This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.
N a. having the proper equipment for the process Y b. starting the treatment quickly N c. administering of oxygen N d. treating for traumatic shock 114: If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
Y a. BR N b. BS N c. BT1 N d. BZ 219: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.
N a. non-displacement vessel N b. limited vessel N c. power-driven vessel Y d. vessel 358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should __________.
N a. submerge the burn area in cold water N b. make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation Y c. cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings N d. break blisters and remove dead tissue 484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________.
N a. routine message N b. urgent message N c. distress message Y d. safety message 783: A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.
N a. the line attached to the tack of the lugsail N b. the emergency rudder N c. a canvas awning Y d. the aftermost seating 834: After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".
N a. Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours Y b. Commence artificial respiration immediately N c. Give enema N d. Pass catheter into bladder 889: Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.
N a. used only under the supervision and direction of a ship's officer N b. tightly capped and stowed with other tools near the job site when securing at the end of the day N c. used only when a pressurized fire hose is laid out ready for immediate use Y d. in a metal container with a tight cap 934: The signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative" is __________.
Y a. vertical motion of the arms N b. code signal "C" sent by light or sound signaling apparatus N c. firing of a red star signal N d. None of the above 969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.
Y a. tipping center N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of gravity N d. turning center 1004: The lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here highly dangerous" is __________.
N a. firing of a white star signal Y b. firing of a red star signal N c. vertical motion of a red light N d. code letter "K" given by light or sound signaling apparatus 1203: You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take?
N a. Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow. N b. Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases. N c. Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position. Y d. Reduce the pumping rate. 1207: Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?
N a. CO2 N b. Foam N c. Dry Chemical Y d. Water 1280: On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?
Y a. Radial N b. Sheath-screw N c. Quadrantal N d. Gravity 1292: What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?
N a. Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces Y b. Danger of shock to personnel N c. The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher N d. Maintaining electrical power 1320: Fire extinguishers on inspected vessels are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.
N a. used for electrical fires only Y b. the smallest N c. the most accessible N d. the most effective 1359: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1540: Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?
Y a. Fresh water may be obtained from fish. N b. Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking water is collected. N c. Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft. N d. Seawater should never be consumed. 1613: Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.
Y a. capsize N b. run smoother N c. run faster N d. sink 1630: A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?
N a. Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container. N b. Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel. Y c. Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly. N d. Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded. 1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?
N a. There must be a designated responsible person who will be available to receive your call at anytime. Y b. There must be specific instructions for the designated responsible person to follow if your call does not come in on schedule. N c. The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule. N d. The designated responsible person should be over 18 years of age. 1734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?
N a. Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature. Y b. Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature. N c. Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature. N d. Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature. 1807: Which is standing rigging?
N a. Halyards Y b. Stays N c. Sheets N d. Downhauls 1892: What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?
N a. 8 hours N b. 2 days N c. 3 days Y d. 4 days 2012: What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?
N a. DSC provides reception of weather and navigational warnings plus search and rescue information. N b. DSC provides low-cost, routine communications for the vessel operator. Y c. DSC is to be used for transmitting and receiving distress alerts to and from other ships or coast radio stations via radio. N d. This aids SAR authorities in tracking a vessel's position by satellite. 2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
Y a. 2.4 feet (0.70 meters) N b. 2.8 feet (0.85 meters) N c. 3.0 feet (0.90 meters) N d. 3.2 feet (0.98 meters) 2093: The davit launched liferaft can be boarded __________.
N a. from the water only Y b. at the deck N c. by jumping down onto it N d. through the escape tube 2164: Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?
N a. Jettison any off-center topside weights to lower GM and correct the list. N b. Pump out any slack after double-bottom tanks to reduce free surface and increase freeboard aft. N c. Pump out the after peak and fill the forepeak to change the trim. Y d. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty. 2199: Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
N a. 1.62 feet Y b. 1.85 feet N c. 2.10 feet N d. 2.46 feet 2443: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0063
N a. 4.0 feet N b. 5.6 feet N c. 6.0 feet Y d. 6.8 feet 2571: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?
