USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


6: Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________.


44: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.


138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.


198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________.

    N a. be assisted in walking around
    N b. be examined then walked to a bunk
    Y c. not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
    N d. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk

412: To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would __________.

    N a. attach the bronze nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the nozzle
    Y b. attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the bronze nozzle tip
    N c. attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the nozzle
    N d. simply move the handle to the vertical position on the nozzle

570: On a vessel of 5,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of acid (SG 1.8). Each tank is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?

    N a. .11 ft
    N b. .21 ft
    Y c. .40 ft
    N d. .82 ft

716: The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage, is __________.

    N a. 1 liter
    N b. 2 liters
    Y c. 3 liters
    N d. 4 liters

731: If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will not be able to discharge __________ anywhere at sea.

    Y a. plastic
    N b. metal
    N c. glass
    N d. paper

734: On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________.

    N a. 20.0 meters (65.5 feet) in length
    Y b. 30.5 meters (100 feet) in length
    N c. 10 fathoms (60 feet) in length
    N d. 90 feet (27.5 meters) in length

760: With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________.

    Y a. on most "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length
    N b. on most "T-Boats" regardless of length
    N c. only on "K-Boats"
    N d. None of the above

984: The lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare means __________.

    N a. "Landing here highly dangerous"
    N b. "Negative"
    N c. "Avast hauling"
    Y d. All of the above

990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.

    Y a. negative GM
    N b. off-center weight
    N c. pocketing of free surface
    N d. excessive freeboard

1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

    N a. A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.
    N b. Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities.
    N c. You should always wear a gas mask.
    Y d. After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside.

1399: How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?

    N a. 116°24.3W
    Y b. 11624W
    N c. 116.4W
    N d. 116W

1526: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

    N a. Foam
    N b. Dry chemical
    Y c. Water (cartridge-operated)
    N d. Carbon dioxide

1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

    N a. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire.
    N b. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases.
    N c. Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders.
    Y d. Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising.

1893: Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?

    N a. DSC only
    N b. DSC and EPIRB
    N c. SART and DSC
    Y d. EPIRB and SART

2013: What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons?

    N a. 4
    N b. 3
    Y c. 2
    N d. 1

2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    Y a. 55 tons
    N b. 99 tons
    N c. 140 tons
    N d. 360 tons

2133: If a vessel is sagging, which kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?

    Y a. Compression
    N b. Racking
    N c. Tension
    N d. Thrust

2218: The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

    N a. floodable length
    N b. factor of subdivision
    N c. compartment standard
    Y d. permissible length

2324: How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?

    Y a. One B-II
    N b. Two B-II
    N c. One B-V
    N d. Two A-II

2335: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

    Y a. Chain reaction
    N b. Electricity
    N c. Pressure
    N d. Smoke

2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower?

    N a. 2
    N b. 3
    Y c. 4
    N d. 5

2676: A safe fuel system must __________.

    N a. prevent engine overheating
    N b. have proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio
    Y c. be liquid- and vapor-tight
    N d. supply sufficient air to the intake manifold

2852: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.

    N a. progressive downflooding
    N b. reduction of water in the storage tanks
    Y c. increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height
    N d. reduction of KG to the minimum allowable

2880: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1150 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.0 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    Y a. 1.8 feet
    N b. 2.4 feet
    N c. 2.8 feet
    N d. 3.1 feet

3138: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    N a. 1550 tons
    Y b. 2920 tons
    N c. 3010 tons
    N d. 3515 tons

3283: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

    N a. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire.
    N b. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.
    N c. They are to be kept closed at all times.
    Y d. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.

3373: The DEEP DRILLER at survival draft loads 2,068.1 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

    N a. 30.0 feet
    N b. 45.0 feet
    Y c. 60.0 feet
    N d. 75.0 feet

3389: The draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 23'-06" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.

    N a. 77 tons
    Y b. 96 tons
    N c. 120 tons
    N d. 124 tons

3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.

    N a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire
    Y b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system
    N c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system
    N d. use high-expansion foam

3538: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 100.7 tons of seawater.

    N a. FWD 23'-00.3", AFT 23'-05.0"
    Y b. FWD 23'-01.0", AFT 23'-05.7"
    N c. FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 23'-04.0"
    N d. FWD 22'-10.3", AFT 23'-06.0"

3613: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

    N a. The nature of the distress
    N b. The time of day
    N c. Your radio call sign
    Y d. Your position by latitude and longitude

3698: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?

