This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
42: The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________.
N a. for faster loading Y b. tank atmosphere with low oxygen content N c. better fuel economy N d. All of the above 161: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0003
N a. 2.15 feet N b. 1.83 feet N c. 1.64 feet Y d. 1.19 feet 190: Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
Y a. Concentrate weights on upper decks N b. Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold N c. Move weights lower in the ship N d. Ballast the peak tanks 473: Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that __________.
N a. is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger Y b. will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate N c. is protected against all physical hazards N d. All of the above 635: The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?
N a. The person in charge on the vessel N b. The person in charge at the facility Y c. Both persons in charge N d. The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping 946: What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank ?
Y a. Steel or aluminum N b. Sandwich style fiberglass with a natural rubber core N c. Copper-nickel or copper silicon alloys N d. Any or all of the above 1060: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0024
N a. FWD 26'-06", AFT 28'-10" N b. FWD 26'-10", AFT 28'-05" Y c. FWD 27'-00", AFT 28'-03" N d. FWD 27'-03", AFT 28'-00" 1127: Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.
N a. 97 times greater N b. 94 times greater Y c. 10 times greater N d. 2 times greater 1159: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3315 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.0 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0028
N a. KG 26.2 feet N b. KG 27.4 feet Y c. KG 28.6 feet N d. KG 30.1 feet 1226: For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels?
N a. Heating N b. Lighting N c. Cooking Y d. None of the above 1319: Where should muster lists be posted?
N a. In crew's accommodation spaces N b. On the navigating bridge N c. In the engine room Y d. All of the above 1359: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1372: It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________.
N a. allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke N b. extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering Y c. prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire N d. protect fire fighting personnel from smoke 1378: The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is __________.
Y a. water fog or spray N b. chemical foam N c. mechanical foam N d. carbon dioxide 1579: During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?
Y a. The designated person in charge N b. The tankerman N c. The senior able seaman N d. The oiler 1680: In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.
Y a. placed in a fixed bracket when being used N b. clamped to any position convenient for the coxswain to see it N c. permanently mounted on the lifeboat's centerline N d. mounted in the center of the boat to eliminate deviation 1772: The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include __________.
N a. harbors, lakes and similar waters determined by the OCMI to be protected waters N b. waters within 20 nautical miles from the mouth of a harbor of safe refuge N c. the Great Lakes during the summer season Y d. sheltered waters presenting no special hazard 1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________.
N a. on a close reach Y b. on a broad reach N c. on a starboard tack N d. running before the wind 1943: Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?
Y a. Once activated, these EPIRBs continuously send up a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. N b. The coded signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. N c. The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. N d. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. 1958: You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )
N a. 1.84 feet N b. 2.13 feet N c. 2.43 feet Y d. 2.78 feet 2214: Which statement concerning maintenance requirements is FALSE?
N a. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore based or at-sea maintenance capability. N b. Compulsory vessels sailing in Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore based or at-sea maintenance capability. Y c. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. N d. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. 2274: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.
N a. filling a partially filled tank Y b. using an on board crane to lift a freely swinging heavy object N c. emptying a partially filled tank N d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak 2481: Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?
N a. Read the display screen and/or printout. N b. Silence the alarm. N c. Listen for any follow up voice/TELEX transmission on the appropriate frequency. Y d. All of the above 2598: A vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.8 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 60° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. -1.6 feet N b. -0.1 foot N c. 1.2 feet Y d. 1.9 feet 2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________.
N a. sweep flames away with water spray Y b. shut off the leak N c. use a chemical foam fire extinguisher N d. call the local fire department 2858: A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least __________.
Y a. 1 ring life buoys with a water light N b. 2 ring life buoy with a water light N c. 2 ring life buoys with 2 water lights N d. 3 ring life buoys with 2 water lights 3063: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?
N a. 48 N b. 36 Y c. 24 N d. 12 3204: In accordance with SOLAS, the batteries that power interior lighting in inflatable liferafts can be made to last longer by __________.
N a. unscrewing the bulb during the daylight Y b. switching the light on only when necessary N c. taking no action as there is no way on saving power N d. taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight 3270: Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel?
