This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
281: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?
N a. 200 lbs N b. 205 lbs Y c. 210 lbs N d. 220 lbs 330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
N a. reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG N b. not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG Y c. reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG N d. not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG 391: Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.
Y a. it provides cooling as a secondary effect N b. works well on extinguishing electrical fires N c. can be used to combat combustible metal fires N d. All of the above 592: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.
N a. solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber Y b. flammable liquids N c. a piece of electrical equipment N d. combustible metallic solids 712: Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?
N a. It cools the surface of the liquid. N b. It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire. Y c. It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil. N d. It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied. 783: A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.
N a. the line attached to the tack of the lugsail N b. the emergency rudder N c. a canvas awning Y d. the aftermost seating 929: According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________.
Y a. incinerating offshore N b. discharging when at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land N c. grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land N d. grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 25 nautical miles from nearest land 961: Safety is increased if __________.
N a. extra line and wire are laid out on deck for emergency use Y b. all lashings are made up, and the decks are clean and clear N c. power tools are kept plugged in for immediate use N d. spare parts are kept on deck for ready access 1035: The letter G, when sent with a complement, may be followed by __________.
N a. two numerals N b. two letters N c. three or four numerals Y d. four or five numerals 1128: Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system?
N a. A threefold purchase, rove to advantage N b. A spare rudder, stowed so it can be readily mounted Y c. A suitable hand tiller, approved by the OCMI N d. All of the above 1173: On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be __________.
Y a. made within enclosures N b. served and parceled with the lay, turned and wormed the other way N c. installed only by a licensed marine electrician N d. inspected annually by the Coast Guard 1176: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.
N a. be of a light color N b. be 250 meters in length Y c. have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs N d. be made of synthetic material 1238: When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?
N a. High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead N b. Straight stream directed into the center of the fire Y c. Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream N d. Solid stream directed toward the overhead 1304: The painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.
N a. free running on the deck N b. faked out next to the case Y c. secured to a permanent object on deck N d. stowed near the raft 1324: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.
N a. must be wet before it will release N b. should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency N c. will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually Y d. must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically 1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
N a. Spliced into the ring on the stem post N b. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart Y c. Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls N d. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls 1432: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )
N a. 9'-10" Y b. 9'-06" N c. 9'-04" N d. 9'-02" 1662: By regulation, your cargo vessel must have __________.
Y a. sufficient facilities for the crew to wash their clothes N b. a wash basin in each room N c. separate toilet facilities for engineers where their number exceeds six N d. All of the above 1677: After an engine is started you should __________.
N a. increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all parts of the engine N b. pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the engine Y c. check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks N d. run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased 1829: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220° relative would be __________.
N a. close hauled on the port tack N b. close hauled on the starboard tack N c. running before the wind Y d. on a broad reach 1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.
N a. ventilation avoids CO2 build up N b. ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery Y c. ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation N d. less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge 1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)
N a. 2.17 feet N b. 2.32 feet Y c. 2.52 feet N d. 3.01 feet 1967: Define the acronym MSI.
Y a. Maritime Safety Information N b. Maritime Shipping Index N c. Maritime Satellite Indicator N d. Mariner Safety Intelligence 2094: Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?
N a. 1.4 feet N b. 2.1 feet Y c. 2.5 feet N d. 2.9 feet 2096: Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least __________.
N a. 100°C N b. 212°F Y c. 500°F N d. 1200°F 2196: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are on a sailing vessel with the wind on the starboard side and are approaching another sailing vessel that has the wind on the port side. Which action should you take?
N a. Reduce sail and hold course. N b. Alter course away from the other vessel. Y c. Maintain course and speed. N d. Any maneuver to avoid collision. 2505: The helicopter deck of a MODU must be marked with the units identification, appropriate aiming circles, and a continuous line on the perimeter which is __________.
N a. 8 inches wide Y b. 16 inches wide N c. 24 inches wide N d. 32 inches wide 2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft N b. Available GM 4.24 ft Y c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2536: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.
N a. shut off all electrical power N b. close all openings to the area Y c. cool the bulkheads around the fire N d. remove combustibles from direct exposure 2551: The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.
N a. maximum counter weight required N b. minimum horsepower required N c. hoist rope strength Y d. allowable load 2634: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 4 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
N a. 40 N b. 48 N c. 53 Y d. 60 2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower?
