This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
85: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
N a. shut off all electrical power N b. remove combustibles from direct exposure N c. cool the bulkhead around the fire Y d. close all openings to the area 232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
Y a. One N b. Two N c. Three N d. Four 268: What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?
N a. Keep the patient warm but not hot. N b. Have the injured person lie down. Y c. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation. N d. Relieve the pain of the injury. 365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974?
Y a. At least 5 gallons N b. At least 1 barrel N c. At least 2 barrels N d. At least 3 barrels 394: If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone you should __________.
Y a. use English language N b. always use the International Code N c. preface it by the word "Interco" N d. follow the transmission with the radio alarm signal 482: The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle should always be __________.
Y a. attached by a chain N b. coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion N c. painted red for identity as emergency equipment N d. stored in the clip at each fire station 532: Fire hose should be washed with __________.
N a. salt water and a wire brush N b. caustic soap Y c. mild soap and fresh water N d. a holystone 615: The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________.
N a. the name of each person designated as a person in charge N b. the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection Y c. cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations N d. hose information not marked on the hose 635: The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?
N a. The person in charge on the vessel N b. The person in charge at the facility Y c. Both persons in charge N d. The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping 810: When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will __________.
Y a. trim by the stern N b. trim by the head N c. be on an even keel N d. be tender 814: In the International Code of signals, a group of three letters indicates __________.
N a. urgency or an emergency N b. the vessel's national identity signal N c. a group from the general signal code Y d. a group from the medical signal code 1094: A small craft advisory forecasts winds of up to what speed?
N a. 16 kts. N b. 24 kts. Y c. 33 kts. N d. 48 kts. 1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.
N a. keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly N b. prevent voltage fluctuations Y c. keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated N d. make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the fuses blow 1258: On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called __________.
N a. acrylic acid N b. benzene Y c. oleum N d. vinyl toluene 1663: Which tank barges require draft marks?
Y a. All tank barges N b. Tank barges over 50 GT N c. Tank barges over 100 GT N d. Notch barges over 1000 GT 1729: The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________.
Y a. flammable vapors from entering machinery space N b. flue gas escaping to atmosphere N c. inert gas escaping to atmosphere N d. air entering inert gas system 1821: On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is provided, each porthole or window must be fitted with __________.
Y a. screens N b. portlights N c. covers N d. curtains 1968: Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?
N a. Navigational warnings N b. Weather warnings N c. SAR information Y d. All of the above 1978: How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel?
N a. Position all personnel at the stern and rock the vessel upright. N b. Position all personnel around the mast and lift the vessel upright. Y c. Lock the centerboard in the down position, stand on the centerboard, and pull on a shroud or a halyard. N d. Put the centerboard in the up position and have all personnel haul in on the line attached to the mast. 2026: Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck?
N a. It is a sailing maneuver which brings the vessel's head through the wind. Y b. It connects the boom to the mast and allows the boom to swing freely. N c. It is a sailing condition where there is a loss of air flow over the sails. N d. None of the above 2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of __________.
N a. 7 psia and a flash point of 80°F Y b. more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72°F N c. 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95°F N d. above 14 psia 2302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0056
N a. Available GM 6.8 ft N b. Available GM 5.4 ft Y c. Available GM 4.1 ft N d. Available GM 3.6 ft 2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.
Y a. to each side of the vessel N b. as close as possible to the house N c. on the main deck N d. on each level of the accommodation space 2643: Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the __________.
N a. bulkheads N b. stringers Y c. frames and beam brackets N d. deck longitudinals 2694: The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?
N a. Card N b. Needle Y c. Lubber's line N d. Gimbals 2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 62 tons N b. 65 tons N c. 72 tons Y d. 75 tons 3194: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?
Y a. non-toxic gas N b. Oxygen N c. Hydrogen N d. Helium 3342: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected motor vessel with 1,400 BHP? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. 2 N b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 5 3473: In each inflatable rescue boat, what piece of equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a large hole in a raft?
N a. No equipment is provided. N b. Glue and rubber patches Y c. Several various-sized sealing clamps N d. Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches 3479: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.
N a. lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet N b. straps from the overhead Y c. lifelines on the inside of the raft N d. ridges in the floor of the raft 3487: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?
