This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
175: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the __________.
Y a. Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a sister vessel N b. projected cost is unreasonable N c. Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available N d. vessel is of a proven design 200: Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
N a. It has a large GM. Y b. Its period of roll is long. N c. It has a very low center of gravity. N d. It has a good transverse stability. 434: You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?
N a. Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message Y b. Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may acknowledge receipt N c. Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have acknowledged N d. Do not acknowledge receipt because you are too far away to take action 457: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log must contain __________.
N a. a record of all routine calls N b. a record of your transmissions only N c. the home address of the vessel's Master or owner Y d. a summary of all distress calls and messages 521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?
N a. .39 ft Y b. .77 ft N c. .88 ft N d. .95 ft 617: For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry __________.
N a. A radiotelephone Y b. Three hand red flare distress signals, and three hand orange smoke distress signals N c. A "Very" pistol and flare kit N d. An approved noise-making device 675: Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?
N a. The U.S. Coast Guard N b. The manager of the shore facility Y c. The person(s) designated in-charge N d. The American Bureau of Shipping 679: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
N a. heat N b. oxygen Y c. electricity N d. fuel 733: Lifeboat hatchets should be __________.
N a. kept in a locker Y b. secured at each end of the boat with a lanyard N c. kept next to the boat coxswain N d. kept in the emergency locker on the ship and brought to the lifeboat when needed 869: As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to __________.
N a. hold a victim in a stretcher Y b. stop uncontrolled bleeding N c. hold a large bandage in place N d. restrain a delirious victim 1049: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0023
N a. 2.62 feet N b. 2.82 feet N c. 2.97 feet Y d. 3.15 feet 1052: The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________.
N a. frostbite N b. skin burns Y c. asphyxiation N d. an explosive reaction 1062: Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of __________.
Y a. CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers N b. foam fire extinguishers N c. water (stored pressure) fire extinguishers N d. All of the above 1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.
N a. must be located at the lowest portion of the tank N b. must have only a gravity-forced flow N c. must be extended to an external area of the hull Y d. are permitted 1121: In shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )
N a. releasing gear N b. McCluny hook N c. sea painter Y d. Fleming gear 1190: What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?
N a. Moisture accumulation in winch motor damaging the electrical wiring N b. Freezing of gears in cold weather N c. Corroding of sheaves on the davits so they will not rotate Y d. All of the above 1398: The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.
N a. 1 inch Y b. 2-1/2 inches N c. 3 inches N d. 3-1/2 inches 1605: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?
N a. MD Y b. MT N c. PA N d. NURSE 1732: The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________.
N a. normal water supply at the water seal is lost N b. the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150°F N c. the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost Y d. all of the above 1772: The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include __________.
N a. harbors, lakes and similar waters determined by the OCMI to be protected waters N b. waters within 20 nautical miles from the mouth of a harbor of safe refuge N c. the Great Lakes during the summer season Y d. sheltered waters presenting no special hazard 1874: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.
N a. remote operated valve N b. C02 system pressure switch Y c. fusible link N d. heat or smoke detector 1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________.
Y a. on a close reach on a port tack N b. close hauled on a starboard tack N c. on a broad reach on a port tack N d. on a beam reach on a starboard tack 2002: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See the trim and stability letter for M.V. Hudson, illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )
Y a. 90 tons N b. 140 tons N c. 155 tons N d. 240 tons 2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. 14.8 tons N b. 18.0 tons Y c. 25.0 tons N d. 32.0 tons 2215: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a survival craft, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. plot a course for the nearest land N c. take a vote on which direction you should go Y d. shut down the engine(s) and set the sea anchor 2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF?
N a. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. Y b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. N c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. N d. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. 2600: If your Bunker-C barge has operated in salt water for more than 12 months in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?
N a. 36 months since last dry-docking Y b. 24 months since last dry-docking N c. 18 months since last dry-docking N d. 12 months since last dry-docking 2668: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.
Y a. remains aligned with compass north N b. also turns to starboard N c. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port N d. turns counterclockwise to port 2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
N a. be tender N b. have a slow and easy motion Y c. be stiff N d. have a tendency to yaw 3128: You are Master of a 20-ton ketch. You wish to heave-to on the starboard tack in 35 knots of wind. Which action would be appropriate?
N a. Set your storm jib aback to port and secure your rudder hard to starboard. N b. Secure your reefed mizzen aback to starboard and your storm jib aback to port. Secure your rudder hard to port. N c. Sheet your mizzen in flat and secure your rudder amidships. Y d. Secure your storm jib aback to starboard and sheet your reefed mizzen in flat. Secure your rudder hard to starboard. 3215: The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.
