USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


47: What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?


272: Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.


367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________.


467: Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?

    Y a. On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
    N b. In a separate radio compartment
    N c. Adjacent to the main power source
    N d. As high as possible on the vessel

557: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or channel __________.

    N a. 12
    Y b. 13
    N c. 14
    N d. 16

577: All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?

    N a. At least two lifeboats
    Y b. A radiotelephone
    N c. A radio direction finder
    N d. None of the above

644: The difference between the forward and aft drafts is __________.

    N a. list
    N b. heel
    Y c. trim
    N d. flotation

689: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.

    N a. walked around until he is back to normal
    N b. given several shots of whiskey
    Y c. kept lying down and warm
    N d. allowed to do as he wishes

1122: A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when the __________.

    Y a. hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the U.E.L.
    N b. atmosphere is deficient in oxygen
    N c. compartment to be tested is free of CO2
    N d. All of the above

1135: Which statement about the bilge piping system of "T-Boats" that are more than 26 feet in length is NOT correct?

    N a. Each watertight compartment must have its own bilge suction line or pump
    N b. Each space's bilge suction connection to a manifold must have stop and check valves, or a stop-check valve
    Y c. All bilge piping must be at least 2" inside-diameter brass pipe
    N d. Bilge suction strainers must have an open area not less than three times the area of the bilge pipe

1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?

    Y a. They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered.
    N b. They are normally attached to the davit span.
    N c. They are needed only on radial davits.
    N d. They are used to clear the puddings.

1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

    N a. put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will go
    N b. take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy sea
    Y c. head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage
    N d. place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow heavy

1319: Where should muster lists be posted?

    N a. In crew's accommodation spaces
    N b. On the navigating bridge
    N c. In the engine room
    Y d. All of the above

1528: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

    N a. home port
    N b. next port-of-call
    Y c. official number
    N d. Master

1589: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3284 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0043

    N a. KG 25.0 feet
    Y b. KG 25.5 feet
    N c. KG 26.1 feet
    N d. KG 26.7 feet

1778: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

    N a. after the first position report
    N b. 24 hours prior to departure
    N c. 24 hours after departure
    Y d. within a few hours before or after departure

1863: On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for emergency lighting and power systems must be tested every six months under actual connected load for a period of at least __________.

    N a. 1 hour
    Y b. 2 hours
    N c. 3 hours
    N d. 4 hours

1909: On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on __________.

    N a. ring life buoy
    N b. lifeboats
    N c. lifeboat oars
    Y d. All of the above

2071: The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights. Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your predicament?

    N a. Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
    N b. Pan, Pan, Pan
    Y c. Security, Security, Security
    N d. Lights out, Lights out, Lights out

2089: On a vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present shall NOT be segregated from cargo tanks by __________. (vessel constructed after 1970)

    N a. cofferdams
    Y b. galleys
    N c. pump rooms
    N d. tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150°F or above

2098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0049

    Y a. 395 tons
    N b. 530 tons
    N c. 750 tons
    N d. 990 tons

2124: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02", AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    Y a. 73°
    N b. 79°
    N c. 87°
    N d. 98°

2223: Knowing the compass heading that is 90° to the side of a MODU will enable the operator of a survival craft to initially steer __________.

    N a. into the wind
    Y b. away in fire and smoke
    N c. directly to the standby boat
    N d. directly to the nearest land

2253: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.

    Y a. reduce your drift rate
    N b. keep the survival craft from turning over
    N c. aid in recovering the survival craft
    N d. increase your visibility

2400: You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. The Chemical Data Guide indicates that the solubility of ethyl chloride in water will be __________.

    N a. negligible
    Y b. slight
    N c. moderate
    N d. complete

2414: The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F?

    N a. It will boil off to the atmosphere.
    Y b. It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present.
    N c. It will become less volatile and easier to handle.
    N d. None of the above

2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.

    Y a. to each side of the vessel
    N b. as close as possible to the house
    N c. on the main deck
    N d. on each level of the accommodation space

2617: Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?

    N a. The garbage to be discharged will sink.
    N b. Garbage accumulation on board has exceeded storage space.
    Y c. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation.
    N d. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.

2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

    N a. 1.6 feet
    N b. 2.9 feet
    N c. 3.8 feet
    Y d. 4.6 feet

2885: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts.

    Y a. FWD 26'-04", AFT 30'-00"
    N b. FWD 26'-06", AFT 29'-10"
    N c. FWD 26'-08", AFT 29'-08"
    N d. FWD 26'-10", AFT 29'-06"

2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    Y a. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets.
    N b. They shall be of an approved type.
    N c. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment.
    N d. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water.

