This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
39: A flame screen __________.
Y a. permits the passage of vapor but not of flame N b. prevents the passage of flammable vapors N c. prevents inert gas from leaving a tank N d. permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank 131: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM. (See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 18.8 feet Y b. 20.9 feet N c. 22.7 feet N d. 32.0 feet 136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
Y a. Hand-portable fire extinguisher N b. Life preserver N c. Immersion suit N d. Lifeboat oar 156: The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________.
N a. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger N b. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use N c. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon Y d. Any or a combination of the above criteria 540: Of the following, the most important consideration for a tank vessel is __________.
N a. GM N b. the vertical center of gravity N c. the longitudinal center of gravity Y d. the stress on the hull 673: The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located __________.
Y a. along the turn of the bilge N b. along each side of the keel N c. near the top of the gunwale N d. at the bow and at the stern 683: The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________.
N a. make the boat float higher N b. provide a stowage place for provisions N c. add strength to the boat Y d. keep the boat afloat if flooded 739: A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of alcohol with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 30 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water, S.G. is 1.026?
N a. .36 ft N b. .46 ft Y c. .72 ft N d. .82 ft 769: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
Y a. a painter N b. red smoke flares N c. a jackknife N d. a signal mirror 845: Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within __________.
N a. 1 percent N b. 3 percent N c. 5 percent Y d. 10 percent 1058: Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?
N a. Both are higher than normal burning temperatures. N b. The flash point is always higher. Y c. The ignition temperature is always higher. N d. They are not necessarily related. 1381: Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.
N a. persons in the space wear gas masks N b. persons in the space wear damp cloths over their mouths and nostrils Y c. ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space N d. ventilation system is kept operating 1435: After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning?
N a. Scrubber Y b. Demister N c. Deck water seal N d. Final filter 1510: You are in enemy port and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter eight. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. If on a coastwise voyage along the east coast of the U.S., you should put into the nearest port. N b. You should only enter a port in the danger zone during hours of darkness. N c. When over 200 hundred miles from a port in the danger zone, you should not darken ship. Y d. You should attempt to submit an AMVER report to NSA. 1517: A double male coupling is one that __________.
N a. has left hand twist N b. has inside threads on both ends Y c. has outside threads on both ends N d. takes two men to operate 1529: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.
N a. until the end of the voyage N b. until the next Coast Guard inspection N c. one year Y d. two years 1546: What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?
N a. Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel Y b. Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier N c. Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systems N d. Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces 1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?
N a. They may be worn while working on deck but not while working over the side. Y b. They must be used only under supervision of a designated ship's officer. N c. They will be accepted for up to 10% of the required life preservers. N d. They may be worn during drills. 1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________.
N a. drowning N b. electrocution N c. poisoning Y d. All of the above 1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?
N a. Conducts electricity N b. Difficult to store N c. Large volume necessary to be effective Y d. Ineffective in powdered metal fires 1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?
N a. A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail. Y b. You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze. N c. You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet. N d. You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension. 1849: Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail?
N a. Halyard N b. Downhaul Y c. Uphaul N d. Sheet 2029: A yawl is a sailing vessel with __________.
N a. a single mast Y b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast 2075: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 28'-06", AFT 29'-10". The KG is 27.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
N a. 3.7° N b. 4.4° Y c. 5.0° N d. 6.5° 2212: In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach, the sails should be __________.
N a. lowered N b. reefed N c. hauled in Y d. eased out 2232: Your vessel is sailing on a port tack when a sudden gust of wind heels the vessel sharply to starboard. Which action will reduce the heeling of the vessel?
N a. Attempt to sail the vessel closer to the wind N b. Ease the sheets to allow air flow to spill off the sail N c. Shift weight to the port side of the vessel Y d. Any of the above 2453: A tool consisting of a handle and releasable chain used for turning pipe or fittings of a diameter larger than that which a pipe wrench would fit is called __________.
N a. breakout wrench N b. makeup tongs Y c. chain tongs N d. pipe spinner 2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.
Y a. to each side of the vessel N b. as close as possible to the house N c. on the main deck N d. on each level of the accommodation space 2773: The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be stowed in __________.
N a. the Master's quarters N b. the ship's office Y c. the radio room, bridge, or protected location N d. an unlocked cabinet next to the Muster List ("Station Bill") 2814: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-08"; and the KG is 20.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 45° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.2 feet off the centerline.
