This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
N a. pushing up on one side Y b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards N c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder N d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate 168: In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________.
Y a. applying direct pressure to the wound N b. submerging the wound in lukewarm water N c. cooling the wound with ice N d. applying a tourniquet 313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be __________.
N a. stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted N b. used as seats, pillows, or foot rests N c. left on open decks Y d. All of the above 387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?
N a. Certificate of Inspection N b. List of ship stations N c. Copy of ship to shore channels Y d. Radio station license 459: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 500: Safety shackles are fitted with __________.
N a. a threaded bolt N b. a round pin, with a cotter pin Y c. a threaded bolt, locknuts, and cotter pins N d. round pins and locknuts 543: Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.
N a. to keep the boats covered at all times Y b. not to leave steel or iron tools lying in or near these boats N c. to keep an electric charge on the hull at all times N d. to rinse these boats regularly with salt water 549: If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.
Y a. determine the cause before taking countermeasures N b. assume the shift is due to off-center loading N c. counterflood N d. assume the cause is environmental forces 567: On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________.
Y a. the equipment must be approved by the Commandant N b. it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment N c. it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment regardless of its condition N d. it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector 604: To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should __________.
N a. close the cross-connection valve between the off-center tanks N b. completely flood high center tanks N c. ballast double bottom wing tanks Y d. close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank 636: What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?
Y a. Each lifeboat must have a launching appliance. N b. Launching appliances must be of the gravity type. N c. There may not be more than two launching appliances on the same deck. N d. All of the above 733: Lifeboat hatchets should be __________.
N a. kept in a locker Y b. secured at each end of the boat with a lanyard N c. kept next to the boat coxswain N d. kept in the emergency locker on the ship and brought to the lifeboat when needed 818: A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.
N a. A N b. B Y c. C N d. D 917: Foam-type portable fire extinguishers are most useful in combating fires involving __________.
N a. solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber Y b. flammable liquids N c. electrical equipment N d. metallic solids 940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.
N a. shape of the vessel's underwater hull remains the same N b. vessel's center of gravity shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull Y c. vessel's center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull N d. vessel's mean draft increases 1099: On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines __________.
Y a. at the tank and the engine end of the fuel line N b. outside the engineroom on the fill and vent lines N c. only at the tank end of the fuel line N d. only at the engine end of the fuel line 1153: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping materials __________.
N a. may replace metal pipe or tubing in any installation N b. may not be used on inspected vessels Y c. may only be used in non-vital systems N d. are preferable to steel pipe 1260: The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________.
Y a. sheath-screw davit N b. gravity davit N c. radial davit N d. bruckner davit 1527: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.
N a. latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water N b. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip Y c. latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore N d. latitude and longitude only 1535: Limit switches __________.
N a. control the descent rate of a lifeboat N b. control the ascent rate of a lifeboat Y c. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position N d. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers 1749: High pressure and low pressure alarms must be tested __________.
Y a. no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading N b. no later than 24 hours prior to loading N c. anytime prior to loading N d. weekly 1887: When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
N a. one month before the anniversary date of the plan N b. six months before the end of the approval period Y c. and cannot be implemented without approval N d. and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submission 1905: What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of the mast?
N a. Chainplate N b. Hound N c. Crowfoot Y d. Spreader 1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Acetonitrile N b. Molten sulfur Y c. Dodecanol N d. Soybean oil 2101: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration located 10 nautical miles from nearest land MAY discharge __________.
N a. food waste N b. food, ground to less than 1" N c. paper, ground to less than 1" Y d. None of the above 2337: Sideways movement of the mast is resisted by the __________.
Y a. shrouds N b. halyards N c. sheets N d. forestay 2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.
N a. daily testing Y b. either A or C N c. operational use of the equipment N d. testing at least every 48 hours 2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.
Y a. temporary guide base N b. permanent guide base N c. guide frame N d. foundation template 2909: Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________.
N a. if he can do so without any risk to his vessel N b. if he can do so without undue delay Y c. if he can do so without serious danger to his vessel or to individuals on board N d. without regard to any danger to his vessel 2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets. N b. They shall be of an approved type. N c. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment. N d. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water. 3060: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 5928 tons N b. 6016 tons Y c. 6149 tons N d. 6242 tons 3086: Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the pilothouse?
