This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
62: The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.
N a. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks N b. acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure in the hazardous zone Y c. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas N d. relieves sudden large overpressures in the system 119: What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?
N a. A jack-up rig under tow N b. A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow N c. A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking a tow line Y d. All of the above 120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
N a. metacentric point Y b. metacenter N c. metacentric radius N d. tipping center 128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
N a. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. N b. Apply a compression bandage. N c. Use temporary stitches of sail twine. Y d. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. 192: When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
N a. use different fire hose pressures N b. use fire hoses of different sizes Y c. not attack the fire from opposite sides N d. not wear protective clothing 250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
N a. KG will increase Y b. Metacentric height will increase N c. KB will increase N d. Reserve buoyancy will decrease 365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974?
Y a. At least 5 gallons N b. At least 1 barrel N c. At least 2 barrels N d. At least 3 barrels 475: The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly must be at least __________.
N a. the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head N b. twice the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head N c. three times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head Y d. four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head 556: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.
N a. 6 months Y b. year N c. 18 months N d. two years 569: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 25 ft. wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with salt water below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?
N a. .56 foot N b. .58 foot Y c. .62 foot N d. .66 foot 574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that __________.
Y a. he cannot accept traffic immediately N b. you should proceed with your message N c. you should send your message in International Code N d. you should send your message in plain language 832: Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical extinguisher?
Y a. You should direct the stream at the base of the fire. N b. You should direct the stream directly into the fire. N c. You should direct the stream at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire. N d. All of the above 858: A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class __________.
Y a. A N b. B N c. C N d. D 971: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
N a. After 12 hours Y b. After 24 hours N c. Within 48 hours N d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later 978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?
N a. It will explode if exposed to a flame. Y b. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal. N c. It will burn rapidly once ignited. N d. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride. 1356: What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?
Y a. Water pockets N b. A keel N c. Strikes N d. Sea anchor 1360: When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the embarkation deck by the __________.
N a. falls Y b. tricing pendants N c. frapping lines N d. boat hooks 1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?
Y a. One approved Category 1 EPIRB N b. Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs N c. One approved Class B EPIRB N d. Two approved Class B EPIRBs 1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?
N a. Conducts electricity N b. Difficult to store N c. Large volume necessary to be effective Y d. Ineffective in powdered metal fires 1734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?
N a. Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature. Y b. Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature. N c. Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature. N d. Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature. 1810: Halon extinguishes a fire by __________.
Y a. breaking the chain reaction N b. smothering the fire N c. cooling the fire N d. coating the fuel with a nonflammable surface 1918: Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?
N a. EPIRB's that transmit on 406 MHz Y b. Survival craft VHF transceivers that provide a beacon on 121.5 MHz N c. COSPAS-SARSAT EPIRBs N d. SARTs operating on 9 GHz 1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Acetonitrile N b. Molten sulfur Y c. Dodecanol N d. Soybean oil 2032: What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?
N a. Possibility of reflash Y b. Electrocution or shock N c. Explosion N d. Flashover 2077: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are proceeding under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. If most of the propelling power comes from the sails, your vessel is considered a sailing vessel. N b. You must display a red light over a green light at the masthead. Y c. In fog you must sound one prolonged blast at two-minute intervals when making way. N d. By day, you must display a black diamond shape forward. 2355: What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?
N a. ITU Publications Y b. The manufacturers instruction manuals N c. Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations N d. Code of Federal Regulations, Title 47, Part 80, Subpart W` 2385: When drilling from a MODU, the conductor casing is landed with its top extending to just __________.
N a. above the sea floor Y b. below the drill floor N c. below sea level N d. below the sea floor 2713: On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of void spaces above the waterline in the __________.
N a. submerged hulls N b. quarters Y c. columns and upper structure N d. submerged connecting structures 2721: You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.
N a. slack the foresail sheet N b. slack the fore-staysail sheet N c. slack the jib sheet Y d. slack the main sheet 2839: What type of cooking equipment may NOT be used aboard vessels subject to The Rules and Regulations for Small Passenger Vessels?
Y a. Gasoline N b. Propane N c. Butane N d. LPG 2841: The distance from the still water level (corrected for tides and storm surge) to the bottom of the hull of a MODU is the __________.