N a. 2-1/2 gallon foam extinguisher Y b. 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher N c. 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher N d. None of the above 3403: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The draft at the center of flotation is __________.
N a. 7.00 feet N b. 8.58 feet N c. 9.00 feet Y d. 9.42 feet 3510: When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure?
N a. 4 N b. 8 Y c. 12 N d. 24 3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the __________.
Y a. identity N b. time of origin N c. reply N d. procedure code 3673: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.
N a. 2S N b. 9S Y c. C2BS N d. C2BP 3702: You may have to give artificial respiration after an accidental __________.
N a. drowning N b. electrocution N c. poisoning Y d. All of the above 3761: Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.
Y a. increased appetite and thirst N b. decreased appetite and thirst N c. gain in weight N d. elevated temperature 3800: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.
N a. spread apart as far as possible N b. held as tightly against your chest as possible N c. in a kneeling position Y d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles 3871: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the port-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2P is valve __________.
N a. 3 Y b. 5 N c. 6 N d. 7 3896: Life preservers must be marked with the __________.
N a. stowage space assigned Y b. vessel's name N c. vessel's home port N d. maximum weight allowed 4191: The DEEP DRILLER is planning to operate while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 ( Preparing to Drill). What is the margin between KGT and maximum allowable KG?
N a. 0.66 foot N b. 2.58 feet Y c. 5.24 feet N d. 7.87 feet 4289: What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Y a. Civil penalty of no more than $650 N b. Civil penalty of no more than $5,000 N c. $5,000 fine and imprisonment for not more than one year, or both N d. $1,000 fine or imprisonment for not more than two years 4391: Which data is NOT used in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?
N a. Leg penetration N b. Wave height Y c. Total weight N d. Current 4587: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the bow leg reaction?
N a. 4,737 kips N b. 4,916 kips Y c. 5,063 kips N d. 5,145 kips 4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.
N a. overboard discharge N b. dump valves Y c. skimmer tank N d. sump valves 4673: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
N a. 48.41 feet N b. 49.16 feet Y c. 50.79 feet N d. 51.40 feet 5525: What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?
N a. The breaking strength of the anchor chain Y b. Strength of the anchor chain to a specified limit N c. Adequate holding power for new bottom conditions N d. Safe working load of the anchor chain 6157: Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited __________.
Y a. at all times N b. during evening hours N c. unless another person is present N d. during drilling operations 6687: A MODU must have a self-contained breathing apparatus to be used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this requirement, you may use __________.
N a. a gas mask certified by the Mine Safety and Health Administration Y b. the same self-contained breathing apparatus required with the fireman's outfit N c. an oxygen breathing apparatus, provided that the device has been inspected within three years N d. a portable ventilation system that will provide a complete change of air every three minutes 6991: The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.
N a. move him to a cool location Y b. maintain an open airway N c. apply a cool damp dressing to his neck N d. have him drink cool liquids 7337: If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.
N a. sea state N b. names of witnesses Y c. time of its occurrence N d. wind direction and velocity 7667: Subtracting GM from KM yields __________.
N a. BL N b. GM N c. FS Y d. KG 8373: How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?
N a. Cylinder head valves Y b. Ports N c. Turbo chargers N d. Bleeder valves 8391: What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?
N a. Lube oil pressure gauge N b. Jacket water temperature gauge N c. Tachometer Y d. Exhaust pyrometer 8393: Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or __________.
N a. air starters N b. carburetors Y c. natural aspiration N d. air receivers 8417: Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause __________.
N a. decreased fuel efficiency N b. increased exhaust temperature N c. black smoke Y d. overspeed trip 8597: On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested __________.
N a. daily N b. weekly Y c. monthly N d. yearly 9125: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________.
N a. remote operated valve Y b. fusible link N c. CO2 system pressure switch N d. heat or smoke detector 9217: Apparent wind speed blowing across a MODU under tow can be measured by a(n) __________.
N a. barometer N b. wind vane Y c. anemometer N d. thermometer 9341: Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?
N a. A only N b. B only N c. B and C only Y d. A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher 9473: What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies?
Y a. metacentric height N b. metacentric radius N c. height of the metacenter N d. righting arm 9505: With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
N a. longitudinal centerline N b. center of flotation N c. original vertical centerline Y d. metacenter