N a. A tank barge with a sign reading "No Visitors, No Smoking, No Open Lights" N b. An open hopper barge carrying coal N c. A gas-free chlorine barge Y d. An empty (not gas-free) barge that last carried benzene 3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.
N a. FSCL N b. KG Y c. KGL N d. GML 3109: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0106
Y a. 3.9 feet N b. 4.3 feet N c. 4.7 feet N d. 5.1 feet 3329: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.
N a. remain on course and hold speed N b. remain on course but slack the speed Y c. change course and put the stern to the wind N d. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed 3771: What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P?
N a. 15,265 ft-tons Y b. 14,609 ft-tons N c. 7,293 ft-tons N d. 5,174 ft-tons 4025: When is direct voice communication allowed in place of an internal communication system on a towing vessel?
N a. When the vessel is less than 20 meters in length N b. When the vessel is ruled to be an "existing vessel" Y c. When the controls at the operation station are within 3 meters (10 feet) of the engine room access N d. When it is easier to shout than use a radio or telephone 4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?
N a. "P" N b. "C" Y c. "H" N d. "Z" 4421: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in normal transit, the roll period is 8 seconds. What would be the limiting angle of pitch which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?
N a. 10° N b. 8° Y c. 6° N d. 4° 4801: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new VCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?
N a. 38.00 feet N b. 48.38 feet Y c. 49.16 feet N d. 65.00 feet 5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. counterflood in 1P N b. counterflood in 10S N c. pump from C1P N d. pump from C3S 5721: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.
N a. litmus paper N b. combustible gas indicator N c. oxygen breathing apparatus Y d. oxygen indicator 6604: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.
Y a. the heat of a fire melting the link N b. a break-glass and pull-cable system N c. electrical controls on the bridge N d. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct 6607: To determine the number of Able Seamen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.
N a. load line certificate N b. Operations Manual N c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate Y d. Certificate of Inspection 6853: Regulations require that line throwing equipment on mobile offshore drilling units be tested at regular intervals. What entry should be made in the logbook?
N a. No entry is required unless it is an official logbook. N b. An entry is required only if there is a failure. Y c. Only the date of the test N d. The name of the person making the test 6903: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding under what condition?
N a. At the owner's discretion Y b. If it creates a hazard to navigation N c. If the grounding lasts over 48 hours N d. Under any condition 7747: In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.
N a. metacenter N b. amidships N c. center of flotation Y d. geometric center of the displaced volume 8073: A person who holds a foreign license can serve as the ballast control operator to meet manning requirements on a MODU on waters outside U.S. jurisdiction until the __________.
N a. MODU's contract is completed N b. Certificate of Inspection is renewed Y c. MODU returns to a U.S. port N d. Operations Manual is revised 8075: A semisubmersible is more likely to experience structural stresses during heavy weather when __________.
N a. operating at drilling draft N b. deballasting to survival draft N c. when at survival draft Y d. when at transit draft 8555: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.
N a. gate valve Y b. pressure gauge N c. check valve N d. strainer 8577: The indication of a slipping anchor is a(n) __________.
N a. decrease in mooring line length N b. increase in the opposite amperage N c. increase in the opposite line tension Y d. decrease in mooring line tension and amperage 8643: The analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregards the beneficial effects of countermeasures and __________.
N a. horizontal area of the platform N b. vertical area of the platform N c. wind strength Y d. mooring system 8645: In the analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregarded are the beneficial effects of moorings and __________.
N a. horizontal area of the platform N b. vertical area of the platform Y c. countermeasures N d. wind strength 8661: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
N a. 9S N b. 8S Y c. 10S N d. 10P 8705: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2S by pumping from tank 1S after opening valves 6 and __________.
N a. 8 N b. 7 Y c. 2 N d. 1 9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.
N a. accumulators Y b. control pods N c. consoles N d. shuttle controls 9431: Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.
N a. BL N b. GMT N c. FSCT Y d. KG 9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
N a. the midships house Y b. in the pumproom N c. at the vent header N d. at the main deck manifold 9604: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
N a. removing the oxygen Y b. removing the fuel N c. interrupting the chain reaction N d. removing the heat 9623: You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?
N a. Close the door to the room. N b. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. N c. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Y d. Break out the nearest fire hose.