USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.


113: You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.


142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?


158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?

    N a. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
    Y b. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
    N c. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.
    N d. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood.

169: The signal T 0735 means __________.

    N a. The Greenwich mean time is 0735
    Y b. The zone time is 0735
    N c. The latitude is 7° 35'
    N d. The longitude is 7° 35'

593: The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by __________.

    Y a. a turn around a forward thwart with a toggle pin thru the eye
    N b. a knot around a thwart
    N c. an eye splice placed over one of the hooks of the releasing gear
    N d. All of the above

779: A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?

    N a. 64.3 tons
    N b. 69.6 tons
    Y c. 81.6 tons
    N d. 116 tons

909: Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve sudden large overpressures that exceed the capacity of the mechanical P/V valves?

    N a. Pressure control valve
    N b. Deck water seal
    Y c. Liquid filled P/V breaker
    N d. Isolation valve

993: If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what will be your full rolling period?

    N a. 11 seconds
    N b. 15 seconds
    N c. 20 seconds
    Y d. 22 seconds

1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?

    N a. Clean out plates
    N b. Fuel gauges
    N c. Drain valves
    Y d. Shut-off valves

1124: Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________.

    N a. air is heavier than gas fumes
    N b. oil and water mix there
    N c. it prevents air from entering or leaving the space
    Y d. Gasoline vapors are heavier than air, tend to settle in the bilges, and create an explosion hazard

1274: On inflatable liferafts, the operating cord should be renewed by __________.

    N a. cutting the old line off and renewing same
    Y b. an approved servicing facility ashore
    N c. opening the case and replacing the entire line
    N d. one of the ship's officers

1303: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________.

    Y a. the engine air intakes
    N b. the fuel tanks
    N c. a separate pipe leading to the bilges
    N d. a suitable absorbant material

1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________.

    N a. cutting the restraining strap
    N b. unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle
    N c. lifting one end of the raft
    Y d. pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release

1497: While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be included in the preamble of a radio telegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian station?

    N a. RADIO MEDICAL
    Y b. DH MEDICO
    N c. XXX
    N d. MEDRAD

1507: A thrust block is designed to __________.

    N a. absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow
    N b. be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration
    N c. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller
    Y d. transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel

1691: When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the best anchor line would be composed of __________.

    N a. chain-wire
    N b. chain-manila
    Y c. chain-nylon
    N d. all chain

1794: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?

    N a. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea.
    N b. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well.
    Y c. Communications involving safety of life at sea do not have to be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications.
    N d. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio operator as long as the work is supervised by an onboard licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer.

1858: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

    N a. close hauled on the port tack
    N b. close hauled on the starboard tack
    Y c. running before the wind
    N d. on a broad reach

1897: Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging?

    N a. Sheet
    Y b. Backstay
    N c. Topping lift
    N d. Downhaul

1967: Define the acronym MSI.

    Y a. Maritime Safety Information
    N b. Maritime Shipping Index
    N c. Maritime Satellite Indicator
    N d. Mariner Safety Intelligence

2056: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

    N a. Stripping
    N b. Loading
    N c. crude oil washing
    Y d. All of the above

2154: What is the basic concept of GMDSS?

    N a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation.
    N b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted.
    N c. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay.
    Y d. All of the above

2269: To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong?

    N a. Glycol ethers
    Y b. Alkylene oxides
    N c. Esters
    N d. Alcohols

2655: Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.

    N a. beams
    N b. girders
    Y c. frames
    N d. bulkheads

2807: A vessel heading SSW is on a course of __________.

    Y a. 202.5°
    N b. 225.0°
    N c. 247.5°
    N d. 270.0°

2864: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-08", AFT 23'-04" and the GM is 4.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 20° inclination.

    Y a. 2.1 feet
    N b. 2.4 feet
    N c. 2.8 feet
    N d. 3.2 feet

3075: Although KG for a MODU in lightweight is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________.

    N a. KM is small
    Y b. KM is high
    N c. BL is small
    N d. KB is large

3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.

    N a. FSCL
    N b. KG
    Y c. KGL
    N d. GML

3191: To assess the potential for progressive flooding aboard a damaged MODU, you must know the __________.

    Y a. integrity of the watertight boundaries
    N b. capacity of the water sprinkler systems
    N c. operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms
    N d. All of the above

3234: The abandon ship signal is __________.

    N a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds
    N b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle
    Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells
    N d. a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle

3350: Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. None are required.
    Y b. One B-I extinguisher is required.
    N c. One B-II extinguisher is required.
    N d. Two B-I extinguishers are required.

