This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
121: Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?
N a. 1.25 feet Y b. 1.56 feet N c. 1.98 feet N d. 2.43 feet 122: A negative metacentric height __________.
N a. will always cause a vessel to capsize Y b. should always be immediately corrected N c. always results from off-center weights N d. All of the above are correct 151: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0002
Y a. 1.50 feet N b. 1.96 feet N c. 2.21 feet N d. 2.78 feet 288: A negative metacentric height __________.
N a. will always cause a vessel to capsize N b. always results from off-center weights Y c. should always be immediately corrected N d. All of the above are correct 288: A negative metacentric height __________.
N a. will always cause a vessel to capsize N b. always results from off-center weights Y c. should always be immediately corrected N d. All of the above are correct 321: A signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with __________.
N a. a code hoist to indicate Greenwich mean time to follow N b. the letter G N c. the letters GT Y d. the letter Z 433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________.
Y a. take part N b. watch N c. go to their quarters N d. stay out of the way and do what they want 484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________.
N a. routine message N b. urgent message N c. distress message Y d. safety message 528: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________.
N a. get them to rub their eye until the object is gone N b. remove it with a match or toothpick N c. remove it with a piece of dry sterile cotton Y d. remove it with a moist, cotton-tipped applicator 532: Fire hose should be washed with __________.
N a. salt water and a wire brush N b. caustic soap Y c. mild soap and fresh water N d. a holystone 596: The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered at least once every __________.
N a. week N b. month Y c. three months N d. year 686: You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________.
Y a. during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom N b. during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank N c. when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action N d. shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather 791: During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. The smoke's color will be __________.
Y a. black N b. red N c. orange N d. yellow 926: Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________.
N a. six months Y b. twelve months N c. eighteen months N d. twenty-four months 1119: A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be __________.
N a. arranged so neither liquid gasoline nor its vapors can overflow or escape inside the vessel N b. terminated on the weather deck and extend to within one-half of its diameter from the bottom of the tank N c. fitted with a suitably marked watertight deck plate or screw cap Y d. All of the above 1185: If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", you should __________.
N a. complete the stroke, hold your oar out from the boat and level with the water N b. dip the blade of your oar into the water and leave it there N c. lift your oar to a vertical position Y d. complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swing it forward, and place it in the boat 1213: When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle, the __________.
N a. centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line Y b. righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment N c. center of buoyancy remains the same N d. deck-edge immersion occurs 1246: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.
N a. a Very pistol Y b. a towing connection N c. a portable radio N d. canned milk 1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.
N a. 4, based on the breaking strength N b. 5, based on the maximum allowable stress Y c. 6, based on the maximum working load N d. 8, based on the normal working load 1322: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
N a. Spliced into the ring on the stem post Y b. Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls N c. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls N d. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart 1451: Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to __________.
N a. negative GM N b. flooding Y c. off-center weight N d. reserve buoyancy 1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the __________.
Y a. bow N b. mid-section N c. stern N d. All of the above 1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?
N a. A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail. Y b. You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze. N c. You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet. N d. You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension. 1773: What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures?
N a. A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard Y b. A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility N c. A portable system to discharge the slops overboard N d. A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility 1780: How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?
N a. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard Y b. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority N c. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of the Sea Areas A1 and A2 N d. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if, and only if, monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's onboard GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 1806: Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 46'L x 29'B and the weight of the water is 41 tons?
Y a. 4.43 feet N b. 4.61 feet N c. 4.86 feet N d. 5.12 feet 2348: Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951)
N a. Straight vents open to atmosphere N b. Individual pressure vacuum relief valves N c. Branch vent lines connected to a vent header system Y d. Gooseneck vents and flame screens 2445: What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?
N a. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. N b. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position or its situation. Y c. It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. N d. It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position and situation. 2583: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?
Y a. The SART's blips on the PPI will become arcs and eventually become concentric circles. N b. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone autoalarm. N c. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius per IMO standards. N d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. 2657: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-2", AFT 6'-8". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? ( D037DG )
N a. 24 tons N b. 18 tons N c. 12 tons Y d. 6 tons 2758: A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?
