This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?
N a. They usually disappear quickly. N b. They usually stay in a small area. Y c. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative. N d. A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area. 82: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
N a. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire Y b. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge N c. over the top of the fire N d. at the main body of the fire 128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
N a. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. N b. Apply a compression bandage. N c. Use temporary stitches of sail twine. Y d. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. 179: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 6780 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5. What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 28 feet N b. 26 feet Y c. 22 feet N d. 12 feet 324: The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel __________.
N a. 13 Y b. 16 N c. 18 N d. 22 356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to __________.
N a. the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 100 N b. one pound of CO2 per cubic foot of space N c. one pound of CO2 per square foot of deck area Y d. the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 30 556: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.
N a. 6 months Y b. year N c. 18 months N d. two years 606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.
N a. 4° Y b. 8° N c. 12° N d. 16° 760: With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________.
Y a. on most "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length N b. on most "T-Boats" regardless of length N c. only on "K-Boats" N d. None of the above 1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
N a. before the gripes are released N b. before the boat is moved from the davits Y c. at the embarkation deck N d. after the boat is in the water 1127: Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.
N a. 97 times greater N b. 94 times greater Y c. 10 times greater N d. 2 times greater 1219: 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________.
N a. only be used in non-vital systems N b. not be used in gasoline or diesel fuel systems N c. have approved metallic fittings and cutoff valves where it penetrates a watertight deck or bulkhead Y d. All of the above 1252: When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed __________.
N a. over the top of the flames N b. off a bulkhead into the fire N c. in front of the fire Y d. at the base of the fire 1294: According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called __________.
Y a. loading marks N b. the air draft N c. depth marks N d. Plimsoll marks 1321: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
Y a. Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls N b. Spliced into the ring on the stem post N c. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls N d. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart 1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?
N a. A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you. N b. Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities. N c. You should always wear a gas mask. Y d. After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside. 1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Post a lookout. N c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y d. Pick up other survivors. 1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?
Y a. One approved Category 1 EPIRB N b. Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs N c. One approved Class B EPIRB N d. Two approved Class B EPIRBs 1737: In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system, there must be __________.
N a. fuel N b. oxygen N c. ignition Y d. All of the above 1795: Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?
N a. These are located in CCIR #476. N b. These are located in FCC Part 83. N c. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. Y d. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. 1819: Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons?
N a. 9.14 feet Y b. 9.45 feet N c. 9.68 feet N d. 9.87 feet 1961: Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?
N a. The Operator can make fine internal adjustments to the transmitter as long as the output power does not change by more than one percent. Y b. The Operator is responsible for ensuring that INMARSAT antennas are free of built-up soot and clear of obstacles. N c. All levels of maintenance must be performed by a licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. N d. The Operator may install an EPROM in order to ensure that the equipment continues to operate within legal constraints. 1997: Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________.
N a. 5 nautical miles from nearest land N b. 12 nautical miles from nearest land N c. 25 nautical miles from nearest land Y d. None of the above 2057: You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed by the __________.
Y a. Federal Communications Commission N b. U.S. Coast Guard N c. Minerals Management Service N d. Department of Energy 2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships.
N a. FWD 19'-07", AFT 20'-10" Y b. FWD 19'-09", AFT 21'-01" N c. FWD 20'-00", AFT 21'-00" N d. FWD 20'-01", AFT 21'-05" 2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________.
N a. EPIRB Y b. inflatable liferaft N c. life float N d. buoyant apparatus 2351: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower?
N a. 5 N b. 4 Y c. 3 N d. 2 2400: You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. The Chemical Data Guide indicates that the solubility of ethyl chloride in water will be __________.
N a. negligible Y b. slight N c. moderate N d. complete 2440: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited?
N a. Toxic fumes of oxides of nitrogen N b. Toxic fumes of lead Y c. Poisonous phosgene gas N d. Poisonous chlorine gas 2577: The radiotelephone safety signal is __________.
Y a. "Securite" repeated 3 times N b. "Safety" repeated 3 times N c. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times N d. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times 2685: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is determined by the __________.
N a. Minerals Management Service N b. Corps of Engineers Y c. Coast Guard N d. American Bureau of Shipping 3012: You are on the cargo vessel represented in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book. Your present KG is 22.3 feet and the drafts are FWD 21'-07", AFT 22'-05". The following cargo must be loaded: (1) 1120 tons, KG 33 feet; (2) 990 tons, KG 25 feet. How many tons of deck cargo with a KG of 47 feet may be loaded if the ship is to sail with a GM of not less than 2.1 feet and not exceed the freeboard draft?
