This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the __________.
N a. Master N b. Chief Mate Y c. Chief Engineer N d. First Assistant 170: In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.
N a. maximize your deck load N b. distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per unit of weight are in the upper holds Y c. place the heaviest woods in the lower holds N d. keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber 238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.
N a. the bone has been set Y b. the fracture is immobilized N c. radio advice has been obtained N d. the wound has been washed 257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
N a. A sailing vessel N b. A fishing vessel Y c. A non self-propelled vessel in tow N d. A towing vessel 391: Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.
Y a. it provides cooling as a secondary effect N b. works well on extinguishing electrical fires N c. can be used to combat combustible metal fires N d. All of the above 397: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.
Y a. within a few hours before or after departure N b. prior to departure N c. within 24 hours of departure N d. within 12 hours of departure 506: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.
N a. examining the Certificate of Inspection Y b. examining the plate on the outside of the raft container N c. referring to the Muster List ("Station Bill") N d. referring to the shipping articles 602: What does "EPIRB" stand for?
N a. Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy N b. Electronic Pulse Indicating Radio beacon Y c. Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon N d. None of the above 609: Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB?
N a. A coastwise vessel whose route does not take it more than three miles from shore N b. A vessel operating on lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers N c. A vessel operating within three miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes Y d. All of the above 622: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.
N a. lower ballast tanks are filled with water Y b. passengers are strapped to their seats N c. sea anchor is deployed to windward N d. fuel tanks are not less than half full 669: You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. Aerosol cans of engine starting fluid must be stowed in either the paint locker or portable magazine after receipt. N b. Drugs and medicines must be stowed in accordance with the directives of the Food and Drug Administration. N c. Flammable ship's stores must be certified for use on inspected vessels by Underwriter's Laboratories. Y d. Properly labeled consumer commodities need not be labeled in accordance with Title 46 CFR. 1420: Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted by an inert gas system is TRUE?
N a. The maximum pressure permitted is 8 psi. Y b. A positive pressure should be maintained at all times. N c. The pressure must remain within the limits of +5 psi to -1 psi. N d. None of the above 1989: What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat?
N a. Half-hitches then a round turn N b. One round turn N c. A series of half-hitches Y d. A round turn, figure eights, and a half-hitch 2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 22 tons N b. 48 tons Y c. 94 tons N d. 239 tons 2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 22 tons N b. 48 tons Y c. 94 tons N d. 239 tons 2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )
N a. 14.8 tons N b. 18.0 tons Y c. 25.0 tons N d. 32.0 tons 2192: Your vessel displaces 689 tons and measures 123'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 65'Lx 31'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 62 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?
N a. 5.51 feet N b. 5.67 feet N c. 5.89 feet Y d. 6.14 feet 2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________.
N a. EPIRB Y b. inflatable liferaft N c. life float N d. buoyant apparatus 2376: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 24'-06". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 1676 tons 18 feet forward of amidships Y b. 1676 tons 18 feet forward of the tipping center N c. 1972 tons 16 feet forward of amidships N d. 1972 tons 16 feet forward of the tipping center 2391: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting services, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.
N a. check valve installed in the line Y b. shut off valve at a manifold near the pump N c. quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump N d. regulator in the line set at 125 psi 2443: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0063
N a. 4.0 feet N b. 5.6 feet N c. 6.0 feet Y d. 6.8 feet 2487: The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the __________.
Y a. outer barrel of the telescoping joint N b. inner barrel of the telescoping joint N c. marine riser connector N d. ball joint 2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF?
N a. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. Y b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. N c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. N d. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. 2695: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.
N a. be the first individual to board the craft N b. drain the hydraulic pressure before lowering the craft Y c. have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat N d. All of the above 2869: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.
N a. be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery Y b. have a guard over the gearing N c. be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing N d. not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery 2999: The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless __________.
N a. the pumproom is gas-free N b. spaces with bulkheads common to the pumproom are either gas-free, inert, filled with water, or contain grade E liquid N c. all other compartments in which flammable vapors and gases may exist are closed and secured Y d. All of the above 3063: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?
N a. 48 N b. 36 Y c. 24 N d. 12 3131: Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.
N a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots N b. before collision Y c. after flooding N d. at survival draft 3206: Your tow contains a barge carrying carbon tetrachloride. What is NOT required?
N a. Cargo warning signs on barge N b. Cargo information card on barge N c. Cargo information card in pilothouse Y d. Certificated tankerman on towboat 3235: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.
N a. 1.09 feet N b. 1.60 feet Y c. 1.58 feet N d. 2.73 feet 3235: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.