Y a. Close up the entrances. N b. Top up the buoyancy tubes. N c. Prepare for the arrival of rescue units. N d. Decide on food and water rations. 2674: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 2 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
N a. 76 Y b. 67 N c. 60 N d. 52 2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.
N a. empty Y b. fully ballasted N c. partially ballasted N d. sealed 2768: Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 12 passengers N b. 50 passengers Y c. 6 passengers N d. 1 passenger 2821: A vessel heading SE is on a course of __________.
N a. 112.5° Y b. 135.0° N c. 157.5° N d. 180.0° 2846: A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________.
N a. 6 months Y b. 12 months N c. 36 months N d. 60 months 2970: An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________.
N a. air bottle for breathing N b. orange smoke canister Y c. whistle, light and retroreflective material N d. sea dye marker 3074: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom (capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 6° Y b. 8° N c. 10° N d. 12° 3109: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0106
Y a. 3.9 feet N b. 4.3 feet N c. 4.7 feet N d. 5.1 feet 3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.
N a. stabilize at an angle of loll Y b. decrease N c. increase N d. remain constant 3188: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.
N a. asphyxiation from CO2 N b. loss of air in the sides of the raft N c. rough seas Y d. cold water temperatures 3247: A semisubmersible with displacement of 19,700 long tons and KG of 50.96 feet loads 300 long tons of barite into P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?
N a. 0.79 foot upward N b. 1.00 foot upward Y c. 1.04 feet upward N d. 1.83 feet upward 3346: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. Which action occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?
Y a. The sea anchor is deployed. N b. The floor inflates. N c. If upside down, the raft will right itself. N d. The painter detaches from the raft. 3449: How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
N a. 12 Y b. 14 N c. 18 N d. 24 3573: The DEEP DRILLER in transit is level at 23.0 feet draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determines that the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. What is the value of the wind heeling moment?
N a. 4,339 foot-long tons Y b. 26,033 foot-long tons N c. 39,050 foot-long tons N d. 78,099 foot-long tons 3689: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.
Y a. without losing the rhythm of respiration N b. only with the help of two other people N c. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes N d. at ten-minute intervals 3859: When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?
N a. When it is approved by the Coast Guard N b. When working near or over the water N c. When stowed away from the ring buoys Y d. A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket. 3922: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
N a. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. N b. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated. N c. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. Y d. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop. 4068: On board an OSV, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.
N a. switching to hydraulic steering N b. a dedicated crew N c. good equipment Y d. good communication 4511: The height of the transverse metacenter of the Coastal Driller at a displacement of 13,050 kips is __________.
N a. 143.81 feet N b. 144.61 feet Y c. 144.93 feet N d. 145.73 feet 4633: On the COASTAL DRILLER, when afloat, oily bilge discharge should be pumped through the __________.
N a. overboard discharge N b. dump valves Y c. skimmer tanks N d. raw water header 6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.
Y a. the name of the person conducting the test N b. the weight of the charge N c. recommendations for the next test N d. All of the above 7073: Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?
N a. Back injuries N b. Major multiple fractures Y c. Suspension of breathing N d. Burns 8187: The maximum variable load for the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated in a severe storm is __________.
Y a. 2,381 kips N b. 3,381 kips N c. 7,099 kips N d. 21,297 kips 8535: You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.
Y a. increase N b. decrease N c. stop N d. stabilize 8655: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped on the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10S has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.
N a. deballast from tank 9P N b. dump the mud N c. counterflood into 2P Y d. place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 10S 8675: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons. What is the new draft?
N a. 56 feet Y b. 58 feet N c. 60 feet N d. 62 feet 8891: Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
N a. U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA) N b. Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA) N c. Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) Y d. Pressure-Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) 9067: The TCG of a vessel may be found by dividing the displacement of the vessel into the __________.
N a. transverse center of gravity of the vessel N b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel Y c. sum of the transverse moments of the vessel N d. transverse baseline of the vessel 9431: Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.
N a. BL N b. GMT N c. FSCT Y d. KG