This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
89: To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________.
N a. American Bureau of Shipping classification rules Y b. International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea N c. Safety of Life at Sea Convention N d. Minerals Management Service rules 224: If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?
N a. 045 N b. B045 N c. B045T Y d. A045 320: As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.
N a. increases Y b. decreases N c. remains the same N d. may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the vessel's form 358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should __________.
N a. submerge the burn area in cold water N b. make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation Y c. cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings N d. break blisters and remove dead tissue 424: What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?
N a. Calling all stations Y b. Charlie Quebec N c. Alpha Alpha N d. Kilo 530: The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.
N a. necessary to change the angle of list 1° at a given draft N b. necessary to change trim 1 inch at a given draft N c. pressure per square inch on the vessel's hull at a given draft Y d. necessary to further immerse the vessel 1 inch at a given draft 620: A vessel's LCG is determined by __________.
Y a. dividing the total longitudinal moment summations by displacement N b. dividing the total vertical moment summations by displacement N c. multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal moments N d. subtracting LCF from LCB 643: The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.
N a. bumpkin oar N b. stroke oar Y c. sweep oar N d. becket oar 762: The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________.
Y a. breaking the chain reaction N b. the CO2 that is formed by heat N c. smothering N d. shielding of radiant heat 844: If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
N a. MPO Y b. MPR N c. MPK N d. MPJ 1000: A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. The vessel has negative GM. N b. The center of gravity is on the centerline. N c. The list can be corrected by reducing KM. Y d. The vessel has asymmetrical weight distribution. 1015: Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109°34'West?
N a. D0934 N b. LO10934W Y c. G10934 N d. L10934 1022: When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the __________.
Y a. base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish N b. top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward as they diminish N c. center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to bottom N d. bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upward as they diminish 1044: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
N a. Green star rocket N b. Red star rocket Y c. Orange smoke signal N d. Horizontal motion of a flag 1107: In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.
N a. the maximum water pressure to be used is 50 psi Y b. the speed of foam production is slower at lower water temperatures N c. each pound of foam powder produces about 800 gallons of chemical foam N d. fresh water only should be used 1178: The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called __________.
N a. explosive range N b. flash point Y c. ignition temperature N d. combustion temperature 1195: The command "Oars" means to __________.
N a. lift the oars to a vertical position Y b. complete the stroke and bring the oars horizontal, blades feathered N c. place the oars in the boat with blades forward N d. place the oars in the rowlocks directly from the boated position 1245: The Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading doors must ensure that the doors are closed, watertight and secured __________.
Y a. at all times when underway unless operating on protected or partially protected waters N b. when leaving the dock N c. when loading cargo N d. at all times, at the dock or underway when the loading door is not actually being used for passage 1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1494: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
Y a. 6 N b. 5 N c. 3 N d. 3 PORT 1663: Which tank barges require draft marks?
Y a. All tank barges N b. Tank barges over 50 GT N c. Tank barges over 100 GT N d. Notch barges over 1000 GT 1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?
N a. Polyester sailcloth, such as Dacron, is resistant to rot due to moisture but susceptible to UV degradation and should be kept covered as much as possible. N b. Canvas sailcloth is susceptible to rot due to moisture and should never be covered when wet. N c. Kevlar sail cloth is susceptible to weakening due to repeated folding and therefore should be draped loosely over the boom when stowed. Y d. All of the above are true. 1708: A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic __________.
Y a. odor N b. color N c. pressure N d. density 1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________.
N a. shoreside loading rate Y b. cargo pump discharge rate N c. boiler forced draft fan rate N d. size of the largest cargo tank 1894: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in salt water (specific gravity 1.025) is 864 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
N a. 0.32 foot Y b. 0.78 foot N c. 0.96 foot N d. 1.12 feet 1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________.
N a. shallow water N b. an engine that is misfiring N c. a tight tail shaft gland Y d. worn stern bearing or misalignment 2170: You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)
N a. 0.6 foot Y b. 0.5 foot N c. 0.4 foot N d. 0.3 foot 2228: Your sails are properly trimmed while on a reaching course. Changing to a close hauled course will __________.
N a. require you to sheet in for best speed N b. result in a reduction of speed N c. cause a greater heeling force to leeward Y d. All of the above 2286: What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide?
N a. 167°F Y b. 115°F N c. 111°F N d. 46°F 2596: Drinking salt water will __________.
Y a. dehydrate you N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water N d. protect against heat cramps 2684: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and holds 4 and 5 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
N a. 22 Y b. 28 N c. 34 N d. 39 2746: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.
