This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
21: Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
N a. minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding N b. fire on board N c. rescuing an individual from the water Y d. emergency towing 148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.
N a. lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops Y b. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound N c. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops N d. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it 353: When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.
N a. slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor from the stern Y b. slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor by the holding line N c. towing with the tripping line and leaving the holding line slack N d. towing the apex end forward with the tripping line 434: You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?
N a. Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message Y b. Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may acknowledge receipt N c. Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have acknowledged N d. Do not acknowledge receipt because you are too far away to take action 435: If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must __________.
N a. stop the flow of oil at the main deck manifold N b. prevent the oil from leaving the shore facility Y c. prevent the oil from siphoning through the pump N d. None of the above 712: Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?
N a. It cools the surface of the liquid. N b. It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire. Y c. It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil. N d. It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied. 816: You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks?
N a. 0% Y b. 5% N c. 8% N d. 11% 1079: Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?
Y a. Low oxygen alarm N b. Low pressure alarm N c. Scrubber high water level alarm N d. Deck seal low water alarm 1204: Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________.
Y a. towing bridle N b. main weather cover N c. external lifelines N d. righting strap 1374: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.
Y a. sealing clamps N b. repair tape N c. a tube patch N d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit 1377: On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80 ft. long, 60 ft. wide and 30 ft. deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?
N a. 2661 N b. 2819 Y c. 40100 N d. 42213 1537: How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?
N a. V19.9 N b. 120°W N c. 119.9W Y d. 11956W 1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.
N a. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks N b. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks N c. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam Y d. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion 1750: You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than __________.
Y a. 4" water gauge N b. 90% of the vacuum relief setting N c. 90% of the pressure drop through the scrubber N d. 90% of the vacuum assist fan 1782: Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?
N a. 24 N b. 2182 N c. 70 Y d. 16 and 2174.5 1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
N a. 030947C MAR N b. 03094703 N c. 06470303Z Y d. 030647Z MAR 1892: What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?
N a. 8 hours N b. 2 days N c. 3 days Y d. 4 days 1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Acetonitrile N b. Molten sulfur Y c. Dodecanol N d. Soybean oil 2025: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged on a 15 meter sail vessel. Which statement is TRUE?
Y a. This condition is indicated by a conical shape, apex downwards. N b. You should maintain course and speed when approaching a power-driven vessel. N c. You must display two green lights in a vertical line at or near the masthead. N d. You are considered a sailing vessel as long as sail propulsion affects the vessel's maneuverability. 2036: Which system provides maximum communications range?
N a. MF SITOR Y b. INMARSAT N c. Digital Selective Calling on 8414.5KHz N d. VHF ARQ 2433: The pipe and special fittings used on floating offshore drilling rigs to establish a connection between the top of the wellbore, which is on the ocean floor, and the drilling equipment, located above the surface of the water, is called a __________.
Y a. marine riser pipe N b. marine casing N c. guide pipe N d. guide base casing 2463: A heavy, thick-walled tube, usually steel, used between the drill pipe and the bit in the drill stem to weight the bit in order to improve its performance is called a __________.
N a. heavy-walled drill pipe N b. tool joint N c. down hole tool Y d. drill collar 2494: An example of a grade C product is __________.
Y a. naphtha, vm and p N b. tridecanol N c. cottonseed oil N d. camphor oil 2823: A vessel heading ESE is on a course of __________.
Y a. 112.5° N b. 135.0° N c. 157.5° N d. 180.0° 2915: A MODU lists and trims about the __________.
N a. center of gravity N b. center of buoyancy Y c. center of flotation N d. centroid of the underwater volume 2970: An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________.
N a. air bottle for breathing N b. orange smoke canister Y c. whistle, light and retroreflective material N d. sea dye marker 3010: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0096
Y a. Available GM 4.07 ft N b. Available GM 4.60 ft N c. Available GM 4.69 ft N d. Available GM 4.81 ft 3284: Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 20% of the passengers carried Y b. 10% of the total number of persons carried N c. 10% of the passengers carried N d. 20% of the total number of persons carried 3514: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0136
N a. 2.8 feet N b. 4.6 feet N c. 6.8 feet Y d. 7.1 feet 3528: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0137
N a. 271.2 ft N b. 288.8 ft Y c. 294.4 ft N d. 305.3 ft 3559: The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a __________.