3409: To launch a liferaft by hand, you should __________.

    N a. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and it will inflate by itself
    N b. detach the operating cord, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate
    N c. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the operating cord
    Y d. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord

3511: The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    N a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    N b. 9,733 ft-long tons
    Y c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    N d. 000 ft-long tons

3544: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the text, and the __________.

    N a. destination
    N b. answer
    N c. time
    Y d. ending

3613: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

    N a. The nature of the distress
    N b. The time of day
    N c. Your radio call sign
    Y d. Your position by latitude and longitude

3696: The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________.

    N a. on a tug standing by
    Y b. available by contract with the shore facility
    N c. kept at the shoreside hose connection during transfer
    N d. kept in a protected shoreside location readily accessible

3753: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    N a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    N b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    N c. administer oxygen
    Y d. immediately start CPR

3855: Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?

    N a. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    Y b. Certificate of Inspection
    N c. Forecastle Card
    N d. Clearance Papers

3909: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?

    N a. It shall be fired at least once in every three months.
    Y b. A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months.
    N c. Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually.
    N d. No drills are required.

4007: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S?

    N a. 1,189 foot-tons
    Y b. 2,835 foot-tons
    N c. 5,378 foot-tons
    N d. 5,670 foot-tons

4703: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the stern to re-level the jack-up if 75 kips is applied at the bow?

    N a. 50 kips
    N b. 75 kips
    N c. 100 kips
    Y d. 150 kips

4807: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    N a. 2.24 feet
    N b. 2.14 feet
    N c. 2.10 feet
    Y d. 1.67 feet

5385: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    Y a. 7,099 kips
    N b. 7,134 kips
    N c. 7,151 kips
    N d. 7,203 kips

5821: Why should you preload a mooring system above your precalculated operating mooring tensions?

    Y a. This serves as a benchmark for increasing tensions in rough weather.
    N b. This allows you to determine existing bottom conditions.
    N c. This insures that the anchor cable is stretched out in a straight line.
    N d. This tests all the components of your mooring equipment.

6076: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right?

    Y a. 1
    N b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

6567: On offshore drilling units, the number of industrial personnel permitted to be on board during drilling operations is found on the __________.

    N a. Classification Certificate
    N b. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    Y c. U.S. Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection
    N d. Owner's Operation Manual

6786: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency is __________.

    N a. white
    N b. yellow
    Y c. red
    N d. green

6838: What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?

    N a. Faster response from ahead to astern
    N b. Less fuel consumption
    N c. Cheaper initial installation cost
    Y d. Less weight per unit of horsepower

6863: When are fore and aft draft readings required to be entered in the unofficial logbook of a MODU?

    N a. Once a day
    N b. Once a week
    Y c. Prior to getting underway
    N d. Only when entering waters of different density

7113: Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.

    N a. used for electrical fires only
    Y b. the smallest
    N c. the most accessible
    N d. the most effective

7129: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.

    N a. 15 seconds
    Y b. 20 seconds
    N c. 45 seconds
    N d. 90 seconds

7373: When a semisubmersible rig under tow experiences pounding on the forward transverse brace, the surest way to alleviate the condition would be to __________.

    N a. adjust the length of the tow line
    N b. have the tug slow down
    Y c. ballast down
    N d. change course

7681: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

    N a. volume of liquid in the tank
    Y b. volume of displacement of the MODU
    N c. location of the tank in the MODU
    N d. height of the center of gravity of the MODU

7703: The average of the forward and after drafts is the __________.

    Y a. mean draft
    N b. true mean draft
    N c. mean of the calculated drafts
    N d. draft at the center of flotation

8121: While at operating draft, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps with the __________.

    N a. starboard ballast pump and crossover system
    N b. port ballast pump
    N c. port saltwater service pump
    Y d. port drill water pump

8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?

    N a. 12 percent
    N b. 15 percent
    N c. 18 percent
    Y d. 21 percent

8837: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,200 foot-kips intends to transfer 100 kips of weight in a transverse direction. How far should the weight be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.5 to 11.0 feet?

    N a. 12 feet
    N b. 48 feet
    N c. 120 feet
    Y d. 144 feet

8923: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4. While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 9P by also opening valves 6 and __________.

    N a. 35
    N b. 21
    Y c. 20
    N d. 8

9641: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

    N a. 1 long ton
    Y b. 300 pounds
    N c. 900 pounds
    N d. 1,500 pounds