N a. 0.8 foot N b. 1.5 feet N c. 2.7 feet Y d. 3.6 feet 2920: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
Y a. 2.0 feet N b. 2.6 feet N c. 3.0 feet N d. 3.4 feet 3090: Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?
N a. Spare charges shall be carried for at least 50 percent of each size and variety required on board. N b. If the unit cannot be charged by the vessel's personnel, one spare unit shall be carried in lieu of spare charges. N c. Spare charges shall be stowed in watertight containers on deck. Y d. Regulations concerning spare charges do not apply to unmanned barges. 3098: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN).
N a. 460 tons per hatch N b. 520 tons per hatch Y c. 690 tons per hatch N d. 730 tons per hatch 3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 1/2 inch high N b. 1 inch high Y c. Height not specified N d. 1-1/2 inches high 3252: Before any machinery is put in operation, you should __________.
Y a. ventilate all compartments, see that the machinery is clean and there are no obstructions N b. just turn the key and start up N c. take for granted that there are no fuel leaks N d. assume there are no volatile fumes in the engine space 3314: Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Box of sawdust Y b. Drip collector N c. Vent N d. Flame arrestor ONLY 3393: A semisubmersible with a TPI of 11.25 long tons per inch discharges 270 long tons from amidships. What is the new mean draft if the original drafts were: Port Forward 69.5 feet; Port Aft 68.5 feet; Starboard Forward 71.5 feet; Starboard Aft 70.5 feet?
Y a. 68'-0" N b. 69'-10" N c. 70'-2" N d. 72'-0" 3517: What is the lightweight of the DEEP DRILLER?
N a. 680,914 long tons Y b. 9,733 long tons N c. 5,937 long tons N d. 6,716 long tons 3586: A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make____________________.
N a. an approach from leeward N b. an approach from windward Y c. the most direct approach N d. an approach across the wind 3605: While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4. Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?
N a. 1,218 feet Y b. 1,398 feet N c. 1,752 feet N d. 1,844 feet 4595: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?
N a. 4,956 kips N b. 5,063 kips Y c. 5,104 kips N d. 5,233 kips 4711: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's TCG?
Y a. 0.048 foot port N b. 0.048 foot starboard N c. 1.020 feet port N d. 1.020 feet starboard 4815: What is the maximum amount of variables that may be taken aboard the COASTAL DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (drilling)?
N a. 1000 kips N b. 681 kips N c. 89 kips Y d. 0 kips 5461: Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as the __________.
Y a. safe operating load N b. normal operating tension N c. emergency working load N d. allowable storm load 5711: Installing tandem anchors on the same mooring line is referred to as __________.
N a. doubling N b. pretensioning Y c. piggybacking N d. paralleling 5917: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?
Y a. Pressure gauge N b. Strainer N c. Reduction valve N d. International shore connection 5925: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting service, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.
N a. check valve installed in the line Y b. shut off valve at a manifold near the pump N c. quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump N d. regulator in the line set at 125 psi 6007: On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.
Y a. 12 months N b. 24 months N c. 36 months N d. 48 months 6255: Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.
N a. immediately after restoring vital services Y b. immediately N c. following control of flooding N d. following establishment of fire boundaries 6793: The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________.
N a. Master, or person in charge Y b. Chief Engineer, or engineer in charge if no chief engineer is required N c. senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior mechanic designated N d. senior electrician, or electrician on duty if no senior electrician designated 7096: Convection spreads a fire by __________.
N a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal N b. burning liquids flowing into another space Y c. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems N d. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space 7805: A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?
N a. 518.4 short tons Y b. 259.2 short tons N c. 135.0 short tons N d. 11.3 short tons 8054: A thrust block is designed to __________.
N a. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller Y b. transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel N c. absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow N d. be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration 8213: What fitting should you install in the rig piping to a pump to facilitate disconnecting the pump for servicing?
N a. Coupling Y b. Union N c. Flange N d. Nipple 8551: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one spanner and at least one __________.
N a. fire axe Y b. hose rack N c. sandbag N d. scupper 9275: A jack-up displacing 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. The legs weighing 3,500 kips are lowered 100 feet. What is the new KG?
N a. 23.33 feet N b. 18.67 feet N c. 4.67 feet Y d. -3.33 feet 9473: What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies?
Y a. metacentric height N b. metacentric radius N c. height of the metacenter N d. righting arm 9477: The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.
N a. effort N b. flotation N c. gravity Y d. buoyancy