N a. in one of the equipment bags Y b. in a special pocket near the forward entrance N c. on a cord hanging from the canopy N d. in a pocket on the first aid kit 3682: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?
N a. 4 to 6 times per minute Y b. 12 to 15 times per minute N c. 20 to 30 times per minute N d. At least 30 times per minute 3690: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.
N a. having the proper equipment for the process Y b. starting the treatment quickly N c. administering of oxygen N d. treating for traumatic shock 3707: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new draft?
N a. 48'-06" N b. 47'-03 1/2" Y c. 46'-09 3/4" N d. 44'-06" 3749: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________.
N a. get them to rub their eye until the object is gone N b. remove it with a match or toothpick N c. remove it with a piece of dry sterile cotton Y d. remove it with a moist, cotton-tipped applicator 3803: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the transverse moments for a sounding of 5 feet in tank C3P?
N a. 1,005 foot-tons N b. 2,139 foot-tons Y c. -7,130 foot-tons N d. -10,797 foot-tons 3904: The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.
N a. when the power source is replaced N b. each year after installation N c. every six months Y d. when it is no longer serviceable 3923: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the #1 bilge pump is valve __________.
N a. 28 N b. 36 Y c. 41 N d. 42 4060: After an item of required safety equipment on a towing vessel fails, the owner or Master must consider all of these factors before continuing the voyage, EXCEPT the ___________ .
N a. weather conditions, including visibility Y b. estimated time of arrival promised to the customer N c. safety of the vessel, considering the other traffic in the area N d. dictates of good seamanship 4134: Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
N a. with both pumps on line at the same time Y b. with one pump on standby N c. with the follow-up gear disconnected N d. only when the rudder is moved amidships 4521: While in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet, the COASTAL DRILLER has a KGT of 60.0 feet. What is the GMT?
N a. 139.92 feet N b. 138.89 feet N c. 79.92 feet Y d. 78.89 feet 4787: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater than 70 knots?
Y a. 0 kips N b. 200 kips N c. 600 kips N d. 1,000 kips 5265: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage has proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
N a. counterflood in 1P Y b. counterflood in 10S N c. pump from C1P N d. pump from C3S 5447: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 3 or 4 Y b. failure of mooring lines 7 or 8 N c. leak in ballast tank #2S N d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S 5505: Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used mooring chain?
N a. Cracks N b. Elongation N c. Loose studs Y d. Fatigue 5521: Prior to magnetic particle inspection of anchor chain, the chain should be __________.
N a. degaussed N b. demagnetized N c. soaked Y d. sandblasted 5655: When the air temperature is just below 32°F, snow FIRST adheres to __________.
N a. surfaces near the waterline N b. vertical surfaces Y c. horizontal surfaces N d. leeward surfaces 5702: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0183
N a. Available GM 2.8 ft Y b. Available GM 3.2 ft N c. Available GM 3.5 ft N d. Available GM 3.8 ft 6255: Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.
N a. immediately after restoring vital services Y b. immediately N c. following control of flooding N d. following establishment of fire boundaries 6595: How often must a rated load test be performed on a crane on a MODU?
N a. Every 12 months N b. Every 24 months N c. Every 36 months Y d. Every 48 months 6791: At the required fire drill conducted aboard a MODU, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.
N a. by the toolpusher Y b. in the Muster List ("Station Bill") N c. by the person conducting the drill N d. at the previous safety meeting 7071: The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.
N a. evaluation Y b. triage N c. surveying N d. prioritizing 7577: The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and the __________.
N a. longitudinal center of gravity N b. transverse center of gravity N c. downflooding angle Y d. vertical location of the center of gravity 8831: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the new starboard draft?
N a. 12 feet N b. 11 feet N c. 10 feet Y d. 9 feet 9155: In plugging submerged holes on a MODU, rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to __________.
N a. reduce the water pressure on the hull Y b. reduce the water leaking around the plugs N c. prevent progressive flooding N d. reduce the possibility of stress fractures 9167: To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.
Y a. pull the release lanyard N b. pull the hydraulic release N c. push the release button N d. pull on the ratchet handle 9381: If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.
N a. climb onto the bottom N b. swim away from the raft Y c. right the raft using the righting strap N d. inflate the righting bag 9485: The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.
N a. list Y b. heel N c. trim N d. flotation 9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
N a. the midships house Y b. in the pumproom N c. at the vent header N d. at the main deck manifold 9652: When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4