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?

    N a. DV
    N b. PR
    N c. FR
    Y d. DR

1886: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    N a. .19 foot
    N b. .42 foot
    N c. .64 foot
    Y d. .87 foot

1932: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

    N a. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster and closer to the wind.
    N b. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster on the same course.
    Y c. If you steer closer to the wind, you will slow down.
    N d. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you must bear away from the wind.

2010: Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    N a. 1.56 feet
    Y b. 2.37 feet
    N c. 2.55 feet
    N d. 2.74 feet

2200: To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is __________.

    Y a. 0.71 foot
    N b. 0.95 foot
    N c. 1.26 feet
    N d. 2.01 feet

2284: The flammable limits for crude oil are __________.

    N a. 1% to 6% mixture in air
    N b. 20% to 40% mixture in air
    N c. 0% to 1% mixture in air
    Y d. unavailable

2368: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0061

    N a. FWD 22'-02", AFT 25'-08"
    N b. FWD 21'-07", AFT 26'-03"
    Y c. FWD 20'-11", AFT 26'-09"
    N d. FWD 20'-09", AFT 26'-11"

2446: If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?

    N a. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator.
    N b. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout.
    Y c. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically.
    N d. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in distress to download the necessary information

2499: What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid?

    N a. Allyl alcohol
    N b. Phenol
    N c. Acetaldehyde
    Y d. Carbon disulfide

2558: Grade C liquids are those having a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

    Y a. 8-1/2 psi or less
    N b. 8-1/2 psi or more
    N c. 14 psi or less
    N d. 14 psi or more

2579: What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

    N a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.
    Y b. Transmit Distress call by MF/HF, VHF or INMARSAT.
    N c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on Channel 13.
    N d. Transmit Distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.

2607: The tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize is indicated by its __________.

    Y a. flash point
    N b. convection index
    N c. flammable range
    N d. ignition temperature

2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.

    N a. reserve ballast
    Y b. reserve buoyancy
    N c. lightweight displacement
    N d. critical motions

2714: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    N a. 63
    N b. 66
    Y c. 71
    N d. 77

2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

    N a. 1.6 feet
    N b. 2.9 feet
    N c. 3.8 feet
    Y d. 4.6 feet

2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 62 tons
    N b. 65 tons
    N c. 72 tons
    Y d. 75 tons

2816: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. 30 feet long
    Y b. 60 feet long
    N c. 90 feet long
    N d. 120 feet long

2886: A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at least once every __________.

    Y a. 2 years
    N b. 3 years
    N c. 4 years
    N d. 5 years

2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.

    N a. only when there is positive stability
    N b. only when there is negative stability
    N c. only when there is neutral stability
    Y d. at all times

3181: Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________.

    N a. free surface effects
    N b. capsizing the MODU
    Y c. continued progressive flooding
    N d. wind overturning moments

3235: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.

    N a. 1.09 feet
    N b. 1.60 feet
    Y c. 1.58 feet
    N d. 2.73 feet

3547: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0139

    Y a. Available GM 3.5 ft
    N b. Available GM 3.9 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.3 ft
    N d. Available GM 4.8 ft

3924: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.

    Y a. remain in the immediate vicinity
    N b. head for the nearest land
    N c. head for the closest sea-lanes
    N d. let the persons in the boat vote on what to do

3981: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy?

    N a. 0.00 feet
    N b. 1.69 feet
    N c. 2.25 feet
    Y d. 2.29 feet

4010: A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.

    N a. synthetic plastic discharge plan
    N b. oil discharge plan
    Y c. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
    N d. vapor recovery procedures plan

4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?

    N a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area.
    N b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port.
    N c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing.
    Y d. All of the above

4105: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    Y a. 0.06 foot aft
    N b. 0.14 foot aft
    N c. 0.27 foot aft
    N d. 0.40 foot aft

4321: Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________.

    Y a. preload
    N b. liquid variable load
    N c. fixed load
    N d. basic load

4323: Guide tolerances during elevation of the jack-up rig will __________.

    N a. reduce spud can bearing pressure
    Y b. keep the unit level and reduce overloading
    N c. reduce stresses on the hull
    N d. minimize the potential for punch-through

4326: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 279.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0159

    N a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet
    N b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    N c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    Y d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet

4616: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

    Y a. 19'-00"
    N b. 19'-04"
    N c. 19'-09"
    N d. 20'-01"

4783: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds remain less than 70 knots?

    N a. 0.00 feet
    Y b. 14.35 feet
    N c. 14.82 feet
    N d. 65.00 feet

6503: If, during helicopter refueling operations, fuel is spilled on clothing, the person should first __________.

    N a. see the medic immediately
    N b. spray himself with foam or CO2
    N c. complete his task and then see the medic
    Y d. remove the clothing and wash

6673: Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with __________.

    Y a. the letter "E"
    N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit
    N c. a no-smoking symbol
    N d. the word "DANGER"

6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.

    Y a. tour reports
    N b. hull reports
    N c. machinery repair record book
    N d. deck equipment log

6955: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board a MODU for how long after the report of a casualty?

    N a. 1 month
    Y b. 3 months
    N c. 6 months
    N d. 12 months

7041: A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should __________.

    N a. give the victim artificial respiration
    N b. completely restrain the victim
    N c. give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbital
    Y d. keep the victim from injuring him or herself

8403: What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?

    N a. Carbon on cylinder heads
    N b. Faulty unloader
    Y c. Leaking air valves
    N d. Plugged air cooler

8412: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height, you should __________.

    N a. dive head first using your hands to break the surface of the water
    N b. hold your arms firmly at your sides and jump feet first
    N c. throw your life jacket into the water first and then jump feet first into the water next to it
    Y d. jump feet first, holding onto your life jacket with one hand while covering your nose and mouth with the other

8625: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?

    Y a. 0.94 foot starboard of centerline
    N b. 0.90 foot starboard of centerline
    N c. 0.47 foot port of centerline
    N d. 0.23 foot port of centerline

8757: The routes to be used during evacuation of the COASTAL DRILLER are shown in the __________.

    N a. official log
    N b. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    Y c. posted Fire Control/Lifesaving Plan
    N d. control room under glass

9205: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed __________.

    N a. horizontally and directly abeam of your vessel
    N b. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract
    N c. into the wind
    Y d. at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon

9525: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity a vessel has which type of stability?

    Y a. Stable
    N b. Neutral
    N c. Unstable
    N d. Negative