3121: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    Y a. cool the bulkheads around the fire
    N b. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    N c. close all openings to the area
    N d. shut off all electric power

3272: Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)

    N a. In the forepeak
    N b. In the wheelhouse
    Y c. Throughout the accommodation spaces
    N d. In locked watertight and fireproof containers on or above the main deck

3356: The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement?

    N a. 2-1/2 gallon foam
    Y b. 5 gallon water (stored pressure)
    N c. 10 pound dry chemical
    N d. 15 pound CO2

3612: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch.

    N a. FWD 13'-03 5/8", AFT 15'-03 1/8"
    N b. FWD 13'-04 3/4", AFT 15'-03 1/4"
    N c. FWD 13'-05 1/5", AFT 15'-04 3/5"
    Y d. FWD 13'-08 4/5", AFT 15'-08 4/5"

3679: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

    N a. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
    Y b. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
    N c. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
    N d. 30 compressions then 4 inflations

3743: An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

    N a. placed in a position with the head lower than the body
    N b. given an inhalation stimulant
    Y c. given something to drink
    N d. treated for injuries until conscious

3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    Y a. convection
    N b. conduction
    N c. radiation
    N d. direct contact

3892: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

    N a. 24 months
    N b. 36 months
    Y c. 42 months
    N d. 54 months

3952: If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

    N a. filling the stabilizers on one side with water
    N b. releasing the CO2 cylinder
    N c. pushing up from under one end
    Y d. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft

4074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0153

    N a. 2.20 feet
    N b. 2.00 feet
    Y c. 1.80 feet
    N d. 1.65 feet

4170: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.

    N a. yellow
    N b. red
    N c. green
    Y d. white

4301: When leveling the elevated COASTAL DRILLER, you may raise the low corner instead of lowering the high corner __________.

    N a. in all cases, it is optional
    Y b. if lowering the high corner places the unit in the wave action
    N c. if proper air gap has been exceeded
    N d. if a potential punch-through threatens

4411: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in a normal transit, the roll period is 9 seconds. What is the limiting angle of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

    N a. 11°
    N b. 9°
    Y c. 7°
    N d. 5°

4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.

    Y a. environmental loading
    N b. variable loading
    N c. fixed loading
    N d. basic loading

4647: What is the increase in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

    Y a. 4783 foot-kips
    N b. 3446 foot-kips
    N c. 2109 foot-kips
    N d. 1234 foot-kips

5373: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    N a. 7,099 kips
    N b. 7,134 kips
    N c. 7,151 kips
    Y d. 7,203 kips

5644: You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________.

    N a. containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents
    Y b. a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet
    N c. at least two pumps that may be put in line
    N d. at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck

5931: If the charted water depth is 200 feet, the limits of service for the COASTAL DRILLER require an air gap of __________.

    N a. 35 feet
    N b. 32 feet
    Y c. 30 feet
    N d. 25 feet

6011: On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are size(s) __________.

    N a. II only
    N b. II and III
    Y c. I and II
    N d. I only

6073: Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________.

    Y a. 20 seconds
    N b. 30 seconds
    N c. 40 seconds
    N d. 60 seconds

6291: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must either reposition it at greater range or __________.

    N a. adjust the tensiometer
    N b. reduce the conductor tension
    Y c. use a piggyback (backing) anchor
    N d. increase the riser tension

6743: The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the __________.

    N a. oxygen and explosion meter when it is used for detection of flare gases
    Y b. self-contained breathing apparatus, when used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit
    N c. boots and gloves that are made of rubber or electrically non-conductive material, if used when repairing electrical equipment
    N d. lifeline, if used by personnel entering a compartment which might be deficient of oxygen

7021: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.

    N a. slow and strong pulse
    N b. flushed and dry skin
    N c. slow and deep breathing
    Y d. pale and clammy skin

7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

    N a. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
    N b. faster cooling of the fire
    N c. the accumulation of explosive gases
    Y d. the fire to spread through the ventilation system

7143: Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________.

    N a. fuel supply
    N b. exhaust ventilation
    Y c. supply and exhaust ventilation
    N d. mechanical and natural ventilation

8653: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1S is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    Y a. deballast from tank 2S
    N b. dump the mud
    N c. counterflood into 9P
    N d. place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 2S

8983: The time required to incline from port to starboard and back to port again is called __________.

    N a. initial stability
    N b. range of stability
    N c. inclining moment
    Y d. rolling period

9387: When should you use distress flares and rockets?

    Y a. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
    N b. At half-hour intervals
    N c. At one-hour intervals
    N d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel

9445: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the __________.

    Y a. metacentric height
    N b. height of the righting arm
    N c. fore and aft perpendicular
    N d. height of the center of buoyancy