This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.
N a. invert the CO2 extinguisher N b. squeeze the two trigger handles together Y c. remove the locking pin N d. open the discharge valve 68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.
N a. having the proper equipment for the process Y b. starting the treatment quickly N c. administering of oxygen N d. treating for traumatic shock 138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.
N a. pull it out with pliers N b. cut the skin from around the hook Y c. push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook N d. have a surgeon remove it 174: If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________.
Y a. D120380 N b. D801203 N c. D031280 N d. D800312 314: The flag hoist 1.33 would be sent as __________.
N a. 1, answer pennant, 3, first substitute Y b. 1, answer pennant, 3, second substitute N c. 1, answer pennant, 3, third substitute N d. N, 1, answer pennant, 3 322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________.
N a. alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a vapor N b. absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor N c. rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor Y d. rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam 385: You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board?
N a. 25% N b. 50% N c. 75% Y d. 100% 398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.
Y a. immerse the burn in cold water N b. administer aspirin N c. apply petroleum jelly N d. apply a bandage to exclude air 411: Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than __________.
Y a. 1" N b. 1-1/4" N c. 1-1/2" N d. 2" 485: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than __________.
N a. 100 psi Y b. 150 psi N c. 200 psi N d. 250 psi 681: Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.
N a. hand portable N b. all purpose N c. fixed extinguishers Y d. semi-portable 725: You notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel. You should FIRST __________.
Y a. stop fueling N b. notify the senior deck officer N c. notify the terminal superintendent N d. determine whether your vessel is the source 762: The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________.
Y a. breaking the chain reaction N b. the CO2 that is formed by heat N c. smothering N d. shielding of radiant heat 804: You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code?
N a. MAB N b. MAD Y c. MAA N d. MAF 878: A fire in a pile of linen is a class __________.
Y a. A N b. B N c. C N d. D 881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________.
N a. attempting to set the fracture Y b. preventing further movement of the bone N c. applying a tourniquet N d. alternately applying hot and cold compresses 884: The single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, means __________.
N a. "I require a pilot" N b. "Longitude follows" Y c. "I am going ahead; follow me" N d. "Do not follow me" 923: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?
N a. 1.3 ft N b. 1.5 ft Y c. 1.7 ft N d. 1.9 ft 974: On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is __________.
N a. 2 1/2 inches nominal pipe size Y b. 1 1/2 inches nominal pipe size N c. Not specified by the Regulations N d. Large enough so it does not cause backpressure and fuel spillage 1169: Your vessel's draft is 24'-06" forward and aft. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold, which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag?
N a. 120 tons Y b. 240 tons N c. 300 tons N d. 480 tons 1238: When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?
N a. High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead N b. Straight stream directed into the center of the fire Y c. Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream N d. Solid stream directed toward the overhead 1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________.
N a. At each crew change N b. Every week N c. Every month Y d. To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies 1335: What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?
N a. The hydrostatic release N b. Nothing N c. A Rottmer release Y d. The weak link in the painter line 1496: Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use which method?
N a. Compartment standard method N b. Lost buoyancy method N c. Factor of subdivision method Y d. Added weight method 1503: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.
N a. spread apart as far as possible N b. held as tightly against your chest as possible N c. in a kneeling position Y d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles 1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The person in charge Y b. An approved servicing facility N c. Shipyard personnel N d. A certificated lifeboatman 1598: On board a small passenger vessel connections to electric conductors MUST be __________.
Y a. made within enclosures N b. served and parceled N c. installed only by a licensed marine electrician N d. Be inspected annually 1652: An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least __________.
Y a. one barrel N b. two barrels N c. five barrels N d. ten barrels 1741: The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system is __________.
N a. 4% N b. 5% Y c. 8% N d. 10% 1750: You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than __________.
Y a. 4" water gauge N b. 90% of the vacuum relief setting N c. 90% of the pressure drop through the scrubber N d. 90% of the vacuum assist fan 1980: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
N a. Dodecyl methacrylate N b. Asphalt N c. Camphor oil Y d. Latex 2055: What agency issues the Ship Station license for the VHF marine radio on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. U.S. Coast Guard N b. Department of Transportation N c. Federal Broadcast Authority Y d. Federal Communications Commission 2091: To inflate a davit launched liferaft you __________.
