USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


103: You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________.


336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed __________.


369: A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. What will be the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface, with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?


411: Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than __________.

    Y a. 1"
    N b. 1-1/4"
    N c. 1-1/2"
    N d. 2"

442: On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is all the way forward is __________.

    Y a. shut
    N b. fog
    N c. solid stream
    N d. spray

482: The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle should always be __________.

    Y a. attached by a chain
    N b. coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
    N c. painted red for identity as emergency equipment
    N d. stored in the clip at each fire station

616: Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.

    N a. 6 times the diameter of the wire rope
    N b. 8 times the diameter of the wire rope
    N c. 12 times the diameter of the wire rope
    Y d. 16 times the diameter of the wire rope

688: Which may ignite fuel vapors?

    N a. Static electricity
    N b. An open and running motor
    N c. Loose wiring
    Y d. All of the above

705: Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST?

    N a. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.
    N b. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill.
    Y c. Signal the shore control point to shut down.
    N d. Close the valve on the tank vent line.

832: Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical extinguisher?

    Y a. You should direct the stream at the base of the fire.
    N b. You should direct the stream directly into the fire.
    N c. You should direct the stream at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire.
    N d. All of the above

855: The term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, means the __________.

    N a. length of any individual cargo space, from bulkhead to bulkhead
    N b. greatest distance between two opposite cargo tank bulkheads
    N c. diagonal measurement of a cargo tank
    Y d. length from the forward bulkhead of the forwardmost cargo tanks to the after bulkhead of the aftermost cargo tanks

891: On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be __________.

    Y a. obtained from the engine's cooling water system or from a separate engine-driven pump
    N b. chemically treated to prevent corrosion
    N c. flushed and changed periodically
    N d. obtained from a fresh water storage tank or an expansion tank

978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?

    N a. It will explode if exposed to a flame.
    Y b. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal.
    N c. It will burn rapidly once ignited.
    N d. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride.

1002: How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?

    N a. Point the horn down.
    N b. Turn cylinder upside-down.
    N c. Break the rupture disc.
    Y d. Pull pin, squeeze grip.

1125: What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?

    N a. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
    Y b. Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
    N c. Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat.
    N d. Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind about broad on the quarter of your ship.

1146: Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?

    Y a. An oceangoing vessel of 140 GT
    N b. A coastwise vessel of 550 GT
    N c. An river-going vessel of 760 GT
    N d. All of the above

1179: Storage batteries on "T-Boats" must be located __________.

    N a. in sight of the main engine(s)
    Y b. in a tray lined with suitable material that resists damage from the electrolyte
    N c. in locked closets with restricted ventilation
    N d. near the bilge to lower the center of gravity and improve stability

1210: The tricing pendants should be released __________.

    N a. before the gripes are removed
    N b. before loading the passengers
    Y c. after loading the passengers
    N d. after the boat is afloat

1238: When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?

    N a. High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead
    N b. Straight stream directed into the center of the fire
    Y c. Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream
    N d. Solid stream directed toward the overhead

1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

    N a. compression stress
    N b. racking stress
    N c. shear stress
    Y d. tension stress

1713: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.

    N a. during a rain storm
    Y b. in an explosive atmosphere
    N c. near a liferaft canister
    N d. by other than licensed officers

1725: The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.

    N a. running or jumping to increase circulation
    N b. raising body temperature rapidly by placing hands and feet in hot water
    Y c. bundling the body in blankets to rewarm gradually
    N d. laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly

1887: When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.

    N a. one month before the anniversary date of the plan
    N b. six months before the end of the approval period
    Y c. and cannot be implemented without approval
    N d. and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submission

1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________.

    Y a. on a close reach on a port tack
    N b. close hauled on a starboard tack
    N c. on a broad reach on a port tack
    N d. on a beam reach on a starboard tack

2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?

    N a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency.
    Y b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.
    N c. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70.
    N d. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.

2397: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

    N a. monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode
    N b. reading all displays and/or printouts after silencing an alarm
    N c. notifying the Master of any distress alerts
    Y d. All of the above

2458: To find the product Valeral in the Chemical Data Guide, you would have to look up the product __________.

    N a. Acrylic acid
    N b. iso-Valeraldehyde
    Y c. n-Valeraldehyde
    N d. Vinyl acetate

2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the __________.

    N a. vertical position
    Y b. horizontal position
    N c. boom stop angle
    N d. minimum radius angle

2618: What would NOT be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?

    N a. Dry chemical
    N b. CO2
    N c. Foam
    Y d. Water

2750: According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of __________.

    Y a. 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
    N b. one half the designed working pressure
    N c. 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring
    N d. 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer

2757: A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the __________.

