This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
17: The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.
N a. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level) N b. capable of supporting combustion N c. in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basis Y d. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit) 20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.
Y a. decrease N b. increase N c. remain unchanged N d. be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle 52: Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?
Y a. Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems. N b. Helium is the preferred inert gas. N c. Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks. N d. All of the above 247: During a stability test on a small passenger vessel __________.
N a. the vessel must be moored snugly N b. each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak N c. all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured Y d. water under vessel must be deep enough to prevent grounding 258: In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________.
N a. application of CPR N b. removal of any foreign objects N c. administration of oxygen Y d. for traumatic shock 433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________.
Y a. take part N b. watch N c. go to their quarters N d. stay out of the way and do what they want 455: Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the __________.
Y a. tanks were designated, installed, or constructed for fuel oil carrying before July 1, 1974 N b. tank is 18 inches inboard of the hull structure N c. shell of the tank is of the same thickness or greater than that of the vessel's hull N d. fuel has a flash point above 180°F 562: One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.
N a. 8 to 10 gallons of foam N b. 25 to 50 gallons of foam N c. 100 to 200 gallons of foam Y d. 500 to 1000 gallons of foam 589: Fires are grouped into what categories?
Y a. Class A, B, C, and D N b. Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 N c. Combustible solids, liquids, and gases N d. Flammable solids, liquids, and gases 690: Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the __________.
N a. domestics N b. settlers N c. deeps Y d. peaks 777: On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with __________.
N a. A means of backfire flame control N b. A lubricating oil pressure gauge and a tachometer N c. Jacket water discharge temperature gauges Y d. All of the above 833: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.
N a. abandon ship Y b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations N c. fire and emergency N d. man overboard 898: A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?
N a. A Y b. B N c. C N d. D 1026: A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry __________.
N a. 8 liters of fresh water N b. 12 units of provisions Y c. 12 liters of fresh water N d. 24 units of provisions 1063: Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens __________.
N a. and 30 square inches of louvers N b. three inches in diameter with a check valve to prevent water from entering in heavy weather N c. three inches in circumference inside the fill pipe Y d. consisting of a single screen of at least 30 X 30 mesh, corrosion resistant wire 1087: A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.
N a. low-velocity fog only N b. a solid stream only N c. a solid stream and foam Y d. a solid stream and fog 1258: On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called __________.
N a. acrylic acid N b. benzene Y c. oleum N d. vinyl toluene 1544: While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. These entries shall be made __________.
N a. before the end of the voyage N b. before arriving at your next port N c. no later than 24 hours after disposal of the garbage Y d. at the time the garbage was disposed 1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.
N a. take measures to maintain morale N b. prepare and use radio equipment N c. identify the person in charge of liferaft Y d. search for survivors 1780: How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?
N a. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard Y b. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority N c. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of the Sea Areas A1 and A2 N d. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if, and only if, monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's onboard GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________.
N a. prevent the accumulation of explosive gases N b. protect the hull from leaking electrolyte N c. prevent movement of the battery in rough waters Y d. protect against accidental shorting across terminals 1901: Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?
N a. It will respond only to interrogation by 9-Ghz radar signals. N b. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching vessel's radar if the radar antenna is at least 15 meters high. N c. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching aircraft's radar if the radar's output power is at least 10,000 watts and the aircraft is at a height of 3000 feet and within 30 nautical miles. Y d. All of the above 1933: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.
N a. within 12 hours of departure N b. within 24 hours of departure Y c. within a few hours before or after departure N d. prior to departure 2048: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-08". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
Y a. 6 tons N b. 12 tons N c. 18 tons N d. 24 tons 2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft.
Y a. FWD 18'-09", AFT 22'-01" N b. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-01" N c. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-08" N d. FWD 19'-01", AFT 21'-04" 2171: The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________.
N a. two years N b. three years N c. four years Y d. five years 2182: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. None N b. 10 tons N c. 18 tons Y d. 24 tons 2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________.
N a. EPIRB Y b. inflatable liferaft N c. life float N d. buoyant apparatus 2377: The operation of hoisting the drill stem out of and returning it to the wellbore is called a __________.
N a. fish N b. thribble Y c. trip N d. tour 2504: A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?
N a. 8 - 12 months N b. 10 - 12 months Y c. 10 - 14 months N d. 12 - 14 months 2521: To enable tying down a helicopter on the landing area of a MODU, the landing deck must be fitted with __________.
Y a. recessed tie down points N b. hydraulically lifted bitts N c. air tuggers N d. fixed cleats 2543: The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to __________.
