USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


440: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 3.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?


523: The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the __________.


612: The service life of distress signals must be not more than __________.


706: The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.

    N a. have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the capacity of the lifesaving gear is 50 persons or greater
    N b. be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration
    N c. be stowed to pay out freely if the vessel sinks
    Y d. All of the above

733: Lifeboat hatchets should be __________.

    N a. kept in a locker
    Y b. secured at each end of the boat with a lanyard
    N c. kept next to the boat coxswain
    N d. kept in the emergency locker on the ship and brought to the lifeboat when needed

745: You detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging. The FIRST thing to do is __________.

    N a. try to find out where the oil is coming from
    N b. call the Master
    N c. have the pumpman check the discharge piping
    Y d. shut down operations

790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?

    N a. Lighter draft
    N b. Raised fo'c'sle head
    N c. Raised poop
    Y d. Higher bulwark

865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.

    N a. be connected at the highest point in the tank
    N b. terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion resistant wire screen of at least 30x30 mesh
    N c. be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from being trapped in the line
    Y d. All of the above

902: Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

    N a. Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.
    N b. Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.
    Y c. Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.
    N d. Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.

1068: The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________.

    N a. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite
    Y b. upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
    N c. upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn
    N d. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present

1209: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

    N a. allow for cutting out branch circuits
    Y b. prevent overloading the circuits
    N c. reduce voltage to the branch circuits
    N d. permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits

1664: The number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor vessel" is based on the vessel's __________.

    N a. length
    Y b. gross tonnage
    N c. draft
    N d. crew list

1674: You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?

    N a. Phosphorous
    Y b. Safety
    N c. Self-extinguishing
    N d. Wooden

1676: Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.

    N a. check the flame arrester
    N b. check the fuel tank
    N c. check the battery
    Y d. ventilate the bilges

1717: An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________.

    N a. prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks
    N b. blow out cargo lines to prevent the build up of gas concentrations
    Y c. dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit
    N d. prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable vapors

1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons?

    N a. 6.04 feet
    N b. 6.23 feet
    Y c. 6.51 feet
    N d. 6.76 feet

1835: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

    N a. 16°
    Y b. 20°
    N c. 24°
    N d. 30°

1921: Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are issued for a period of __________.

    N a. 12 months
    Y b. 24 months
    N c. 36 months
    N d. 48 months

1923: Except as provided by approved special examinations, each offshore drilling unit must be dry-docked at least once during every __________.

    N a. 12 month period
    N b. 18 month period
    Y c. 24 month period
    N d. 36 month period

2450: During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the ethyl chloride will boil off if the water temperature is above __________.

    N a. 46°F
    Y b. 54°F
    N c. 60°F
    N d. 68°F

2501: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 20'-06", AFT 24'-00". The KG is 29.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    N a. 3.4°
    N b. 4.2°
    N c. 4.9°
    Y d. 6.0°

2512: Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E?

    N a. Gasoline
    Y b. Bunker C
    N c. Kerosene
    N d. All of the above

2581: A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.

    Y a. structural bulkhead
    N b. exterior bulkhead
    N c. centerline bulkhead
    N d. joiner bulkhead

2584: The grade C flammable liquid phenylethane is found in the Chemical Data Guide under the chemical name __________.

    N a. ethyl cyanide
    Y b. ethylbenzene
    N c. ethyl acetate
    N d. muriatic ether

2637: The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.

    Y a. Load Line mark
    N b. Certificate of Inspection
    N c. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    N d. Tonnage mark

2683: On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.

    Y a. plating
    N b. beam
    N c. stiffener
    N d. stanchion

2696: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-09", AFT 28'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.6 feet off the centerline.

    N a. 16°
    N b. 20°
    Y c. 24°
    N d. 30°

2754: Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?

    N a. Inflatable PFD's
    Y b. EPIRB
    N c. Hydrostatic releases
    N d. Dated batteries

2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline.

    Y a. 0.0 feet
    N b. 0.5 foot
    N c. 1.2 feet
    N d. 1.7 feet

3113: For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.

    N a. stabilize at an angle of loll
    Y b. decrease
    N c. increase
    N d. remain constant

3164: When discharging cargo from a tank barge, in which case may the cargo pass through or over the towing vessel?

    N a. With permission from the person in charge of the towing vessel
    N b. With permission from the person in charge of the shore facility
    N c. When off-loading grade C cargo
    Y d. In no case

3361: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.

    N a. 48,000 ft-tons
    N b. 6,000 ft-tons
    Y c. 3,000 ft-tons
    N d. 0 ft-tons

3415: A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same affect on stability as __________.