Y a. non-toxic inert gas N b. Oxygen N c. Hydrogen N d. Carbon monoxide 3667: The principal action in changing from transit to survival draft in the event heavy weather threatens is __________.
Y a. ballasting N b. deballasting N c. disconnecting N d. hanging off 3731: If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to __________.
Y a. 50 knots N b. 70 knots N c. 90 knots N d. 100 knots 3747: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.
N a. boric acid solution Y b. water N c. baking soda solution N d. ammonia 3941: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and __________.
Y a. supplement the bilge pumps N b. provide saltwater service to the deck N c. emergency fuel-oil recovery N d. supplement the ballast pumps 4036: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that all crew members participate in drills and receive instruction at least once a month. Who is responsible for ensuring that this takes place?
N a. The Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection Y b. The Master, or person in charge of the vessel N c. The vessel's owner or manager N d. The company's port captain or port engineer 4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?
N a. "P" N b. "C" Y c. "H" N d. "Z" 4107: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the VCG of the added liquid if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S?
N a. 1.35 feet N b. 6.95 feet N c. 8.30 feet Y d. 15.26 feet 4267: For the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum rotary load that can be used when the rotary has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?
N a. 750 kips N b. 630 kips Y c. 609 kips N d. 531 kips 4323: Guide tolerances during elevation of the jack-up rig will __________.
N a. reduce spud can bearing pressure Y b. keep the unit level and reduce overloading N c. reduce stresses on the hull N d. minimize the potential for punch-through 4415: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of 9 seconds. What is the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limits of the legs in good weather?
N a. 14° N b. 11° N c. 9° Y d. 7° 4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.
Y a. environmental loading N b. variable loading N c. fixed loading N d. basic loading 4577: When the COASTAL DRILLER is properly preloaded, each of the leg reactions should be __________.
N a. 7,200 kips Y b. 7,099 kips N c. 4,720 kips N d. 3,381 kips 4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.
N a. OIM's quarters N b. OIM's office N c. control house Y d. bilge pit 4743: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?
N a. 46 feet AFO Y b. 84 feet AFO N c. 189 feet AFO N d. 217 feet AFO 5275: In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using __________.
N a. all four ballast pumps Y b. both port-side ballast pumps N c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps N d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps 5511: When inspecting anchor chain, the American Petroleum Institute recommends checking the length over 5 links every __________.
N a. 10 feet Y b. 100 feet N c. 250 feet N d. 500 feet 5595: An anchor winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.
N a. half the breaking strength of the mooring line Y b. the full breaking strength of the mooring line N c. the maximum expected tension of the mooring line N d. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line 5615: Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses due to __________.
Y a. environmental loads N b. variable loads N c. ballast loading N d. mooring loads 5616: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?
N a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 Y d. 4 6693: The litter on a MODU must be able to __________.
N a. carry at least two injured persons N b. float for at least two hours Y c. be used on the types of helicopters serving the unit N d. All of the above 8511: An elevated jack-up weighs 17,000 kips. Its center of gravity is located 110 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). What would be the new LCG if the cantilever (weight 900 kips) and drill floor (weight 800 kips) were skidded 70 feet aft?
N a. 103.0 feet AF0 N b. 113.4 feet AF0 Y c. 117.0 feet AF0 N d. 180.0 feet AF0 8643: The analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregards the beneficial effects of countermeasures and __________.
N a. horizontal area of the platform N b. vertical area of the platform N c. wind strength Y d. mooring system 8675: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons. What is the new draft?
N a. 56 feet Y b. 58 feet N c. 60 feet N d. 62 feet 8891: Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
N a. U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA) N b. Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA) N c. Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) Y d. Pressure-Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) 9281: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 106 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are loaded at 20 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are loaded 149 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?
N a. 105.5 feet Y b. 106.0 feet N c. 108.3 feet N d. 111.8 feet 9285: A floating jack-up with displacement of 16,200 kips has its LCG 110.37 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are discharged from 120 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are discharged from 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?
Y a. 108.0 feet N b. 109.2 feet N c. 110.4 feet N d. 115.8 feet 9382: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.
Y a. completely closing the compartment N b. closing the compartment except for the ventilators N c. leaving the compartment open to the air N d. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers 9413: When anchoring in an area with a hard bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.
N a. 20° Y b. 30° N c. 40° N d. 50° 9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
N a. 4 of each N b. 3 of each Y c. 2 of each N d. 1 of each