Y a. fishing kit N b. searchlight N c. sea anchor N d. radar reflector 3613: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?
N a. The nature of the distress N b. The time of day N c. Your radio call sign Y d. Your position by latitude and longitude 3743: An unconscious person should NOT be __________.
N a. placed in a position with the head lower than the body N b. given an inhalation stimulant Y c. given something to drink N d. treated for injuries until conscious 3976: In the illustration, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags? (D014SA )
N a. item #2 N b. item #12 Y c. item #13 N d. item #22 4042: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 1200 brake horsepower?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 4073: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new TM (transverse moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
N a. -3,436 ft-tons Y b. 3,446 ft-tons N c. 3,594 ft-tons N d. 22,682 ft-tons 4113: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?
N a. 10.42 feet N b. 10.87 feet N c. 11.50 feet Y d. 12.13 feet 4273: The overturning forces acting on a floating jack-up are generally dominated by __________.
N a. waves N b. current Y c. wind N d. tide 4455: What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The davit-launched liferaft is easier to maintain. N b. The davit-launched liferaft is made of fire-retardant material. N c. The davit-launched liferaft has a built-in sprinkler system for fire protection. Y d. The davit-launched liferaft enables personnel to enter the raft without having to enter the water. 4665: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new VCG?
N a. 47.21 feet N b. 47.69 feet N c. 48.41 feet Y d. 49.16 feet 4787: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater than 70 knots?
Y a. 0 kips N b. 200 kips N c. 600 kips N d. 1,000 kips 5071: A mobile offshore drilling unit is on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf. It has a length of 220 feet and a breadth of 190 feet. Where must the obstruction lights be located?
N a. At the top of the drill mast Y b. On each corner of the rig N c. At the bow of the rig N d. At the bow and stern of the rig 5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. counterflood in 1P N b. counterflood in 10S N c. pump from C1P N d. pump from C3S 5825: The tension on an anchor cable increases so that the angle of the catenary to the seabed at the anchor reaches 10 degrees. How will this affect the anchor in sandy soil?
N a. It will have no effect. N b. It will increase the holding power. Y c. It will reduce the holding power. N d. It will cause the anchor to snag. 6035: On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________.
N a. during abandon drill Y b. during fire drill N c. weekly N d. when the rig is being moved 6825: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.
N a. the names of all persons on board N b. only the names of the crew members on board N c. only the names of passengers on board Y d. information on emergency training drills 6827: What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit after conducting a fire drill?
Y a. The condition of all fire fighting equipment, watertight door mechanisms, and valves used during each drill N b. The location of the unit at the time each drill is conducted N c. The name of each crew member who participated in the drill and their responsibilities N d. All of the above 6911: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.
N a. only when it happens while underway N b. to the next of kin Y c. to the nearest OCMI N d. to the nearest coroner 7003: When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________.
Y a. five minutes N b. ten minutes N c. fifteen minutes N d. twenty minutes 7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.
N a. fixed foam systems to be ineffective N b. faster cooling of the fire N c. the accumulation of explosive gases Y d. the fire to spread through the ventilation system 7128: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.
Y a. 20 seconds N b. 40 seconds N c. one minute N d. two minutes 7787: A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.
N a. couple Y b. lever arm N c. moment of inertia N d. point of application 8261: When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to __________.
Y a. better identify the correct reading N b. show the depth of any water in an oil tank N c. make the tape roll easier N d. reduce possibility of sparks 8293: Failure of both port-side ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To dewater from the port forward tanks, you should use the __________.
N a. port saltwater service pump N b. port drill water pump N c. port bilge pumps Y d. starboard ballast pump and crossover system 8521: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?
Y a. 4,060 kips N b. 5,145 kips N c. 5,559 kips N d. 5,816 kips 8591: Prior to burning or welding on a fuel tank on a MODU, regulations require that an inspection be made. An entry in the unofficial logbook is required if this inspection is made by __________.
N a. a marine chemist N b. the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection Y c. the Master or person in charge of the MODU N d. the National Fire Protection Association 9113: After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be __________.
N a. put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains N b. repainted N c. discarded Y d. recharged 9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.
N a. indication of broken bones Y b. breathing and heartbeat N c. symptoms of concussion N d. bleeding injuries 9337: Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.
Y a. portable N b. semi-portable N c. fixed N d. compact 9557: Longitudinal moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.
N a. VCG or KG N b. LCB Y c. LCG N d. TCG