USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


194: Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?


217: Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test?


381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?


502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________.

    N a. be kept as high and as far inboard as possible
    N b. not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to another
    N c. have some means to make them watertight
    Y d. All of the above

582: Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.

    N a. in a freezer
    Y b. in a cool dry place
    N c. at a temperature not less than 80°F
    N d. in open bins

685: The operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation must keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for __________.

    N a. 10 days
    Y b. 1 month
    N c. 6 months
    N d. 1 year

738: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

    N a. put the wind off either beam
    Y b. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed
    N c. put the stern into the wind and increase speed
    N d. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed

743: In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.

    N a. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne
    Y b. the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
    N c. there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube
    N d. the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise

854: If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?

    N a. MVP
    N b. MPH
    Y c. MPF
    N d. MSO

886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?

    Y a. Two
    N b. Three
    N c. Four
    N d. Five

1008: A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________.

    Y a. gently flooding with water
    N b. warming the eye with moist warm packs
    N c. laying the person flat on his back
    N d. mineral oil drops directly on the eye

1047: The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire is that it __________.

    Y a. breaks up and cools the fire
    N b. protects the firefighting crew
    N c. removes the oxygen
    N d. washes the fire away

1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.

    N a. before the gripes are released
    N b. before the boat is moved from the davits
    Y c. at the embarkation deck
    N d. after the boat is in the water

1105: In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?

    N a. Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position
    N b. As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head
    N c. After the limit switch is activated
    Y d. After all people have been embarked

1195: The command "Oars" means to __________.

    N a. lift the oars to a vertical position
    Y b. complete the stroke and bring the oars horizontal, blades feathered
    N c. place the oars in the boat with blades forward
    N d. place the oars in the rowlocks directly from the boated position

1213: When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle, the __________.

    N a. centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line
    Y b. righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment
    N c. center of buoyancy remains the same
    N d. deck-edge immersion occurs

1221: Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits?

    N a. Loading
    Y b. Discharging
    N c. Crude oil washing
    N d. Steaming tanks

1230: The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________.

    N a. control the fore and aft motion of a lifeboat during lowering
    N b. control the outboard swing of a lifeboat during lowering
    N c. provide suspensions for the manropes
    Y d. hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading

1278: An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.

    N a. carbon dioxide
    N b. Halon 1301
    N c. dry chemical
    Y d. water fog

1339: The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, the danger angle for a permanent list would be about __________.

    N a. 8.5°
    Y b. 17°
    N c. 34°
    N d. 51°

1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

    N a. A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.
    N b. Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities.
    N c. You should always wear a gas mask.
    Y d. After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside.

1613: Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

    Y a. capsize
    N b. run smoother
    N c. run faster
    N d. sink

1718: You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. This swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals, would be described as __________.

    N a. rough
    Y b. moderate
    N c. high
    N d. confused

1734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

    N a. Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature.
    Y b. Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature.
    N c. Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.
    N d. Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature.

1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

    Y a. one mast
    N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast

1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________.

    N a. on a close reach
    Y b. on a broad reach
    N c. on a starboard tack
    N d. running before the wind

2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft.

    Y a. FWD 18'-09", AFT 22'-01"
    N b. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-01"
    N c. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-08"
    N d. FWD 19'-01", AFT 21'-04"

2218: The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

    N a. floodable length
    N b. factor of subdivision
    N c. compartment standard
    Y d. permissible length

2316: The flammable limits for motor gasoline are __________.

    N a. 5.3% to 7% mixture in air
    N b. 0.9% to 5.9% mixture in air
    Y c. 1.4% to 7.6% mixture in air
    N d. 2.5% to 12.8% mixture in air

2375: An entry of water, gas, oil, or other formation fluid into the wellbore is called a __________.

    N a. blowout
    Y b. kick
    N c. gusher
    N d. flow

2658: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

    N a. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
    N b. also turns to starboard
    N c. turns counterclockwise to port
    Y d. remains aligned with compass north

2721: You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

    N a. slack the foresail sheet
    N b. slack the fore-staysail sheet
    N c. slack the jib sheet
    Y d. slack the main sheet

2923: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0088

    N a. Available GM 4.01 ft
    Y b. Available GM 4.16 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.69 ft
    N d. Available GM 4.81 ft

3157: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.