N a. 3.8 feet Y b. 4.4 feet N c. 5.2 feet N d. 5.6 feet 2849: A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
N a. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full N b. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty Y c. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full N d. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty 2959: Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?
Y a. Asphalt N b. Vinyl Chloride N c. Benzene N d. All of the above 2959: Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?
Y a. Asphalt N b. Vinyl Chloride N c. Benzene N d. All of the above 2985: For a MODU with list, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll N b. decrease Y c. increase N d. remain constant 3113: For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. decrease N c. increase N d. remain constant 3130: What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 18 inches (.5 m) high N b. 24 inches (.6 m) high Y c. 39-1/2 inches (1 m) high N d. 42 inches (1.1 m) high 3138: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)
N a. 1550 tons Y b. 2920 tons N c. 3010 tons N d. 3515 tons 3175: The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?
N a. It returns the MODU to an even keel. N b. It reduces free surface effect. Y c. It lowers the center of gravity. N d. It raises the center of gravity. 3200: Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. The removal of a watertight bulkhead N b. A minor overhaul of the propulsion machinery N c. Renewal of a FCC Certificate for a radiotelephone N d. All of the above 3263: What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?
N a. Sea water is heated to boiling temperature under a vacuum. N b. Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. Y c. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. N d. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. 3319: If you have a liquefied flammable gas barge in tow, which is NOT required of you with respect to the barge and its cargo?
N a. Make periodic inspections of bilges. N b. Keep the barge under constant surveillance. N c. Have a properly certificated tankerman or at least one licensed officer on board the towing vessel. Y d. Verify ullage readings. 3386: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
N a. Advise the sender of your course, speed, position, and ETA at the distress site. N b. Resume base course and speed because the distress is terminated. N c. Shift your radio guard to the working frequency that will be indicated in the message. Y d. Use that frequency only for restricted working communications. 3582: You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take?
N a. No action is required; the icebreaker will move out of the channel. N b. Move to the right hand side of the channel and slow to bare steerageway. Y c. Stop your headway and await further signals. N d. Slow to bare steerageway and be prepared to come ahead as the icebreaker commences escorting your vessel. 3936: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y c. Get clear of the ship. N d. Dry the liferaft floor and inflate. 4222: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0157
Y a. 273.5 ft N b. 288.8 ft N c. 292.3 ft N d. 305.3 ft 4278: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.
N a. on standby in the messroom Y b. in or near the pilothouse N c. always in the pilothouse N d. reporting to the bridge every half hour 4292: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________.
Y a. civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel N b. civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself N c. suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license N d. All of the above 4313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for leg strength and __________.
Y a. stability N b. variable load N c. environmental load N d. load line 4415: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of 9 seconds. What is the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limits of the legs in good weather?
N a. 14° N b. 11° N c. 9° Y d. 7° 4617: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case one of the two bilge pits is flooded, the other can operate through a(n)__________.
N a. six-inch line connected to the independent isolation valves to the sea chest N b. separate bilge discharge manifold N c. independent scavenger manifold Y d. crossover arrangement 4715: Sea water remaining in the preload tanks of the COASTAL DRILLER after the preload has been dumped shall be entered in the load form as __________.
N a. basic load N b. fixed load N c. preload Y d. liquid variable load 5737: Given the same water depth and line tension, the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system will be __________.
Y a. weaker N b. equal N c. greater N d. indeterminable 5756: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?
N a. 26.5 feet N b. 26.3 feet N c. 25.8 feet Y d. 25.5 feet 5824: The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of __________.
N a. stability at all angles of inclination Y b. initial stability N c. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability N d. stability at angles less than the downflooding angle 5825: The tension on an anchor cable increases so that the angle of the catenary to the seabed at the anchor reaches 10 degrees. How will this affect the anchor in sandy soil?
N a. It will have no effect. N b. It will increase the holding power. Y c. It will reduce the holding power. N d. It will cause the anchor to snag. 7395: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.
Y a. there is burning oil on the water N b. there is a rescue craft in the area N c. water temperature is below 40°F N d. a rigid survival craft is in the area 7677: Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.
N a. uncorrected KG Y b. virtual height of the center of gravity N c. metacenter N d. metacentric height 7695: Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.
N a. KM N b. GM N c. KGT Y d. KGL 8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters?
N a. Air, water, electric Y b. Air, hydraulic, electric N c. Metered, hydraulic, automatic N d. Air, emergency, hydraulic 9273: After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.
N a. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air Y b. regular checks of bilge levels N c. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise N d. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water