Y a. prevent the boom from being raised too high N b. prevent the boom from swinging N c. support the boom when not in use N d. prevent the boom from being lowered 2591: Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually __________.
N a. continuous Y b. watertight N c. transverse N d. non-watertight 2651: Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.
N a. lifesaving equipment Y b. stability N c. mooring tension N d. riser tension 2768: Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 12 passengers N b. 50 passengers Y c. 6 passengers N d. 1 passenger 2810: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 6° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-05". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.
N a. -1.0 foot N b. -0.6 foot Y c. -0.1 foot N d. -0.02 foot 3078: If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.
N a. throw him/her a life buoy N b. hail "man overboard" N c. pass the word to the bridge Y d. All of the above 3097: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.
N a. that all personnel are seated in the craft Y b. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum N c. which way the wind is blowing N d. the hydraulic fuel level before lifting 3281: Preparing to move on a location, you find that you must remove 450 tons of drill water, with a VCG of 8 feet, to enable you to meet the draft limitations. You started with a displacement of 17,000 tons and a KG of 69 feet. What is the KG after pumping out the drill water?
N a. 49.13 feet N b. 59.13 feet N c. 69.13 feet Y d. 70.66 feet 3330: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. One percent N b. Five percent N c. Seven percent Y d. Ten percent 3443: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGT of 57.11 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port. What is the list angle?
N a. 2° port N b. 3° port N c. 4° port Y d. 5° port 3590: The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n) __________.
N a. nightstick Y b. flashlight N c. passenger list showing assigned berths N d. A-I fire extinguisher 4010: A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.
N a. synthetic plastic discharge plan N b. oil discharge plan Y c. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan N d. vapor recovery procedures plan 4188: You are the operator of a 295 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Which type of fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel, if its construction was contracted for before August 27, 2003? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. Type B-V semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system N b. Type B-IV semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system N c. Type B-III semi-portable AND a fixed fire-extinguishing system N d. Fixed CO2, AND another fixed fire-extinguishing system 4245: The maximum load line draft for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
N a. 12 feet 8 inches N b. 11 feet 7.2 inches Y c. 10 feet 10.5 inches N d. 10 feet 8.8 inches 4264: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypoglycemia for weeks. N c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. N d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires 1.5 times more time to climb a ladder than without the suit. 4563: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 200 kips are discharged from 60 feet AF0 and 30 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?
N a. 4,271 kips Y b. 5,393 kips N c. 5,410 kips N d. 5,571 kips 4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.
Y a. environmental loading N b. variable loading N c. fixed loading N d. basic loading 5473: Where do fatigue failures of wire rope mooring lines usually occur?
N a. In the middle part of the line length Y b. Near the socketed end fitting adjacent to the anchor N c. At the point where the line touches the bottom N d. At the place the anchor buoy is attached to the line 5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks N b. satisfactory, continue tripping Y c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. satisfactory, place unit in standby 6241: The objective of shoring the damaged area of a MODU is to __________.
N a. force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place Y b. support and hold the area in the damaged position N c. withstand subsequent additional damage N d. make a watertight seal at the damaged area 6553: While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel, the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. You should __________.
N a. continue transfer operations N b. repair the leak with duct tape N c. reduce the rate of transfer Y d. immediately shut down operations 6555: The chemicals in sacks aboard MODU's are palletized to reduce __________.
Y a. labor in loading and handling N b. pilferage N c. marking and labeling N d. contamination 6607: To determine the number of Able Seamen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.
N a. load line certificate N b. Operations Manual N c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate Y d. Certificate of Inspection 7397: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.
N a. there is a rescue craft in the area Y b. there is hydrogen sulfide present N c. water temperature is below 40°F N d. a rigid survival craft is in the area 8161: A semisubmersible, displacing 20,500 long tons, has vertical moments of 1,060,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are discharged from a VCG of 120 feet?
N a. 1.22 feet downward Y b. 1.71 feet downward N c. 1.75 feet downward N d. 2.93 feet downward 8288: What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?
N a. Wooden (lignum vitae) strips N b. Hard rubber N c. Resin bonded composition Y d. Bronze bushings 8395: What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?
Y a. They regulate the combustion cycle. N b. They supply cooling water. N c. They synchronize the ignition spark. N d. They supply and regulate the lubricant flow. 9317: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?
Y a. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube. N b. A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult. N c. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat. N d. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting. 9451: Initial stability is indicated by __________.
Y a. GM N b. KM N c. Deck load N d. Maximum allowed KG