N a. initially connect the compressed air nozzle to the inflation tube Y b. pull the inflation lanyard N c. connect the hand pump to the inflation tube and pump it up N d. connect the helium nozzle to the inflation tube 2431: A device used to enlarge the size of an existing bore hole, having teeth arranged on its outside circumference to cut the formation as it rotates is a(n) __________.
N a. enlarger bit N b. casing bit Y c. hole opener N d. casing opener 2605: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft of amidships.
N a. FWD 22'-08", AFT 26'-00" N b. FWD 22'-10", AFT 25'-09" Y c. FWD 23'-04", AFT 26'-03" N d. FWD 23'-05", AFT 25'-11" 2663: Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.
Y a. stringers N b. side frames N c. side stiffeners N d. intercostals 2811: A vessel heading SW is on a course of __________.
N a. 202.5° Y b. 225.0° N c. 247.5° N d. 270.0° 2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
N a. positive N b. negative Y c. zero N d. vertical 3556: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.
Y a. compass N b. one 50 meter line N c. one can opener N d. All of the above 3775: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this amount of fuel?
Y a. -17,416 ft-long tons N b. -874 ft-long tons N c. 3,992 ft-long tons N d. 17,416 ft-long tons 3860: Lifejackets should be stowed in __________.
N a. the forepeaks N b. the pumproom Y c. readily accessible spaces N d. locked watertight containers 3955: The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________.
N a. week N b. two months Y c. three months N d. six months 4034: When a standard in the fire protection regulations for towing vessels is "incorporated by reference," it means that the __________.
N a. Coast Guard accepts a commercial or military standard as part of a specific regulation N b. standard is readily available to the public N c. standard, and where it can be obtained or referred to, are listed in the Code of Federal Regulations Y d. All of the above 4054: Which navigational equipment is required to be tested and logged before a towing vessel embarks on a voyage of more than 24 hours?
N a. Compass and/or swing meter N b. Radar(s) and VHF radio(s) N c. LORAN-C and/or GPS receiver(s) Y d. All required navigational equipment, without exception 4317: Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during normal transit based on __________.
Y a. leg strength N b. variable load N c. environmental load N d. load line 4357: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, which of the three leg reactions is required?
N a. Minimum N b. Average Y c. Highest N d. Preloaded value 4457: Prior to entering a davit-launched liferaft, you should make sure that __________.
Y a. the liferaft is well ventilated of excess carbon dioxide N b. all personnel have removed their life preservers to facilitate boarding N c. the door flap has been cut away and stowed inside the raft N d. All of the above 4711: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's TCG?
Y a. 0.048 foot port N b. 0.048 foot starboard N c. 1.020 feet port N d. 1.020 feet starboard 5893: The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a tug navigating independently because the __________.
Y a. speed of the tow is less N b. tow line catches the current N c. current causes yawing N d. current will offset the rig 6007: On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.
Y a. 12 months N b. 24 months N c. 36 months N d. 48 months 6505: A MODU helicopter landing deck on which fueling operations are conducted must have a fire protection system that is capable of discharging at 100 psi pressure a foam spray of at least __________.
N a. 30 gallons per minute N b. 40 gallons per minute Y c. 50 gallons per minute N d. 60 gallons per minute 6627: A cutoff valve in the fire-main system of a MODU may be closed to protect the portion of the system on an exposed deck from __________.
N a. damage from crane operations N b. being used for wash down purposes N c. accidental diversion of flow to wrong location Y d. freezing 6697: For use as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit, each MODU must be equipped with a __________.
N a. portable ventilation system N b. flame safety lamp Y c. self-contained breathing apparatus N d. gas mask 7675: To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.
N a. total weight of liquid loads Y b. total displacement N c. lightweight N d. deadweight 8561: On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.
N a. the other services are run off a reducing station with a pressure gage Y b. a separate fire pump is available for use on the fire main N c. all other services are operated by a manifold near the pump N d. All of the above 8661: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?
N a. 9S N b. 8S Y c. 10S N d. 10P 8734: All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________.
Y a. boarding and operating procedures N b. maintenance schedule N c. navigational systems N d. fuel consumption rates 8845: A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60?
N a. 17 feet 9 inches Y b. 18 feet 3 inches N c. 18 feet 9 inches N d. 21 feet 3 inches 9447: When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.
N a. free surface moments N b. righting arm Y c. height of the metacenter N d. corrected height of the center of gravity 9601: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.
N a. 1.25 feet N b. 0.90 foot Y c. 0.83 foot N d. 0.34 foot