This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
173: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.
N a. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes N b. the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure Y c. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel N d. the entrance curtains should never be opened 200: Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
N a. It has a large GM. Y b. Its period of roll is long. N c. It has a very low center of gravity. N d. It has a good transverse stability. 285: The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________.
N a. the most common method used in the United States N b. too expensive for common use N c. generally safe to sea life Y d. authorized only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator 370: What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?
N a. Corrosion from the shifting liquid N b. Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid Y c. Loss of stability from free surface effect N d. Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid 423: When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.
Y a. long enough to cause the pull to be more horizontal than downward N b. long enough to reach bottom N c. short enough to cause the pull to be downward N d. short enough to avoid tangling 742: An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.
N a. lack of toxicity Y b. the multipurpose extinguishing ability N c. burn-back protection N d. cooling ability 998: Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as __________.
N a. portable Y b. semi-portable N c. fixed N d. disposable 1021: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
N a. Towing vessel 25 feet or less in length N b. Passenger vessel of 50 GT or less, carrying one or more passengers for hire N c. Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length, operating on inland waters Y d. Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation of other vessels in or near a channel or fairway 1031: What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system?
N a. Relieves excessive pressures from the system. Y b. Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas. N c. Prevents the flow of inert gas into closed or isolated tanks. N d. Removes any leftover water or soot after the gas has been scrubbed. 1049: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0023
N a. 2.62 feet N b. 2.82 feet N c. 2.97 feet Y d. 3.15 feet 1077: A vessel's KG is determined by __________.
N a. dividing the total longitudinal moment summation by displacement Y b. dividing the total vertical moment summation by displacement N c. multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal moments N d. subtracting LCF from LCB 1227: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?
N a. Foam (stored-pressure) Y b. Water (cartridge-operated) N c. Dry chemical N d. Carbon dioxide 1235: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?
N a. Revive the person with smelling salts. N b. Loosen the clothing. N c. Lay the person horizontally. Y d. Give pain reliever. 1249: Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?
N a. Gulf of Saint Lawrence N b. Sargasso Sea Y c. Red Sea N d. Great Lakes 1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.
N a. 4, based on the breaking strength N b. 5, based on the maximum allowable stress Y c. 6, based on the maximum working load N d. 8, based on the normal working load 1565: What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?
Y a. 061722Z N b. 06 1122 ZD+6 N c. G1722 06APR81 N d. 1122Z6 06APR 1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.
N a. turning the victim's head to the side to keep his airway open N b. positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body N c. giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no food Y d. elevating the head and shoulders slightly with a pillow 1676: Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.
N a. check the flame arrester N b. check the fuel tank N c. check the battery Y d. ventilate the bilges 1679: You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board?
Y a. Gyro compass N b. Magnetic compass N c. Electronic position fixing device N d. VHF radiotelephone 1717: An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________.
N a. prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks N b. blow out cargo lines to prevent the build up of gas concentrations Y c. dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit N d. prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable vapors 1735: On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________.
N a. 6" reducer Y b. stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face N c. pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange N d. hose saddle 1785: What is a GMDSS functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?
N a. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) licensed GMDSS operators N b. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements that are determined by where the vessel sails. N c. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts. Y d. All of the above 1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________.
N a. prevent the accumulation of explosive gases N b. protect the hull from leaking electrolyte N c. prevent movement of the battery in rough waters Y d. protect against accidental shorting across terminals 1883: On offshore drilling units, the Muster List ("Station Bill") must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.
N a. company man N b. driller N c. owner Y d. Master or person in charge 1936: Your vessel displaces 696 tons and measures 135'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)
N a. 1.96 feet N b. 2.04 feet N c. 2.25 feet Y d. 2.48 feet 1952: Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
N a. 1.86 feet Y b. 2.07 feet N c. 2.35 feet N d. 2.76 feet 2086: A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.
N a. metacenter N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of flotation Y d. center of gravity 2146: Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________.
N a. bilge pumping capacity Y b. reserve buoyancy N c. level attitude N d. instability 2356: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 21'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 300 tons are loaded 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 225 tons are loaded 150 feet aft of amidships; and 122 tons of fuel are pumped 72 feet aft.
Y a. FWD 22'-11", AFT 22'-09" N b. FWD 23'-00", AFT 23'-00" N c. FWD 23'-02", AFT 23'-01" N d. FWD 23'-03", AFT 23'-05" 2590: Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by __________.