N a. 0 tons Y b. 60 tons N c. 103 tons N d. 149 tons 3094: A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of __________.
N a. 15 lbs N b. 25 lbs Y c. 35 lbs N d. 45 lbs 3230: Which statement is TRUE concerning a power driven fire pump on board a small passenger vessel?
N a. The hand fire pump shall be located adjacent to the main engine spaces. N b. It shall be of at least 2 gallons per minute capacity. N c. It shall be painted red. Y d. It may also serve as a bilge pump. 3278: Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.
N a. to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks N b. to the top so the operator is certain how much fuel he has aboard N c. with only sufficient fuel for the planned trip so excess gasoline is not carried Y d. to near the top with some space allowed for gasoline expansion 3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
N a. density of the liquid N b. placement of the tank above the keel Y c. displacement volume of the vessel N d. size of the surface area in the tank 3539: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.
N a. 1010 tons each N b. 1025 tons each N c. 1050 tons each Y d. 1070 tons each 3631: During an ice storm on board the DEEP DRILLER, the rig is uniformly covered with 414 tons of ice. At the beginning of the storm the rig was at 45 foot draft. After the storm the rig was at a 48 foot draft. Assume a KG of 127 feet for the new ice and an original KG of 58 feet. What is the new KG of the DEEP DRILLER?
Y a. 59.74 feet N b. 60.34 feet N c. 61.19 feet N d. 61.27 feet 3738: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.
Y a. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised N b. administer a liquid stimulant N c. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet N d. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness 3771: What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P?
N a. 15,265 ft-tons Y b. 14,609 ft-tons N c. 7,293 ft-tons N d. 5,174 ft-tons 3862: In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.
N a. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces N b. may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency Y c. should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency N d. All of the above 3990: What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?
N a. A drill on its use must be held once every three months. N b. The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. Y c. The auxiliary line must be of a light color. N d. The auxiliary line must be at least 1500 feet long. 4076: In the illustration shown, the equipment bags are indicated by item number __________. (D014SA )
N a. 12 N b. 15 N c. 17 Y d. 19 4111: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?
N a. 6.46 feet N b. 7.09 feet Y c. 7.72 feet N d. 8.39 feet 4244: You are the operator of a 290 GRT uninspected towing vessel whose construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. Which type of semi-portable fire-extinguishing system is required on your vessel? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. B-V N b. B-IV N c. B-III N d. None of the above 4245: The maximum load line draft for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
N a. 12 feet 8 inches N b. 11 feet 7.2 inches Y c. 10 feet 10.5 inches N d. 10 feet 8.8 inches 5283: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use __________.
Y a. starboard drill water pump N b. starboard saltwater service pump N c. starboard ballast pumps N d. port ballast pumps and crossover system 6041: On offshore drilling units, the fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space may be sprayed with at least __________.
N a. one spray pattern Y b. two spray patterns N c. three spray patterns N d. four spray patterns 6767: A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.
N a. working on the rig floor Y b. working over water N c. working on the pipe racks N d. operating line throwing equipment 6925: After a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, what record must be kept on board?
N a. The Oil Record Book Y b. The crane record book N c. All chart catalogs N d. The machinery maintenance logbook 8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.
Y a. when there is no load on the cable N b. when there is a load on the cable N c. only when the doors are closed N d. when the engine is started 8341: Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.
N a. high pressure fluid accumulators N b. driving air-powered plunger pumps Y c. filling open-circuit breathing systems N d. bladder-type accumulators 8595: When a survival craft drill is held, the person in charge must insure that __________.
N a. all survival craft are lowered to the water, launched, and operated for thirty minutes Y b. all davits used for launching liferafts are operated N c. each emergency position indicating radio beacon is tested for thirty minutes N d. the helicopter pad landing lights are operating in a quick-flashing mode 8702: An oil fire is classified as class __________.
N a. D N b. C Y c. B N d. A 8715: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. To deballast from tank C2SA using starboard ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open the manual valve and which motor driven valves?
Y a. 15, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48 N b. 16, 27, 32, 35, 36, 48 N c. 15, 33, 43, 48 N d. 14, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48 9021: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
N a. inclining moments N b. righting moments N c. vertical moments Y d. longitudinal position of the center of gravity 9357: Halon extinguishers used on a class C fire should be directed at the __________.
N a. base of the equipment N b. top of the equipment N c. power source Y d. source of the fire 9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.
N a. 20° N b. 30° N c. 40° Y d. 50° 9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
N a. 4 of each N b. 3 of each Y c. 2 of each N d. 1 of each 9682: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
N a. 15 minutes Y b. 30 minutes N c. 45 minutes N d. 60 minutes