    N a. C1S
    Y b. 9S
    N c. 9P
    N d. 2P

3291: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 18,117.7 long tons and a KG of 52.0 feet discharges 200 long tons from a KG of 130 feet. To remain at draft, ballast is added at a height of 10 feet. What is the change in KG?

    Y a. 1.32 feet downward
    N b. 1.32 feet upward
    N c. 0.87 foot downward
    N d. 0.87 foot upward

3557: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are less than 70 knots?

    N a. 912,120 foot-tons
    N b. 933,124 foot-tons
    N c. 996,529 foot-tons
    Y d. 998,929 foot-tons

3602: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 25'-06". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    N a. Tanks: DB3, DB4
    N b. Tanks: DB5, DT6
    Y c. Tanks: DB2, DB5
    N d. Tanks: DB2, DB6, DB7

3614: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    N a. Resume base course and speed because the distress situation is over.
    N b. Do not transmit over the radiotelephone.
    N c. Relay the initial distress message to the nearest shore station.
    Y d. Resume normal communications on the guarded frequency.

3636: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0144

    N a. 3.15 feet
    Y b. 3.00 feet
    N c. 2.90 feet
    N d. 2.80 feet

3685: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

    N a. the failure of mooring lines 6 and 7
    N b. the drilling crew dumping the mud
    N c. the drill string breaking
    Y d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10S

3695: In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be __________.

    N a. tightened
    N b. slacked slightly
    Y c. completely slacked
    N d. adjusted to give the same line tensions as the windward lines

3713: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface corrections is __________.

    N a. 1.25 feet
    N b. 0.90 foot
    N c. 0.84 foot
    Y d. 0.22 foot

3891: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a survival craft?

    Y a. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required.
    N b. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the only distress signals required.
    N c. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provided.
    N d. A Very pistol with twelve flares is required.

3911: For the DEEP DRILLER, it is recommended that the number of lower-hull ballast tanks with free surfaces be less than __________.

    N a. 2
    N b. 4
    Y c. 6
    N d. 8

3995: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the Stores & Supplies if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?

    Y a. 13,346 foot-tons
    N b. 5,054 foot-tons
    N c. 964 foot-tons
    N d. 292 foot-tons

4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?

    N a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area.
    N b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port.
    N c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing.
    Y d. All of the above

4497: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at the load line draft. It discharges 279.93 kips of weight. The new draft is __________.

    N a. 10.88 feet
    N b. 10.8 feet
    N c. 10.0 feet
    Y d. 10 feet 8 inches

4847: The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.

    N a. pressure differences in the atmosphere
    N b. the length of the hose attached to the facepiece
    Y c. the physical exertion of the person wearing the device
    N d. spaces containing poisonous vapors

5095: Who has the ultimate responsibility for the safety of a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is being towed to a new location?

    Y a. The rig mover
    N b. The Pilot
    N c. The marine surveyor
    N d. The Offshore Installation Manager

5487: A measurement device for inspecting anchor chain is the __________.

    N a. slide rule
    Y b. go-no-go gauge
    N c. derrick tape
    N d. amp probe

7635: At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

    N a. maximum
    N b. negative
    N c. positive, but reflexive
    Y d. zero

8054: A thrust block is designed to __________.

    N a. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller
    Y b. transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel
    N c. absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow
    N d. be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration

8407: If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should __________.

    Y a. discharge a CO2 extinguisher in the air inlet
    N b. pull off the distributor cap
    N c. secure the jacket water
    N d. secure the starting air supply valve

8875: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Excessive motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?

    N a. 6.23 feet
    N b. 5.11 feet
    N c. 4.86 feet
    Y d. 4.06 feet

8917: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 17 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 8S by pumping from tank 9S and opening valves 18 and __________.

    N a. 35
    N b. 21
    Y c. 20
    N d. 17

9347: CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?

    N a. 80%
    N b. 85%
    Y c. 90%
    N d. 95%

9365: When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.

    Y a. operated continuously while vapors may be present
    N b. operated intermittently to remove vapors
    N c. available on standby for immediate use
    N d. shut down if an explosive mixture is present

9432: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

    Y a. green
    N b. white
    N c. red
    N d. yellow

9481: The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.

    N a. trim
    Y b. change of trim
    N c. final trim
    N d. change of draft

9682: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

    N a. 15 minutes
    Y b. 30 minutes
    N c. 45 minutes
    N d. 60 minutes