USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.


313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be __________.


324: The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel __________.


393: A sea anchor is __________.

    N a. a heavy anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in deep water
    Y b. a cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect
    N c. a pad eye to which the sea painter is made fast
    N d. made of wood if it is of an approved type

511: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0011

    Y a. 696 tons
    N b. 520 tons
    N c. 473 tons
    N d. 444 tons

560: On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less than six inches above the deepest load waterline __________.

    N a. must have a check valve to prevent water from entering
    Y b. except for engine exhausts must have a means to prevent water from entering the vessel if the pipe fails
    N c. must be fitted with a gate valve
    N d. must be sealed

610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

    N a. initial stability
    N b. free surface
    N c. permeability
    Y d. stability at large angles of inclination

631: You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

    Y a. slack the mizzen sheet
    N b. trim the mizzen vang
    N c. slack the jib sheet
    N d. trim the main outhaul

689: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.

    N a. walked around until he is back to normal
    N b. given several shots of whiskey
    Y c. kept lying down and warm
    N d. allowed to do as he wishes

877: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by the __________.

    N a. Mine Safety Appliance Association
    N b. American Chemical Society
    N c. Marine Chemists Association
    Y d. National Fire Protection Association

1094: A small craft advisory forecasts winds of up to what speed?

    N a. 16 kts.
    N b. 24 kts.
    Y c. 33 kts.
    N d. 48 kts.

1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.

    N a. must be located at the lowest portion of the tank
    N b. must have only a gravity-forced flow
    N c. must be extended to an external area of the hull
    Y d. are permitted

1419: Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?

    N a. Press up the slack NO.1 starboard double bottom tank.
    Y b. Pump out the forepeak tank.
    N c. Eliminate the water in the 'tween decks aft.
    N d. Jettison stores out of the paint locker in the fo'c'sle.

1445: When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________.

    N a. arch the back to add strength to the muscles
    Y b. bend his knees and lift with his legs
    N c. bend his back and stoop
    N d. bend his back and stoop with arms straight

1524: A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 __________.

    N a. outside of 25 nautical miles from nearest land
    N b. outside of the navigable waters of the United States
    N c. in the waters of those countries not signatory to MARPOL
    Y d. A U.S. vessel in ocean service is ALWAYS subject to MARPOL.

1541: Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?

    N a. Garbage
    N b. Hazardous substances
    N c. Oil
    Y d. All of the above

1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

    N a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
    N b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft
    N c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB
    Y d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB

1749: High pressure and low pressure alarms must be tested __________.

    Y a. no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading
    N b. no later than 24 hours prior to loading
    N c. anytime prior to loading
    N d. weekly

1787: Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?

    N a. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level
    N b. The power switch is set to the "high" output position resulting in receiver over loading
    Y c. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level
    N d. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16

1855: An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an operations manual approved by the __________.

    Y a. Coast Guard
    N b. National Cargo Bureau
    N c. Minerals Management Service
    N d. builder

1966: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090° relative would be __________.

    N a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    Y b. reaching on the starboard tack
    N c. on a broad reach on the starboard tack
    N d. close hauled on the port tack

1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?

    N a. AMVER
    Y b. SafetyNET
    N c. NAVTEX
    N d. INMARSAT-M SES

2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?

    N a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency.
    Y b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.
    N c. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70.
    N d. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.

2102: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close-hauled the __________.

    N a. apparent wind remains steady
    N b. heeling moment decreases
    N c. side slip decreases
    Y d. speed decreases

2251: What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?

    N a. Topside icing
    N b. Running with a following sea
    N c. Using 35% of the fuel in a full tank
    Y d. Lowering a weight suspended by a boom onto the deck

2336: While loading bulk oil in a barge, you notice oil on the water alongside. What should you do FIRST?

    N a. Search the vessel for leaks.
    N b. Notify the terminal superintendent.
    Y c. Stop loading.
    N d. Notify the Coast Guard.

2399: Sixty (60) tons of cargo are raised with a heavy lift boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 18,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°, KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

    N a. 11.65 feet
    N b. 22.85 feet
    Y c. 23.15 feet
    N d. 23.82 feet

2422: What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE?

    Y a. 1 ppm
    N b. 2 ppm
    N c. 3 ppm
    N d. 4 ppm

2445: What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?

    N a. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset.
    N b. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position or its situation.
    Y c. It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted.
    N d. It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position and situation.

2649: Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________.

    N a. alkalies
    Y b. concentrated nitric acid
    N c. saltwater
    N d. organic acids

2812: What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT?