    Y a. weight that is off-center to starboard
    N b. increasing the draft
    N c. reducing the freeboard
    N d. increasing the trim

3478: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.

    Y a. sealing clamps
    N b. repair tape
    N c. a tube patch
    N d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit

3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the __________.

    Y a. identity
    N b. time of origin
    N c. reply
    N d. procedure code

3813: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the vertical moments for this quantity of ballast?

    N a. 729 ft-long tons
    Y b. 991 ft-long tons
    N c. 19,609 ft-long tons
    N d. 27,652 ft-long tons

3957: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed from 8 to 6 feet?

    Y a. 80.00 long tons
    N b. 77.75 long tons
    N c. 83.34 long tons
    N d. 106.67 long tons

4003: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?

    N a. 995 foot-tons
    N b. 16,918 foot-tons
    N c. 17,713 foot-tons
    Y d. 34,381 foot-tons

4033: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling) discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KG?

    N a. 1.18 feet
    N b. 51.80 feet
    Y c. 52.61 feet
    N d. 55.79 feet

4041: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

    N a. -0.26 foot
    N b. -0.46 foot
    Y c. 0.46 foot
    N d. 0.61 foot

4226: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    N a. 85 inches
    Y b. 90 inches
    N c. 92 inches
    N d. 94 inches

5412: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0177

    Y a. 0.62 foot
    N b. 0.80 foot
    N c. 0.85 foot
    N d. 0.99 foot

5471: What is an advantage of the 6x37 class of wire rope over the 6x19 class of wire rope of the same diameter?

    Y a. Flexibility
    N b. Resistance to corrosion
    N c. Resistance to elongation
    N d. Lower weight per foot

5615: Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses due to __________.

    Y a. environmental loads
    N b. variable loads
    N c. ballast loading
    N d. mooring loads

5955: After using a CO2 extinguisher on a MODU, it should be __________.

    N a. put back in service if some CO2 remains
    N b. hydrostatically tested
    N c. retagged
    Y d. recharged

6253: The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to have __________.

    Y a. remote ventilation shutdowns
    N b. remote pump shutdowns
    N c. alternative control stations
    N d. smoke and/or fire detection system

6265: During severe storms when survival becomes a major concern, it may become necessary to relieve high anchor tensions on the windward side of the unit by __________.

    N a. deballasting the rig
    N b. ballasting the rig
    N c. paying out cable on the windward side
    Y d. paying out cable on the leeward side

6573: To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

    N a. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    N b. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    Y c. Certificate of Inspection
    N d. Operations Manual

6684: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 19'-04", AFT 21'-02". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 68 tons of seawater.

    N a. FWD 19'-09.7", AFT 20'-10.0"
    Y b. FWD 19'-11.1", AFT 20'-09.4"
    N c. FWD 19'-11.7", AFT 20'-08.8"
    N d. FWD 20'-00.3", AFT 20'-08.2"

6685: On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?

    N a. To replace a damaged life preserver
    N b. For use during fire drills
    N c. For use during boat drills
    Y d. At no time

7631: At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.

    N a. maximum
    N b. negative
    N c. positive
    Y d. zero

8063: Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguishers used on MODU's should have the propellant cartridge weighed every __________.

    N a. 3 months
    N b. 6 months
    Y c. 12 months
    N d. 2 years

8071: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total environmental force would be __________.

    Y a. 620 kips
    N b. 595 kips
    N c. 475 kips
    N d. 425 kips

8327: When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?

    N a. 20
    Y b. 50
    N c. 100
    N d. 200

8541: The process of waiting a period of time before pretensioning an anchor is known as __________.

    Y a. soaking
    N b. settling
    N c. sinking
    N d. bedding in

8753: The maximum weight for the COASTAL DRILLER in severe storm conditions is __________.

    Y a. 14,158 kips
    N b. 14,400 kips
    N c. 15,158 kips
    N d. 17,280 kips

9243: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?

    N a. 43 feet 6 inches
    Y b. 45 feet 6 inches
    N c. 48 feet 0 inches
    N d. 49 feet 6 inches

9435: For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.

    Y a. waterline
    N b. freeboard deck
    N c. Plimsoll mark
    N d. amidships section

9503: Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel: the center of buoyancy and the __________.

    N a. metacenter
    N b. geometric center of the waterplane area
    Y c. center of gravity
    N d. center of flotation

9528: You are in Inland Waters of the United States. You may discharge overboard __________.

    N a. bottles
    N b. metal
    N c. dunnage
    Y d. None of the above