N a. The tanks lie above the waterline and are filled. N b. The tanks are partially filled with dry cargo. Y c. The tanks are partially filled with liquid cargo. N d. The tanks are filled and lie below the waterline. 2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
N a. only when there is positive stability N b. only when there is negative stability N c. only when there is neutral stability Y d. at all times 2990: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 30'-08". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0092
N a. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-01" N b. FWD 29'-03", AFT 29'-11" Y c. FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-09" N d. FWD 29'-07", AFT 29'-07" 3055: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?
N a. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets. Y b. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. N c. Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. N d. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used. 3178: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)
N a. 2930 tons N b. 3110 tons N c. 3170 tons Y d. 3240 tons 3186: Using a sea anchor will __________.
Y a. reduce the drift rate of the liferaft N b. keep the liferaft from turning over N c. aid in recovering the liferaft N d. increase your visibility 3188: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.
N a. asphyxiation from CO2 N b. loss of air in the sides of the raft N c. rough seas Y d. cold water temperatures 3353: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
N a. the float free method only N b. kicking the hydrostatic release Y c. throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft N d. removing the securing straps 3384: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4236 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.2 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0125
Y a. KG 26.9 feet N b. KG 27.3 feet N c. KG 27.8 feet N d. KG 28.1 feet 3529: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0138
N a. 2.15 feet Y b. 2.05 feet N c. 1.95 feet N d. 1.75 feet 3706: You are in charge of a fishing vessel with 18 individuals on board. You are required to conduct drills and give safety instruction at least once __________.
N a. every week N b. every 15 days Y c. every month N d. before you begin fishing 4050: The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged ___________ .
Y a. when a new Master assumes command N b. daily, at 0800 local zone time N c. weekly, before 2400 Saturday N d. immediately after assuming the watch 4170: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.
N a. yellow N b. red N c. green Y d. white 4260: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. N c. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure to flame and burning. N d. The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship. 4331: On the COASTAL DRILLER, a noticeable increase in the level indicator while extracting the legs from the soil indicates __________.
N a. the legs are free Y b. one or two legs are stuck N c. a punch-through is occurring N d. the legs are being extracted through a punch-through soil layer 4387: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wind for drilling?
N a. 45 knots Y b. 50 knots N c. 57 knots N d. 62 knots 4487: Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER while floating will change the __________.
N a. list N b. trim Y c. true mean draft N d. TPI 5067: While a MODU is underway, a look-out must be maintained __________.
Y a. at all times N b. only during periods of restricted visibility N c. only when other vessels are present N d. only during the hours of darkness 5311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in field transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
N a. 3.0 feet N b. 3.4 feet Y c. 26.0 feet N d. 26.4 feet 5412: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0177
Y a. 0.62 foot N b. 0.80 foot N c. 0.85 foot N d. 0.99 foot 5667: When clear ice is present when the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, the vertical moments are increased by __________.
N a. 40,402 ft-long tons N b. 42,255 ft-long tons N c. 45,593 ft-long tons Y d. 49,280 ft-long tons 5824: The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of __________.
N a. stability at all angles of inclination Y b. initial stability N c. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability N d. stability at angles less than the downflooding angle 6023: On a MODU, an extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size __________.
N a. I Y b. II N c. III N d. IV 6225: The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is called __________.
N a. bracing N b. battening N c. blocking Y d. shoring 7737: The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.
N a. center of buoyancy N b. center of gravity N c. metacenter Y d. center of flotation 8327: When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?
N a. 20 Y b. 50 N c. 100 N d. 200 8533: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, what action should you take FIRST?
N a. Wait for the person in charge to act. N b. Notify the ballast control operator. Y c. Shut down the transfer operation. N d. Sound the fire alarm. 8991: The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.
N a. amidships plane N b. longitudinal reference plane N c. baseline Y d. waterplane 9253: At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well head, __________.
N a. the total weight in air of the casing string is removed from the MODU Y b. the hook load (weight of the casing string) is removed from the MODU N c. the weight of the casing inside the riser is removed from the MODU N d. the weight of the casing string added to the weight of the fill-up mud is removed from the MODU 9291: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?
N a. 9.00 feet port Y b. 0.50 foot starboard N c. 0.50 foot port N d. 1.00 foot port