    N a. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
    N b. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
    N c. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.
    Y d. Re-tip the head and try again.

3894: A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry __________.

    N a. 8 liters of fresh water
    N b. 12 units of provisions
    Y c. 12 liters of fresh water
    N d. 24 units of provisions

3986: A fire is discovered in the bow of your vessel while making way. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    N a. remain on course and hold speed
    N b. remain on course but slack the speed
    N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    Y d. change course and put the stern to the wind

4057: In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.

    N a. adding the free surface correction
    N b. subtracting the free surface correction
    N c. multiplying by displacement
    Y d. dividing by displacement

4154: Coast Guard Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________.

    N a. 1 hour
    N b. 4 hours
    N c. 8 hours
    Y d. 12 hours

4227: What is the maximum weight that can be placed in the setback area on the COASTAL DRILLER?

    N a. 1000 kips
    N b. 750 kips
    Y c. 450 kips
    N d. 375 kips

4235: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as __________.

    Y a. variable loads
    N b. stationary loads
    N c. fixed loads
    N d. basic loads

4404: The letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate the __________.

    Y a. class of fire and size of the extinguisher
    N b. class of fire and location aboard vessel
    N c. extinguishing agent and relative size of the extinguisher
    N d. extinguishing agent and location aboard vessel

5373: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    N a. 7,099 kips
    N b. 7,134 kips
    N c. 7,151 kips
    Y d. 7,203 kips

5445: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and forward. Strong wind and high waves are from the starboard quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

    N a. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2
    Y b. failure of mooring lines 5 or 6
    N c. leak in ballast tank #2P
    N d. ballast tanks are equalizing into tank 1P

5551: Anchor shackles should have a breaking strength that is __________.

    Y a. equal to the chains they are connecting
    N b. 25% more than the chains they are connecting
    N c. 50% more than the chains they are connecting
    N d. 100% more than the chains they are connecting

5915: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system on board an offshore rig?

    N a. The fire pump
    N b. Exposed hard piping
    N c. The hydrant valve
    Y d. The fire hose

5957: On a MODU, a CO2 extinguisher is checked by __________.

    N a. reading the gage pressure
    Y b. weighing the extinguisher
    N c. discharging a small amount of CO2
    N d. seeing if the seal has been broken

6022: You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?

    N a. 1
    N b. 2
    Y c. 3
    N d. 4

6273: During a storm, the chance of fatigue failure of a mooring line will increase as __________.

    Y a. vessel motions increase
    N b. mooring tensions decrease
    N c. KG increases
    N d. KG decreases

6308: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

    N a. remain on course and hold speed
    N b. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    N c. remain on course but decrease speed
    Y d. change course and put the stern to the wind

6395: The term "lost circulation" refers to situations when drilling fluid is lost by __________.

    N a. overflowing the drill nipple
    N b. making drill string connections
    Y c. flowing into drilled formations
    N d. an overflow in the mud pits

6626: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

    N a. 11,650 tons
    N b. 11,800 tons
    Y c. 12,000 tons
    N d. 12,250 tons

6981: The emergency power system for the DEEP DRILLER should be placed in operation when the weather forecast predicts winds greater than 90 knots and when __________.

    Y a. evacuating the unit
    N b. ballasting
    N c. deballasting
    N d. unexpected list and trim exist

7053: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by __________.

    Y a. keeping an ice bag over the appendix area
    N b. giving the patient a laxative
    N c. giving the patient morphine sulfate
    N d. giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water

7105: Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.

    N a. flash point
    N b. upper explosive limit
    Y c. lower explosive limit
    N d. fire point

7843: After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?

    N a. The unit is working properly.
    N b. The face mask is not sealed properly.
    Y c. The air bottle needs to be refilled.
    N d. The air supply hose has a leak.

8165: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    Y a. pump from 2S
    N b. pump from C1S
    N c. pump from 1S
    N d. counterflood in 10P

8437: A MODU required to carry an Oil Record Book must maintain the book on board for __________.

    N a. one year
    N b. two years
    Y c. three years
    N d. four years

8685: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board. What is the new draft?

    N a. 56 feet
    N b. 58 feet
    Y c. 60 feet
    N d. 62 feet

9362: You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the __________.

    N a. compartment is closed and ventilators are opened
    N b. compartment is left open to the air
    Y c. compartment is closed and airtight
    N d. air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers