This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
96: A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________.
N a. 2-1/2 gallons of foam N b. 8 gallons of foam N c. 10 gallons of foam Y d. 12 gallons of foam 195: As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST?
N a. Rig a boom for recovery. Y b. Call the Coast Guard. N c. Alert the fire department. N d. Inform the Environmental Protection Agency. 409: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons.)
Y a. 0.1 foot N b. 0.8 foot N c. 1.0 foot N d. 1.2 feet 638: You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately?
N a. Sound the general alarm N b. Secure mechanical cargo hold ventilation N c. Call for water on deck Y d. Release carbon dioxide into the affected compartment 794: An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?
N a. MAF Y b. MAB N c. MAA N d. MAE 796: When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.
N a. becomes extremely hot Y b. becomes extremely cold N c. could come off in your hands N d. is placed directly in the flames 865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.
N a. be connected at the highest point in the tank N b. terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion resistant wire screen of at least 30x30 mesh N c. be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from being trapped in the line Y d. All of the above 1044: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
N a. Green star rocket N b. Red star rocket Y c. Orange smoke signal N d. Horizontal motion of a flag 1082: Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?
N a. One sample of air is adequate to test a tank. Y b. They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen. N c. They will detect a lack of oxygen. N d. They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion. 1262: Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?
N a. Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) N b. Water (cartridge-operated) N c. Water (pump tank) Y d. Carbon dioxide 1337: It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________.
N a. filter the incoming air N b. prevent explosions N c. prevent backups Y d. stop insects from entering 1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
N a. The sailing plan may be sent in any reasonable time before departure, but not later than 12 hours after departure. N b. Distress messages should be sent to the AMVER center. N c. In the body of the sailing plan report, the letter G is used to indicate a great circle course. Y d. There are four different message reports in the AMVER system. 1720: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 6 Y b. 5 N c. 3 N d. 3 STARBOARD 1863: On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for emergency lighting and power systems must be tested every six months under actual connected load for a period of at least __________.
N a. 1 hour Y b. 2 hours N c. 3 hours N d. 4 hours 1876: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140° relative would be __________.
N a. close hauled on the starboard tack N b. close hauled on the port tack Y c. on a broad reach N d. running before the wind 1924: Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by 8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3 tons)
Y a. 1.76 feet N b. 1.94 feet N c. 2.10 feet N d. 2.44 feet 1926: A "reaching" course is one in which the wind __________.
N a. comes directly over the bow N b. comes directly over the stern Y c. comes over an area extending from broad on the bow to the quarter N d. has no effect on the vessel 2003: Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
Y a. The person in charge N b. The safety man N c. The rig superintendent N d. The driller 2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
Y a. 55 tons N b. 99 tons N c. 140 tons N d. 360 tons 2204: Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?
N a. Radio direction finding Y b. Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue coordination, on-scene communications, signals for locating, Maritime Safety Information, general and bridge-to-bridge communications. N c. Communications in each of the operational ocean areas N d. All communications possible within the International Safety-NET service 2325: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0058
N a. 395 tons N b. 530 tons N c. 750 tons Y d. 990 tons 2425: Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report the injury to the Master, individual in charge, or other agent of the employer __________.
N a. before the end of the voyage N b. no later than 24 hours after the vessel docks Y c. no later than 7 days after the injury occurred N d. only if the injury prevents him from working 2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.
N a. filling a partially filled tank Y b. using fuel from a pressed fuel tank N c. emptying a partially filled tank N d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak 2478: Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E?
N a. Sulfuric acid Y b. Formaldehyde solutions 37% to 50% N c. 1,1,1-trichloroethane N d. All of the above 2553: What is meant by the term "radio silence"?
Y a. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the distress frequency or channel N b. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information N c. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour, that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit distress alerts using J3E N d. Communications on a distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the distress traffic 2574: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 60° inclination.
N a. 0.9 foot Y b. 1.8 feet N c. 2.7 feet N d. 4.5 feet 2584: The grade C flammable liquid phenylethane is found in the Chemical Data Guide under the chemical name __________.
N a. ethyl cyanide Y b. ethylbenzene N c. ethyl acetate N d. muriatic ether 2625: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. plot course for the nearest land N c. take a vote on which direction you should go Y d. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor 2796: On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________.
N a. shall be suitable for marine use N b. may use liquefied petroleum gas N c. cannot use gasoline Y d. All of the above 2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.
