This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.
N a. metacentric height Y b. righting arm N c. righting moment N d. metacentric radius 129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
N a. a righting line N b. red hand flares Y c. pendants N d. drinking water 136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
Y a. Hand-portable fire extinguisher N b. Life preserver N c. Immersion suit N d. Lifeboat oar 226: How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship?
N a. One N b. Two N c. Three Y d. Four 357: The operator of a vessel's radiotelephone must hold at least a __________.
N a. third class radiotelegraph operator certificate Y b. restricted radiotelephone operator permit N c. general radiotelephone operator license N d. mates license 363: You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________.
N a. take no action, broaching is recommended in a heavy sea Y b. put out the sea anchor N c. put out the sea painter N d. fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of water to make it ride better 392: What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?
N a. Bearing grease and a wire brush N b. Talc and fine sandpaper N c. Fish oil and a soft brush Y d. Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush 521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?
N a. .39 ft Y b. .77 ft N c. .88 ft N d. .95 ft 625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________.
N a. is always effective immediately Y b. includes a statement of each condition requiring corrective action N c. must be in writing before it takes effect N d. All of the above 680: The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.
N a. deeps N b. domestics Y c. peaks N d. settlers 819: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea?
Y a. 25 nm N b. 12 nm N c. 6 nm N d. 3 nm 867: Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at least once __________.
N a. a month Y b. in each week N c. in every 6 months N d. in every 12 months 898: A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?
N a. A Y b. B N c. C N d. D 933: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 40 feet and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?
N a. 0.3 ft. N b. 0.5 ft. Y c. 0.8 ft. N d. 1.1 ft. 934: The signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative" is __________.
Y a. vertical motion of the arms N b. code signal "C" sent by light or sound signaling apparatus N c. firing of a red star signal N d. None of the above 1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________.
N a. cutting the restraining strap N b. unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle N c. lifting one end of the raft Y d. pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release 1541: Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?
N a. Garbage N b. Hazardous substances N c. Oil Y d. All of the above 1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________.
N a. drowning N b. electrocution N c. poisoning Y d. All of the above 1758: A flooded leg on a liftboat would adversely affect the vessel's stability underway by __________.
N a. increasing the righting moment N b. decreasing the vessel's displacement N c. increasing the reserve buoyancy Y d. shifting the CG (center of gravity) off center 1991: It is the responsibility of the person in charge to __________.
N a. revise the operating manual when rig personnel change Y b. be fully aware of the provisions in the operating manual N c. maintain the rig's construction portfolio N d. All of the above 2177: What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?
N a. SART N b. EPIRB Y c. NAVTEX N d. INMARSAT-B 2289: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tert-butylamine?
Y a. 11 (psig) N b. 12 (psig) N c. 13 (psig) N d. 14 (psig) 2524: What characteristic determines when a grade "C" product will start to vaporize?
N a. Its filling density N b. Its ignition point N c. The flammable range Y d. Its flash point 2529: What is a grade B flammable liquid?
N a. Ethylene oxide N b. Paraldehyde Y c. Chlorallylene N d. Allyl alcohol 2530: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.
N a. 1 minute Y b. 3 minutes N c. 5 minutes N d. 10 minutes 2543: The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to __________.
Y a. prevent the boom from being raised too high N b. prevent the boom from swinging N c. support the boom when not in use N d. prevent the boom from being lowered 2569: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 4,176 foot-tons Y b. 5,196 foot-tons N c. 7,076 foot-tons N d. 9,003 foot-tons 2746: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.
N a. 0.8 foot N b. 1.5 feet N c. 2.7 feet Y d. 3.6 feet 2855: Deficient oxygen content inside a confined space can be detected with __________.
N a. litmus paper N b. a combustible gas indicator N c. an oxygen breathing apparatus Y d. an oxygen indicator 2912: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0086
Y a. 0.68 foot N b. 0.85 foot N c. 0.97 foot N d. 1.30 feet 3007: A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.
N a. will capsize N b. will incline further Y c. may lie at an angle of loll N d. may be initially level 3047: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.