Y a. air gap N b. freeboard N c. penetration N d. water depth 2889: Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Watertight. N b. Grounded to the main engine on a wooden hulled boat. Y c. The dead-front type, totally enclosed N d. Equipped with switch locks 2949: Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Location of the occurrence N b. Number and name of vessel N c. Names of owners Y d. All of the above 2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
N a. only when there is positive stability N b. only when there is negative stability N c. only when there is neutral stability Y d. at all times 3041: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.
N a. one year Y b. two years N c. until the end of the voyage N d. until the next Coast Guard inspection 3094: A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of __________.
N a. 15 lbs N b. 25 lbs Y c. 35 lbs N d. 45 lbs 3329: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.
N a. remain on course and hold speed N b. remain on course but slack the speed Y c. change course and put the stern to the wind N d. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed 3365: What is the correct procedure to follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an OSV?
N a. Connect the float free link to the vessel. Y b. Pull the painter from the container and make it fast to the cleat provided. N c. Open the canopy relief valves. N d. Remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation. 3450: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?
Y a. End-for-ended N b. Renewed N c. Inspected N d. Weight tested 3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
N a. density of the liquid N b. placement of the tank above the keel Y c. displacement volume of the vessel N d. size of the surface area in the tank 3504: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 6280 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0135
N a. KG 25.3 feet N b. KG 25.7 feet Y c. KG 26.0 feet N d. KG 27.1 feet 3870: Each EPIRB required on an OSV shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.
N a. week N b. two weeks Y c. month N d. two months 3973: What are the additional vertical moments created when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER sample load form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?
N a. 2,252 foot-tons Y b. 9,413 foot-tons N c. 11,665 foot-tons N d. 13,917 foot-tons 4069: In the illustration, the sea anchor is number __________. (D014SA )
N a. 1 N b. 12 Y c. 14 N d. 18 4151: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #1 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?
N a. 60 feet 9.6 inches N b. 59 feet 9.3 inches Y c. 59 feet 2.7 inches N d. 56 feet 10.9 inches 4221: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the centerline is __________.
N a. 1000 kips N b. 875 kips Y c. 854 kips N d. 755 kips 4334: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system?
N a. Condenses moisture N b. Provides overpressure protection N c. Purifies the air Y d. Acts as an accumulator 5135: In the illustration, symbol 2 represents __________. (D041DG )
N a. displacement N b. beam limit N c. bilge level Y d. baseline 5445: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and forward. Strong wind and high waves are from the starboard quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2 Y b. failure of mooring lines 5 or 6 N c. leak in ballast tank #2P N d. ballast tanks are equalizing into tank 1P 5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-06", AFT 20'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0178
N a. 1.05 feet N b. 1.15 feet N c. 1.25 feet Y d. 1.31 feet 5631: In deballasting to survival draft because of extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.
Y a. reduce windward mooring line tensions N b. reduce leeward mooring line tensions N c. increase leeward mooring line tensions N d. maintain constant mooring line tensions 6947: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a MODU?
N a. Preventive maintenance log Y b. Storage plans N c. Oil Record Book N d. Repair record book 7075: Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?
N a. Major multiple fractures N b. Eye injuries N c. Back injuries with spinal-cord damage Y d. Airway and breathing difficulties 7143: Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________.
N a. fuel supply N b. exhaust ventilation Y c. supply and exhaust ventilation N d. mechanical and natural ventilation 8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?
N a. 0.00 feet N b. 1.03 feet Y c. 1.69 feet N d. 2.22 feet 8835: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 foot-kips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet. How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet?
N a. 67.5 kips N b. 81.0 kips N c. 126.6 kips Y d. 253.1 kips 8867: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. How much ballast is required to ballast to 32 feet?
N a. 2,094 long tons N b. 2,194 long tons Y c. 2,294 long tons N d. 3,294 long tons 8885: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft?
Y a. 19 feet 9 inches N b. 20 feet 4 inches N c. 20 feet 8 inches N d. 21 feet 4 inches 9335: The disadvantage of using CO2 is that the __________.
Y a. CO2 does not cool the fire N b. cylinders are regulated pressure vessels N c. C02 is not effective on class "B" fires N d. C02 is not effective on class "C" fires 9573: A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the __________.
Y a. center of gravity N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of flotation N d. metacenter