Y a. the letter "E" N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit N c. a no-smoking symbol N d. the word "DANGER" 3072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0101
N a. LCG-FP 272.6 feet Y b. LCG-FP 269.8 feet N c. LCG-FP 266.5 feet N d. LCG-FP 263.8 feet 3093: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 150 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.
N a. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo N b. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area Y c. have containment capacity for at least 5 gallons N d. are opened and the flame screen replaced 3147: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.
N a. C1S N b. 8S N c. 2P Y d. 1S 3229: The engine head, block, and exhaust manifold shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. water jacketed N b. air cooled N c. preheated prior to starting N d. drained weekly 3256: Gasoline vapor tends to collect __________.
N a. above the floor plates of the bilges N b. above the carburetor level Y c. at the lowest point of the bilge areas N d. at no particular level 3324: How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free?
N a. With gooseneck vents N b. With warning signs Y c. With flame screens N d. With pressure-vacuum relief valves 3350: Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. None are required. Y b. One B-I extinguisher is required. N c. One B-II extinguisher is required. N d. Two B-I extinguishers are required. 3355: The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.
N a. free running on deck N b. faked out next to the case Y c. secured to a permanent object on deck via a weak link N d. stowed near the raft 3577: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude rolls of 10° with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________.
N a. continue towing operations at a 19.5 foot draft N b. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and continue towing operations Y c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motions N d. alter course to bring the wind off the starboard beam 3646: One of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention is a/an __________.
N a. red star shell Y b. searchlight N c. burning barrel N d. orange smoke signal 3777: What is the weight of cement in P-tank #1 of the Deep Driller if the ullage is 3.4 feet?
N a. 11.5 long tons N b. 16.6 long tons Y c. 54.2 long tons N d. 78.2 long tons 3799: With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the correct posture should include __________.
Y a. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm, crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and keeping the feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for a feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed 3880: The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on an OSV vessel must be stowed __________.
N a. in an inside passageway N b. in an approved bracket N c. so that it is accessible from the pilothouse of the vessel Y d. so that it will float free if the vessel sinks 3962: When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a liferaft?
N a. After 12 hours Y b. After 24 hours N c. After 48 hours N d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later 4198: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?
N a. 270 N b. 278 N c. 291 Y d. 318 4205: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.
Y a. 0.5 second N b. 5.0 seconds N c. 10.0 seconds N d. 13.5 seconds 4331: On the COASTAL DRILLER, a noticeable increase in the level indicator while extracting the legs from the soil indicates __________.
N a. the legs are free Y b. one or two legs are stuck N c. a punch-through is occurring N d. the legs are being extracted through a punch-through soil layer 4513: When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the LCG?
N a. 00.0 feet N b. 111.35 feet Y c. 119.44 feet N d. 120.59 feet 4593: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the port leg reaction?
N a. 5,063 kips N b. 5,104 kips Y c. 5,233 kips N d. 5,345 kips 4651: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning a MODU it will __________.
N a. weigh you down Y b. preserve body heat N c. reduce your body heat N d. make it more difficult to breathe 6051: The connection facilities for the international shore connection required on board offshore drilling units in international service must be located to provide access __________.
Y a. to each side of the drilling unit N b. as close as possible to the control house N c. on the drill floor N d. on each level of the accommodation space 7341: If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?
N a. Calling frequency N b. Distress frequency N c. Urgency frequency Y d. Working frequency 7805: A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?
N a. 518.4 short tons Y b. 259.2 short tons N c. 135.0 short tons N d. 11.3 short tons 8075: A semisubmersible is more likely to experience structural stresses during heavy weather when __________.
N a. operating at drilling draft N b. deballasting to survival draft N c. when at survival draft Y d. when at transit draft 8283: When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?
Y a. About 4-5 minutes N b. About 8-10 minutes N c. About 12-15 minutes N d. About 18-20 minutes 8535: You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.
Y a. increase N b. decrease N c. stop N d. stabilize 8647: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the tank sounding level and port forward inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1P is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. deballast from tank 2P N b. dump the mud N c. counterflood into 9S N d. counterflood into C3S 9267: Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. What should this entry include?
N a. The time required to lower a lifeboat N b. The time required to raise a lifeboat Y c. The date of inspection and condition of the winch N d. All of the above 9547: A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
N a. lower than the keel Y b. at the same height as the center of gravity N c. exactly at midships N d. at the center of the waterplane area