    Y a. areas where special materials are used
    N b. hazardous areas
    N c. location of emergency repair equipment
    N d. type and strength of materials used

2830: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 14° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 13'-01", AFT 13'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

    Y a. -0.7 foot
    N b. -0.4 foot
    N c. -0.3 foot
    N d. -0.1 foot

3074: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom (capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 6°
    Y b. 8°
    N c. 10°
    N d. 12°

3126: A cargo information card does NOT contain __________.

    N a. instructions for the safe handling of the cargo
    N b. appearance and odor characteristics of the cargo
    N c. precautions to be observed in case of a spill or leak
    Y d. duties of the person in charge during the transfer of cargo

3259: Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?

    N a. To keep visitors away from the barge
    N b. To prohibit smoking
    N c. To prohibit open lights
    Y d. All of the above

3278: Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.

    N a. to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks
    N b. to the top so the operator is certain how much fuel he has aboard
    N c. with only sufficient fuel for the planned trip so excess gasoline is not carried
    Y d. to near the top with some space allowed for gasoline expansion

3286: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0119

    N a. 270.6 ft
    N b. 261.2 ft
    Y c. 250.5 ft
    N d. 246.8 ft

3450: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?

    Y a. End-for-ended
    N b. Renewed
    N c. Inspected
    N d. Weight tested

3498: Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys required for the vessel is __________.

    N a. 2
    Y b. 4
    N c. 6
    N d. 8

3540: How should the letter "R" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    Y a. ROW ME OH
    N b. AR AH
    N c. ROA MA O
    N d. AR EE

3738: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

    Y a. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
    N b. administer a liquid stimulant
    N c. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
    N d. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness

3811: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this amount of fuel?

    N a. -17,416 ft-long tons
    N b. -874 ft-long tons
    Y c. 3,992 ft-long tons
    N d. 17,416 ft-long tons

3980: In the illustration shown, the pressure relief valve is indicated as item number __________. (D014SA )

    N a. 3
    Y b. 4
    N c. 9
    N d. 11

4143: While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What would be the new draft?

    Y a. 56.69 feet
    N b. 58.14 feet
    N c. 59.14 feet
    N d. 63.31 feet

4305: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on location?

    N a. 45 feet
    Y b. 95 feet
    N c. 145 feet
    N d. 245 feet

5725: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain in comparison to the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.

    N a. longer
    N b. identical
    Y c. shorter
    N d. indeterminable

5727: Given the same water depth and line tension, the length of the ground cable of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain compared to the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/ft wire rope mooring line will be __________.

    N a. indeterminable
    N b. identical
    N c. shorter
    Y d. longer

5903: The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is __________.

    N a. 30 seconds on/30 seconds off alternating signal
    N b. continuous ringing of general alarm signal
    Y c. intermittent ringing of general alarm for not less than 10 seconds
    N d. announced over PA system

6003: The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU is __________.

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    N a. Once a week
    N b. Once a month
    Y c. Once a year
    N d. During each drill

6585: When weight-testing a davit launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the deadweight equivalent for each person in the allowed capacity of the raft is __________.

    N a. 155 pounds
    Y b. 165 pounds
    N c. 175 pounds
    N d. 185 pounds

6624: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is ___________,

    N a. red
    N b. white
    Y c. green
    N d. red

6707: The immersion suit requirements apply to MODU's operating in all waters above __________.

    N a. 20°N and below 25°S
    N b. 25°N and below 30°S
    N c. 23°N and below 23°S
    Y d. 32°N and below 32°S

6793: The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________.

    N a. Master, or person in charge
    Y b. Chief Engineer, or engineer in charge if no chief engineer is required
    N c. senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior mechanic designated
    N d. senior electrician, or electrician on duty if no senior electrician designated

8071: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total environmental force would be __________.

    Y a. 620 kips
    N b. 595 kips
    N c. 475 kips
    N d. 425 kips

8221: What is the purpose of a vent header?

    N a. Prevents entry of water into vent systems
    N b. Prevents passage of flame into fuel tanks
    N c. Catches overflow
    Y d. Combines individual vent lines into a main

8625: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?

    Y a. 0.94 foot starboard of centerline
    N b. 0.90 foot starboard of centerline
    N c. 0.47 foot port of centerline
    N d. 0.23 foot port of centerline

8903: The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.

    N a. apply ointment to the burned area
    Y b. flood the affected area with water
    N c. wrap the burn with sterile dressing
    N d. apply an ice pack to the burned area

8917: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 17 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 8S by pumping from tank 9S and opening valves 18 and __________.

    N a. 35
    N b. 21
    Y c. 20
    N d. 17

9662: Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?

    N a. The compartment must be properly ventilated.
    N b. The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F.
    Y c. The door must be kept unlocked.
    N d. The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable.