This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
50: What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?
N a. Bending moments Y b. Initial stability N c. Draft N d. Trim 89: To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________.
N a. American Bureau of Shipping classification rules Y b. International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea N c. Safety of Life at Sea Convention N d. Minerals Management Service rules 216: What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?
N a. 4 Y b. 7 N c. 10 N d. 11 274: The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2, __________.
N a. answering pennant, first substitute Y b. answering pennant, second substitute N c. space, second substitute N d. answering pennant, third substitute 290: What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
Y a. The GM will increase. N b. The metacenter will move upward. N c. The center of buoyancy will move upward. N d. All of the above 373: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.
N a. shifting the rudder constantly N b. moving all personnel forward and low N c. moving all personnel aft Y d. rigging a sea anchor 383: The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to __________.
N a. aid in casting off N b. direct the drift of the vessel Y c. aid in its recovery N d. maintain maximum resistance to broaching 421: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.
N a. 24 hours N b. 36 hours Y c. 48 hours N d. Monday, Wednesday, and Friday 556: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.
N a. 6 months Y b. year N c. 18 months N d. two years 600: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.
N a. initial stability N b. free surface Y c. stability at large angles of inclination N d. permeability 809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.
N a. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation N b. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth N c. switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation Y d. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation 1088: The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________.
Y a. at which a liquid will give off flammable vapors N b. at which a liquid will burn steadily N c. at which a liquid will explode N d. that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily 1367: Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity of the fuel oil is .85 and the ship is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026).
N a. .83 N b. 42.7 Y c. 3787 N d. 4571 1422: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists should __________.
N a. be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery Y b. have a guard over the gearing N c. be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing N d. not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery 1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1487: A vessel's heavy displacement is 24,500 tons with light displacement of 13,300 tons. Fully loaded it carries 300 tons of fuel and stores. What is the vessel's deadweight?
N a. 10,900 tons Y b. 11,200 tons N c. 13,000 tons N d. 24,200 tons 1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?
N a. Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process. Y b. The threads on the male end are protected by the hose. N c. Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings. N d. Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose. 1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?
Y a. Firing of a green star signal N b. Firing of a red star signal N c. An orange smoke signal N d. Three white star rockets at 1-minute intervals 1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?
N a. A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail. Y b. You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze. N c. You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet. N d. You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension. 1781: Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?
N a. 406 MHz via EPIRB N b. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via INMARSAT N c. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies Y d. All of the above 1837: Each liferaft, which does not have an indicated maximum stowage height indicated on the liferaft, must be __________.
N a. limited to carry no more than 10 persons Y b. stowed not more than 59 feet above the lightest waterline N c. stowed in quick release racks N d. inspected every six months 1927: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of inclined ladders which must be fitted between each weather deck is __________.
Y a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 2058: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?
N a. crude oil washing N b. Loading N c. discharging Y d. All of the above 2088: If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once every __________.
N a. 3 months Y b. 6 months N c. year N d. 2 years 2108: Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?
N a. A cargo handling room N b. A space in which cargo hose is stored N c. An enclosed space containing cargo piping Y d. All of the above 2370: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flammable limits of ethylene oxide are __________.
N a. 1.85 - 48.0% Y b. 2 - 100% N c. 2.7 - 34% N d. 1.9 - 88.0% 2434: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 24,960 foot-tons N b. 22,870 foot-tons N c. 20,360 foot-tons Y d. 18,240 foot-tons 2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower?
N a. 2 N b. 3 Y c. 4 N d. 5 2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.
N a. empty Y b. fully ballasted N c. partially ballasted N d. sealed 2889: Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Watertight. N b. Grounded to the main engine on a wooden hulled boat. Y c. The dead-front type, totally enclosed N d. Equipped with switch locks 2947: A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.
N a. 8,929 long tons N b. 19,509 long tons Y c. 20,000 long tons N d. 24,500 long tons 3381: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?
Y a. 57.5 feet N b. 59.5 feet N c. 60.5 feet N d. 62.5 feet 3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the __________.
Y a. identity N b. time of origin N c. reply N d. procedure code 3569: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should __________.
N a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out N b. steer a course for the nearest land N c. steer a course for the nearest sea lane Y d. shut down the engines if installed and put out the sea anchor 3625: The DEEP DRILLER is on location during a storm. Windward anchor tensions begin to exceed the test tensions. To reduce tensions while minimizing offset over the well, you should __________.
