This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.
N a. invert the CO2 extinguisher N b. squeeze the two trigger handles together Y c. remove the locking pin N d. open the discharge valve 128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
N a. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. N b. Apply a compression bandage. N c. Use temporary stitches of sail twine. Y d. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. 142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?
N a. 3 N b. 12 N c. 25 Y d. Must be retained aboard 156: The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________.
N a. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger N b. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use N c. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon Y d. Any or a combination of the above criteria 158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?
N a. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. Y b. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. N c. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. N d. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. 604: To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should __________.
N a. close the cross-connection valve between the off-center tanks N b. completely flood high center tanks N c. ballast double bottom wing tanks Y d. close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank 624: Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested __________.
N a. weekly N b. every 2 weeks Y c. monthly N d. every 3 months 704: Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?
N a. Distress signal MAYDAY N b. Call to a particular station N c. A meteorological warning Y d. All of the above 734: On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________.
N a. 20.0 meters (65.5 feet) in length Y b. 30.5 meters (100 feet) in length N c. 10 fathoms (60 feet) in length N d. 90 feet (27.5 meters) in length 758: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.
N a. remain on course and hold speed Y b. change course and put the stern to the wind N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed N d. remain on course but slack the speed 798: A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?
N a. A N b. B Y c. C N d. D 860: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.
N a. at the bow N b. in the lower holds Y c. amidships N d. at the ends 906: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.
N a. 12 months N b. 15 months Y c. 17 months N d. 18 months 1088: The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________.
Y a. at which a liquid will give off flammable vapors N b. at which a liquid will burn steadily N c. at which a liquid will explode N d. that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily 1206: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.
N a. knife N b. towing connection N c. lifeline Y d. All of the above 1213: When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle, the __________.
N a. centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line Y b. righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment N c. center of buoyancy remains the same N d. deck-edge immersion occurs 1274: On inflatable liferafts, the operating cord should be renewed by __________.
N a. cutting the old line off and renewing same Y b. an approved servicing facility ashore N c. opening the case and replacing the entire line N d. one of the ship's officers 1364: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.
N a. Very pistol Y b. orange smoke signal N c. air horn N d. lantern 1373: You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is halfway between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of the number 5. What is the draft of the vessel?
N a. 4'-09" N b. 5'-09" Y c. 5'-03" N d. 5'-06" 1378: The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is __________.
Y a. water fog or spray N b. chemical foam N c. mechanical foam N d. carbon dioxide 1391: Halon extinguishes fire primarily by __________.
N a. cooling N b. smothering N c. shielding of radiant heat Y d. breaking the chain reaction 1392: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
N a. removing the heat N b. removing the oxygen Y c. removing the fuel N d. interrupting the chain reaction 1458: Your vessel displaces 14,500 tons, with a longitudinal CG 247.5 ft. aft of the FP. If you pump 80 tons of ballast from forward to aft through a distance of 480 feet, your new CG will be __________.
N a. 244.85 feet aft of FP N b. 246.22 feet aft of FP N c. 248.87 feet aft of FP Y d. 250.15 feet aft of FP 1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?
N a. There must be a designated responsible person who will be available to receive your call at anytime. Y b. There must be specific instructions for the designated responsible person to follow if your call does not come in on schedule. N c. The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule. N d. The designated responsible person should be over 18 years of age. 1683: You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most dangerous thing to do is __________.
Y a. jibe N b. tack about N c. reef the mainsail N d. strike the jib 1690: The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?
Y a. International orange N b. Yellow N c. White N d. Red 1765: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. To keep adequate stability you should __________.
N a. get underway with the flooded leg ONLY half raised to reduce KG N b. proceed with all legs half raised to lower KG N c. pump out all ballast to increase reserve buoyancy Y d. jack back up and ballast the vessel's high side as necessary 1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________.
N a. prevent the accumulation of explosive gases N b. protect the hull from leaking electrolyte N c. prevent movement of the battery in rough waters Y d. protect against accidental shorting across terminals 1888: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of the tanks being slack?
N a. .08 foot Y b. .16 foot N c. .45 foot N d. .90 foot 2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
N a. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance. N b. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore. Y c. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system. N d. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant. 2448: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.
N a. 3 nautical miles N b. 5 nautical miles Y c. 12 nautical miles N d. 25 nautical miles 2803: When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________.