N a. remotely operated valves Y b. fusible links N c. C02 system pressure switches N d. heat or smoke detectors 3147: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.
N a. C1S N b. 8S N c. 2P Y d. 1S 3287: A vessel displacing 18,000 tons has a KG of 50 feet. A crane is used to lift cargo weighing 20 long tons from a supply vessel. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 150 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?
Y a. 0.11 foot N b. 0.17 foot N c. 0.25 foot N d. 0.32 foot 3327: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 20,000 long tons. LCB is 3.0 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 40 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?
N a. 3.64 feet forward of amidships N b. 2.45 feet forward of amidships Y c. 2.36 feet forward of amidships N d. 0.55 foot forward of amidships 3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?
N a. Once each day N b. Once each week Y c. Once each month N d. Once each trip 3521: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.
N a. normal food supplies for 79 persons N b. eight anchor buoys N c. lower-hull fuel Y d. loading hoses 3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the __________.
Y a. identity N b. time of origin N c. reply N d. procedure code 3674: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
N a. At one hour intervals N b. At half hour intervals Y c. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels N d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel 3770: The abandon ship signal is __________.
N a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds N b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells N d. a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle 3791: What is the VCG of the additional load if P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled ?
N a. 113.90 feet N b. 117.01 feet N c. 121.03 feet Y d. 123.06 feet 3829: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.
N a. 12 months N b. 15 months Y c. 17 months N d. 18 months 3922: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
N a. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. N b. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated. N c. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. Y d. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop. 4014: Towing vessel fire protection regulations apply to vessels operated __________.
N a. for restricted service such as making up or breaking up larger tows N b. for assistance towing N c. for pollution response Y d. on the Western Rivers 4110: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
N a. Subchapter W Y b. Subchapter T N c. Subchapter I N d. Subchapter E 5156: Your non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system?
N a. A 5-gallon can or a fixed containment system Y b. A stop valve N c. A non-return valve N d. A means to stop each pump 5753: The length of chain between the anchor and the end of the pendant line is called the __________.
N a. pigtail chain N b. thrash chain Y c. crown chain N d. wear chain 5925: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting service, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.
N a. check valve installed in the line Y b. shut off valve at a manifold near the pump N c. quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump N d. regulator in the line set at 125 psi 6201: The two courses of action if the underwater hull of a MODU is severely damaged are to plug the openings and to __________.
N a. dewater the compartment Y b. establish and maintain flooding boundaries N c. secure power to the compartment N d. counter flood to maintain even keel 6607: To determine the number of Able Seamen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.
N a. load line certificate N b. Operations Manual N c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate Y d. Certificate of Inspection 7403: If you must jump from a MODU, your posture should include __________.
Y a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin, with knees bent, and legs crossed 7581: For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.
Y a. KG is minimum N b. angle of inclination is a maximum N c. small-angle stability applies N d. KM is a minimum 7647: The abbreviation GM is used to represent the __________.
N a. height of the metacenter N b. righting arm N c. righting moment Y d. metacentric height 8515: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________.
N a. 4,536 kips N b. 4,698 kips Y c. 4,725 kips N d. 4,890 kips 8537: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. satisfactory, keep the unit at transit draft N b. satisfactory, put the unit in standby Y c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 8653: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1S is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. deballast from tank 2S N b. dump the mud N c. counterflood into 9P N d. place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 2S 8867: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. How much ballast is required to ballast to 32 feet?
N a. 2,094 long tons N b. 2,194 long tons Y c. 2,294 long tons N d. 3,294 long tons 9153: The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.
N a. availability of tools N b. shape of the hull Y c. pressure exerted by the water N d. threat of progressive flooding 9583: Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits must wear the immersion suit in a boat drill, or participate in a drill which includes donning the suit and being instructed in its use at least once every __________.
Y a. month N b. 2 months N c. 3 months N d. 6 months 9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
N a. 10 minutes N b. 15 minutes Y c. 30 minutes N d. 45 minutes