N a. 1.09 feet N b. 1.60 feet Y c. 1.58 feet N d. 2.73 feet 3282: What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry grade B petroleum products?
N a. Gooseneck vents only N b. Gooseneck vents with flame screens Y c. Individual pressure-vacuum relief valves with flame screens N d. Straight vents with flame screens 3381: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?
Y a. 57.5 feet N b. 59.5 feet N c. 60.5 feet N d. 62.5 feet 3519: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the ending, and the __________.
N a. reply Y b. text N c. time N d. answer 3695: In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be __________.
N a. tightened N b. slacked slightly Y c. completely slacked N d. adjusted to give the same line tensions as the windward lines 3773: What is the ullage in P-Tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the weight is 75.24 long tons?
Y a. 4.0 feet N b. 5.0 feet N c. 10.2 feet N d. 16.0 feet 3862: In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.
N a. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces N b. may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency Y c. should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency N d. All of the above 3935: To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using the #2 bilge pump, open port-side valve __________.
N a. 28 N b. 36 N c. 41 Y d. 42 3965: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse and longitudinal free surface moments for entry into the daily load form are obtained __________.
Y a. from tank tables N b. by multiplying displacement by the free surface correction N c. by dividing by displacement N d. by dividing by the free surface correction 4022: Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station?
Y a. Twin-screw vessels that have operating station control for both engines N b. Vessels on limited routes N c. Fleet boats making or breaking tows N d. Vessels serving a single company or facility 4051: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting list angle?
N a. 2.11 degrees to port N b. 1.43 degrees to starboard Y c. 2.87 degrees to starboard N d. 3.02 degrees to starboard 4160: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.
N a. 0.9 feet Y b. 2.1 feet N c. 4.0 feet N d. 5.9 feet 4237: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the limits in the hook setback conductor tension, and __________.
N a. wind loads N b. wave loads N c. current loads Y d. rotary loads 4242: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat should __________.
N a. be the first individual to board the craft N b. drain the hydraulic pressure before lowering the craft Y c. have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat N d. All of the above 4261: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 34 feet aft of the transom and 2 feet to port of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.
N a. 1000 kips N b. 875 kips Y c. 854 kips N d. 776 kips 4345: What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?
N a. Soil conditions N b. Overturning moment Y c. Water depth N d. Specific gravity of the sea water 4555: The COASTAL DRILLER at a draft of 10.5 feet, transfers a portion of the on board liquids from full drill water tank #23 to empty drill water tank #24. What is the change in the free surface correction?
N a. 0.69 foot Y b. 0.44 foot N c. 0.34 foot N d. 0.22 foot 5513: A link on an anchor chain should be replaced when wear or grinding of surface cracks has reduced the cross section area by __________.
N a. 4% N b. 6% N c. 8% Y d. 10% 5648: The hydrostatic release on the inflatable liferafts on a fishing vessel must be __________.
N a. replaced annually N b. tested monthly Y c. serviced annually N d. overhauled quarterly 6747: How many people on board a MODU must be trained in the use of the fireman's outfit?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.
Y a. the name of the person conducting the test N b. the weight of the charge N c. recommendations for the next test N d. All of the above 6838: What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?
N a. Faster response from ahead to astern N b. Less fuel consumption N c. Cheaper initial installation cost Y d. Less weight per unit of horsepower 7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.
N a. fixed foam systems to be ineffective N b. faster cooling of the fire N c. the accumulation of explosive gases Y d. the fire to spread through the ventilation system 8215: In the piping systems of a MODU, what type of valve gives the least resistance to fluid flow when fully open?
N a. Globe valve N b. Butterfly valve Y c. Gate valve N d. Packless valve 8307: The sense of smell cannot be depended upon to detect H2S because __________.
N a. it has a smell similar to petroleum products N b. hydrogen sulfide gas is odorless Y c. the sense of smell is deadened by the gas N d. it is better to rely on eye irritation as a detector 8673: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft. What is the value of GMT?
N a. 0.05 foot N b. 1.02 feet N c. 2.63 feet Y d. 4.34 feet 8981: The important initial stability parameter, GM, is the __________.
Y a. metacentric height N b. height of the metacenter above the keel N c. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel N d. height of the center of gravity above the keel 9276: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
N a. call for assistance Y b. put the vessel's stern into the wind N c. abandon ship to windward N d. keep going at half speed 9437: A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.
N a. list Y b. heel N c. trim N d. flotation 9505: With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
N a. longitudinal centerline N b. center of flotation N c. original vertical centerline Y d. metacenter