Y a. be shielded from direct sunlight N b. be locked into a constant heading N c. have any air bubbles replaced with nitrogen N d. have the compensating magnets removed 3066: Prior to getting underway for the day's operations, every small passenger vessel shall have it's steering gear tested by __________.
N a. the Mate on watch Y b. the Master N c. a Mate or Designated Duty Engineer N d. a licensed Engineer 3086: Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the pilothouse?
N a. A tank barge with a sign reading "No Visitors, No Smoking, No Open Lights" N b. An open hopper barge carrying coal N c. A gas-free chlorine barge Y d. An empty (not gas-free) barge that last carried benzene 3105: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.
N a. GM Y b. GMT N c. KGT N d. KMT 3177: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0112
N a. FWD 25'-07", AFT 27'-01" N b. FWD 25'-02", AFT 27'-06" Y c. FWD 24'-10", AFT 27'-10" N d. FWD 24'-08", AFT 28'-00" 3279: You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that __________.
N a. all wing voids and rakes are pumped dry before tying off the barge N b. the barge is moored next to the bank where it will be protected from a possible collision Y c. the barge is under the care of a watchman N d. a rake end is facing upstream to minimize the effect of current on the mooring lines 3364: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0124
N a. 444 tons N b. 644 tons N c. 1044 tons Y d. 1263 tons 3379: Where should a tank barge's Certificate of Inspection be kept?
N a. In the owner's office N b. In the operator's office Y c. On the barge N d. On the towboat 3694: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.
N a. monitor blood pressure Y b. clear airways N c. use the rhythmic pressure method N d. know all approved methods 3806: A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
Y a. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps and leaning backwards N b. should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps leaning backwards N c. will right itself when the canopy tube inflates N d. must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself 3848: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replacement power source must be replaced __________.
N a. every six months after initial installation N b. every 12 months after initial installation N c. every 24 months after initial installation Y d. on or before the expiration date of the power source 3933: On the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to supplement the bilge pumps. Its normal pumping rate is __________.
N a. 250 gallons per minute N b. 350 gallons per minute Y c. 500 gallons per minute N d. 700 gallons per minute 3957: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed from 8 to 6 feet?
Y a. 80.00 long tons N b. 77.75 long tons N c. 83.34 long tons N d. 106.67 long tons 4134: Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
N a. with both pumps on line at the same time Y b. with one pump on standby N c. with the follow-up gear disconnected N d. only when the rudder is moved amidships 4321: Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________.
Y a. preload N b. liquid variable load N c. fixed load N d. basic load 5415: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload), dumps the preload. However, 138.4 kips remained on board. The LM for the remaining preload is 17,992 ft-kips. What is the new LCG?
N a. 119.33 feet AFO N b. 119.44 feet AFO Y c. 119.54 feet AFO N d. 119.66 feet AFO 5447: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 3 or 4 Y b. failure of mooring lines 7 or 8 N c. leak in ballast tank #2S N d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S 5525: What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?
N a. The breaking strength of the anchor chain Y b. Strength of the anchor chain to a specified limit N c. Adequate holding power for new bottom conditions N d. Safe working load of the anchor chain 5814: Your drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?
N a. 25.2 feet Y b. 25.6 feet N c. 25.9 feet N d. 26.3 feet 6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.
N a. conduct a fire drill N b. conduct a boat drill Y c. log the fore and aft draft marks N d. test the emergency generator 7027: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.
N a. administer artificial respiration N b. put him in a tub of ice water Y c. give him sips of cool water N d. cover him with a light cloth 7575: The upward pressure of displaced water is called __________.
Y a. buoyancy N b. deadweight N c. draft N d. freeboard 8187: The maximum variable load for the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated in a severe storm is __________.
Y a. 2,381 kips N b. 3,381 kips N c. 7,099 kips N d. 21,297 kips 8187: The maximum variable load for the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated in a severe storm is __________.
Y a. 2,381 kips N b. 3,381 kips N c. 7,099 kips N d. 21,297 kips 8447: Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a MODU?
N a. On the outside of the tank Y b. At the bottom of the tank N c. At the top of the tank N d. At the center of the tank 8515: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________.
N a. 4,536 kips N b. 4,698 kips Y c. 4,725 kips N d. 4,890 kips 8927: On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to __________.
N a. 1000 kips Y b. 875 kips N c. 750 kips N d. 450 kips 9415: A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are called __________.
N a. trippers N b. stocks N c. stabilizers Y d. palms 9427: In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to __________.
N a. heel until the angle of loll is reached Y b. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity N c. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal N d. decrease draft at the center of flotation