N a. cofferdams N b. empty cargo spaces Y c. gas tight bulkheads N d. areas equipped with power ventilation 2918: Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100°F? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. There shall be at least 3 ventilator ducts open to the atmosphere. Y b. At least one exhaust duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the bilge. N c. At least one intake duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the bilge. N d. Only vessels using fuel with a flash point above 110°F need ventilate engine and fuel compartments. 3046: How long is the Certificate of Inspection issued to a 50 gross ton, passenger carrying vessel which is 60 feet (18 meters) in length valid? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. One year N b. Two years Y c. Three years N d. Four years 3125: The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.
N a. underwater volume N b. above water volume N c. amidships section Y d. waterplane area 3300: How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel?
Y a. None are required N b. One B-I, C-I N c. One B-II, C-II N d. One B-II 3395: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the mean draft?
N a. 8.0 feet N b. 9.0 feet Y c. 9.5 feet N d. 12.0 feet 3449: How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
N a. 12 Y b. 14 N c. 18 N d. 24 3460: How should the letter "T" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. TEE N b. TA HO Y c. TANG GO N d. TU TU 3647: A distress signal __________.
N a. consists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus N b. consists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag Y c. may be used individually or in conjunction with other distress signals N d. is used to indicate doubt about another vessel's intentions 3667: The principal action in changing from transit to survival draft in the event heavy weather threatens is __________.
Y a. ballasting N b. deballasting N c. disconnecting N d. hanging off 3903: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is __________.
N a. 33 N b. 36 Y c. 46 N d. 48 3925: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve __________.
N a. 26 N b. 28 N c. 36 Y d. 41 3967: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. It is decided to fill tank 1P by flooding through the sea chest. What are the vertical moments for the added ballast?
N a. 6,899 ft-long tons N b. 6,149 ft-long tons Y c. 5,908 ft-long tons N d. 2,615 ft-long tons 4011: If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you may be imprisoned up to __________.
N a. 1 year N b. 2 years N c. 3 years Y d. 5 years 4082: A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is ____________ .
Y a. used solely for assistance towing N b. under 65 feet in length N c. used exclusively on the Western Rivers N d. pushing ahead 4102: The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.
Y a. center of buoyancy N b. center of flotation N c. uncorrected height of the center of gravity of the vessel N d. center of gravity of the vessel corrected for free surface effects 4534: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5577 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.55 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0163
Y a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet N b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet N c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet N d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet 4805: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new Longitudinal Free Surface Correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?
N a. 2.24 feet N b. 2.14 feet N c. 2.10 feet Y d. 1.63 feet 5097: To have the ultimate authority for a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is under tow, a rig mover must __________.
N a. hold an Able Seaman certificate and be designated as the person in charge of the rig Y b. hold a license as Offshore Installation Manager and be held as the person in charge of the rig N c. be certified by an approved classification society and be designated as the person in charge of the rig N d. be certified by the Minerals Management Service and be designated as the person in charge of the rig 5125: A MODU with the TCG off the longitudinal centerline inclines to an angle of __________.
Y a. list N b. heel N c. trim N d. loll 5427: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new LCG?
N a. 115.79 feet AFO Y b. 119.18 feet AFO N c. 119.44 feet AFO N d. 126.68 feet AFO 5605: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometer is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks Y b. satisfactory, continue tripping N c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 5911: What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list?
N a. Names of all crew members N b. Use and application of special equipment N c. Listing of approved emergency equipment Y d. Duties and station of each person during emergencies 6088: What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?
Y a. Are you sinking? N b. The call sign of a vessel registered in the Philippines. N c. The damage can be repaired at sea. N d. There are no tugs available. 6671: Each hand portable fire extinguisher on a MODU must be marked with __________.
N a. the name of the unit on which it is located N b. the date that it was installed on the unit N c. the names of the individuals qualified to use it Y d. an identification number different from other extinguishers on the unit 7311: What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?
N a. 1492 kHz N b. 1892 kHz N c. 2082 kHz Y d. 2182 kHz 8036: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.
N a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal N b. burning liquids flowing into another space Y c. transferring heat across an unobstructed space N d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems 8603: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats must be lowered to the water and maneuvered at least once every __________.
N a. 2 months Y b. 3 months N c. 6 months N d. 12 months 8751: When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of __________.
N a. 35 feet N b. 32 feet N c. 30 feet Y d. 25 feet 9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.
N a. 20° N b. 30° N c. 40° Y d. 50° 9415: A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are called __________.
N a. trippers N b. stocks N c. stabilizers Y d. palms