N a. 2 N b. 3 Y c. 4 N d. 5 2796: On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________.
N a. shall be suitable for marine use N b. may use liquefied petroleum gas N c. cannot use gasoline Y d. All of the above 3159: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.
N a. a break-glass and pull-cable system N b. electrical controls on the bridge N c. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct Y d. the heat of a fire melting the link 3405: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. If the draft at the forward draft marks is 8.0 feet, the draft at the after draft marks is __________.
N a. 7.00 feet N b. 9.00 feet N c. 9.42 feet Y d. 10.13 feet 3540: How should the letter "R" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Y a. ROW ME OH N b. AR AH N c. ROA MA O N d. AR EE 3649: A man aboard a vessel, signaling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side, is indicating __________.
N a. danger, stay away N b. all is clear, it is safe to pass N c. all is clear, it is safe to approach Y d. a distress signal 3662: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-00", AFT 25'-08". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.1'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)
N a. Tanks: DB3, DT1A N b. Tanks: DB2, DB6, DT6 N c. Tanks: DB 3, FB7, DT1 Y d. Tanks: DB4, DT6 3760: Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.
N a. fever and thirst Y b. nausea and dizziness N c. stomach cramps and diarrhea N d. reddening of skin and hives 3799: With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the correct posture should include __________.
Y a. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm, crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and keeping the feet together N b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs N c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for a feet first entry into the water N d. both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed 3876: What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel?
N a. A drill should be conducted every three months. Y b. A regular service line must be used when it's fired. N c. A regular projectile must be used when it's fired. N d. The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. 4018: Towing vessel fire protection regulations distinguish between "new" and "existing" towing vessels. A "new" towing vessel is one that was __________.
N a. built within the last three years N b. contracted for on or after August 27, 2002 Y c. contracted for on or after August 27, 2003 N d. not previously owned 4178: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0156
N a. 229.8 ft N b. 234.3 ft N c. 244.6 ft Y d. 253.5 ft 4262: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. N c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. N d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires twice the time to climb a ladder than without the suit 4491: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a displacement of 13,553 kips, has a draft of __________.
N a. 10.5 feet N b. 11 feet 6 inches N c. 11 feet 2 inches Y d. 10 feet 5 inches 4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.
N a. OIM's quarters N b. OIM's office N c. control house Y d. bilge pit 4781: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the change in KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?
N a. 12.75 feet Y b. 13.65 feet N c. 59.30 feet N d. 60.50 feet 5457: The only wire rope termination which may be made in the field is __________.
N a. swaged socket N b. thimbled mechanical splice N c. hand splice Y d. spelter poured and resin sockets 5941: Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.
N a. fireman's outfit Y b. low-velocity spray applicator N c. marine strainer N d. pick axe 5957: On a MODU, a CO2 extinguisher is checked by __________.
N a. reading the gage pressure Y b. weighing the extinguisher N c. discharging a small amount of CO2 N d. seeing if the seal has been broken 6871: Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made?
Y a. Every 3 months N b. Every 6 months N c. Every year N d. Only after conducting a boat drill 7333: You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?
N a. One minute Y b. Two minutes N c. Five minutes N d. Seven minutes 8198: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 15 ft. deep is half filled with oil cargo (S.G. 0.948) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?
N a. 3240 N b. 2731 Y c. 2162 N d. 1336 8323: The Lethal Concentration of H2S that will cause death with short-term exposure is a minimum of __________.
N a. 100 ppm N b. 200 ppm N c. 400 ppm Y d. 700 ppm 8363: Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when __________.
N a. it gets dark in color N b. a sample rubbed between fingers feels thin Y c. it has been in use for a specified interval N d. it no longer supports combustion 8845: A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60?
N a. 17 feet 9 inches Y b. 18 feet 3 inches N c. 18 feet 9 inches N d. 21 feet 3 inches 9227: The longitudinal free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 12,000 kips is 1.20 feet. What would be the new FSCL if 2,400 kips of solid variable loads are added?
N a. 1.50 feet N b. 1.20 feet Y c. 1.00 foot N d. 0.83 foot 9313: When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to __________.
Y a. look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body N b. locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes N c. remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn N d. apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth 9445: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the __________.
Y a. metacentric height N b. height of the righting arm N c. fore and aft perpendicular N d. height of the center of buoyancy 9481: The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.
N a. trim Y b. change of trim N c. final trim N d. change of draft