    N a. Penetrations are prohibited.
    Y b. Sluice valves are not permitted.
    N c. Each bulkhead must be stepped at its midpoint.
    N d. All of the above

3035: The external inflation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

    N a. before you enter the water
    Y b. after you enter the water
    N c. after one hour in the water
    N d. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy

3062: The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. daily
    N b. weekly
    N c. every two weeks
    Y d. monthly

3131: Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.

    N a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots
    N b. before collision
    Y c. after flooding
    N d. at survival draft

3303: Your fireman's outfit includes a(n) __________.

    N a. chemical protection face shield
    N b. approved work vest
    Y c. self-contained breathing apparatus
    N d. marlinspike

3423: What is the trim of a jack-up with forward draft of 11 feet and aft draft of 13.75 feet?

    N a. 1.38 feet by the stern
    N b. 1.45 feet by the stern
    Y c. 2.75 feet by the stern
    N d. 2.90 feet by the stern

3537: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed __________.

    N a. 4°
    N b. 5°
    N c. 7°
    Y d. 10°

3548: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 26'-06", AFT 28'-02". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 2.7' to 2.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    N a. Tanks: DB1
    Y b. Tanks: DB1, DT1
    N c. Tanks: DB2
    N d. Tanks: DB1, DT1, DT6

3805: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the longitudinal moments for a sounding of 15 feet in tank C3P?

    N a. 1,055 foot-tons
    N b. 7,772 foot-tons
    N c. -21,391 foot-tons
    Y d. -25,669 foot-tons

3951: All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.

    Y a. boarding and operating procedure
    N b. maintenance schedules
    N c. navigational systems
    N d. fuel consumption rates

4068: On board an OSV, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.

    N a. switching to hydraulic steering
    N b. a dedicated crew
    N c. good equipment
    Y d. good communication

4567: When elevated, placing the LCG and TCG at the leg centroid provides __________.

    N a. reduced scour rates
    N b. higher variable loading during preloading
    N c. higher drilling loads
    Y d. equal leg reactions

4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.

    N a. OIM's quarters
    N b. OIM's office
    N c. control house
    Y d. bilge pit

4787: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater than 70 knots?

    Y a. 0 kips
    N b. 200 kips
    N c. 600 kips
    N d. 1,000 kips

5353: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum total weight shall not exceed __________.

    Y a. 21,497 kips
    N b. 21,297 kips
    N c. 17,700 kips
    N d. 14,400 kips

5354: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

    N a. 17'-00"
    N b. 16'-10"
    N c. 16'-07"
    Y d. 16'-04"

6105: The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.

    Y a. burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
    N b. loss of the mooring system
    N c. rotating and flying debris
    N d. heat damage to helicopter structure

6225: The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is called __________.

    N a. bracing
    N b. battening
    N c. blocking
    Y d. shoring

6397: A well kick while drilling from a MODU will cause __________.

    Y a. increased fluid level in the mud pits
    N b. decreased fluid level in the mud pits
    N c. increased cuttings on the shale shaker
    N d. decreased cuttings on the shale shaker

6655: Power operated cranes used on a MODU must not be powered by __________.

    N a. diesel engines
    N b. chargeable batteries
    N c. electric motors
    Y d. gasoline engines

7071: The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.

    N a. evaluation
    Y b. triage
    N c. surveying
    N d. prioritizing

7097: What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?

    Y a. Check the corresponding (left versus right) parts of the body.
    N b. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body.
    N c. Look for discoloration of the patient's skin.
    N d. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body.

7607: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.

    N a. righting arm
    N b. metacentric radius
    N c. height of the center of buoyancy
    Y d. height of the center of gravity

7677: Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.

    N a. uncorrected KG
    Y b. virtual height of the center of gravity
    N c. metacenter
    N d. metacentric height

8481: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AF0 has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?

    N a. 8.0 feet
    N b. 9.0 feet
    Y c. 11.0 feet
    N d. 12.0 feet

8575: If a man falls overboard from a rig under tow, you should FIRST __________.

    N a. notify the tug
    Y b. deploy life buoys
    N c. launch a boat
    N d. sound the general alarm

8663: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    Y a. 1S
    N b. 2S
    N c. 3S
    N d. 1P

8825: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel?

    N a. 1 foot 6 inches to starboard
    Y b. 3 feet to starboard
    N c. 3 feet to port
    N d. 1 foot 6 inches to port

9283: A jack-up with displacement of 10,000 kips has its LCG 100 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 200 kips are loaded at 60 feet AFO and 100 kips are discharged from 20 feet AFO, what is the new LCG?

    Y a. 100.0 feet
    N b. 100.4 feet
    N c. 100.8 feet
    N d. 101.2 feet

9525: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity a vessel has which type of stability?

    Y a. Stable
    N b. Neutral
    N c. Unstable
    N d. Negative