N a. increase tension on the leeward chain N b. pay out more chain on the windward side Y c. reduce tension on the leeward chains N d. connect an emergency tow wire to the work boat 3626: When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________.
Y a. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing N b. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability N c. remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer N d. take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling 3792: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0147
N a. 3.10 feet Y b. 2.45 feet N c. 2.00 feet N d. 1.50 feet 3932: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
N a. Open the equipment pack. N b. Inflate the liferaft floor. N c. Decide on food and water rations. Y d. Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel. 3939: You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?
Y a. Cut the painter. N b. Operate the radio equipment. N c. Open the equipment pack. N d. Ventilate the liferaft of CO2. 4078: When shifting to a course where the wind comes more from astern, easing the mainsheet will __________.
N a. bring the boom more fore and aft N b. decrease the force needed to haul on the mainsheet N c. bring the head of the sail down from the top of the mast Y d. allow the sail to catch more wind 4096: Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning radio equipment on towing vessels of 26 feet or more in length?
N a. The vessel must have a ship-radio-station license issued by the FCC. N b. Each radio operator must hold an FCC-issued restricted operator's license, or higher. N c. Maintain a continuous listening watch on VHF channel 16 and the bridge-to-bridge channel. Y d. All of the above. 4238: You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Either an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system Y b. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system N c. An approved water mist fire protection system and a fixed CO2 fire-extinguishing system N d. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and an approved water mist fire protection system 4283: When underway at a draft of 10.5 feet in a severe storm, the COASTAL DRILLER has a maximum allowed KG of __________.
Y a. 40 feet N b. 50 feet N c. 55 feet N d. 65 feet 4363: Scouring is the result of __________.
Y a. interruption of the normal current flow by the footing N b. elevating in mud-slide zones N c. penetrating rapidly through a hard crust into weaker soils N d. extracting legs from soils with high cohesion 4791: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds remain less than 70 knots?
Y a. 0 kips N b. 200 kips N c. 600 kips N d. 1,000 kips 4793: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds increase to greater than 70 knots, and the TOC is changed to the recommended value?
N a. 0.0 foot Y b. 1.0 foot N c. 37.0 feet N d. 38.0 feet 5154: The sea anchor shown as item number 14 will NOT __________. (D014SA )
N a. check the liferaft's way N b. keep the liferaft end on to the sea N c. reduce the possibility of capsizing or broaching Y d. right the raft if it inflates inverted 5694: What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?
N a. This is the call sign of a vessel registered in Latvia. Y b. Is anchoring prohibited? N c. Will you lead me to a safe anchorage? N d. Interrogative 5961: A CO2 extinguisher on a MODU which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.
N a. used at the earliest opportunity N b. hydro-tested Y c. recharged N d. weighed again in one month 6665: On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.
Y a. posted with instructions on the operation of the system N b. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches N c. painted with red and black diagonal stripes N d. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting 6757: On Offshore Drilling units, in addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth location, life jackets must be stowed at each work station and __________.
N a. the mess room N b. each lifeboat Y c. each industrial work site N d. each fire station 8211: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the minimum total weight shall not be less than __________.
N a. 21,497 kips Y b. 21,297 kips N c. 17,700 kips N d. 14,400 kips 8311: High concentrations of H2S gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.
N a. cause involuntary muscle contractions Y b. paralyze your breathing system N c. cause eye inflammation N d. cause dizziness 8347: All diesel engines are classified as __________.
N a. four cycle Y b. compression ignition N c. vacuum ignition N d. external combustion 8537: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. satisfactory, keep the unit at transit draft N b. satisfactory, put the unit in standby Y c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 8587: The person assigned to command a lifeboat or inflatable liferaft on a MODU shall have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat or liferaft. The list shall include each person's __________.
N a. home address Y b. duties N c. home phone number N d. nearest relative's address 8775: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected forward inclination. The wind and waves are light from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 2 and 3 N b. drilling crew has dumped the mud Y c. the drill string has broken N d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1P 8897: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.
N a. Maritime Advisory Council Y b. International Maritime Organization N c. International Association of Shipping N d. Association of Seafaring Nations 9342: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?
Y a. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated. N b. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. N c. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification. N d. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper. 9701: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
Y a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. N b. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas. N c. The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems. N d. All of the above