USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.


257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.


387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?


662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.

    N a. cooling
    N b. chemical action
    Y c. smothering
    N d. inerting the air

718: Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must __________.

    N a. be of manila rope or equivalent, not less than two inches in circumference and not less than four fathoms long
    Y b. be 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of at least 1500 lbs.
    N c. be at least 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of 3,000 lbs.
    N d. be made of 90 feet of 3/8" nylon

894: Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by __________.

    N a. whistle
    N b. flag hoist
    N c. radiotelephone
    Y d. radiotelegraph

901: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

    N a. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%
    N b. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%
    Y c. labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
    N d. labeled empty and replaced in its proper location regardless of weight

964: Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?

    N a. Firing of a green star signal
    Y b. Firing of a red star signal
    N c. An orange smoke signal
    N d. Three white star rockets fired at one-minute intervals

1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.

    N a. must be located at the lowest portion of the tank
    N b. must have only a gravity-forced flow
    N c. must be extended to an external area of the hull
    Y d. are permitted

1131: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?

    N a. Close the valves at the transfer manifold
    N b. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility
    Y c. Shut down the transfer operation
    N d. Sound the fire alarm

1271: The primary danger in helicopter fires is __________.

    Y a. burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
    N b. loss of stability
    N c. rotating and flying debris
    N d. heat damage to helicopter structure

1291: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0033

    Y a. 1.82 feet
    N b. 1.96 feet
    N c. 2.05 feet
    N d. 2.17 feet

1308: What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?

    N a. Carbon dioxide
    Y b. Foam
    N c. Steam
    N d. Water fog

1319: Where should muster lists be posted?

    N a. In crew's accommodation spaces
    N b. On the navigating bridge
    N c. In the engine room
    Y d. All of the above

1375: To launch a liferaft by hand you should __________.

    N a. cut the casing bands, throw the liferaft over the side, and it will then inflate
    N b. detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side, and it will then inflate
    N c. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side, and pull the operating cord
    Y d. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord

1389: Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE?

    Y a. Boiler soot blowers should never be used when the IG system is operating.
    N b. The boiler will produce the best quality of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light.
    N c. The boiler will produce the most quantity of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light.
    N d. Flue gas with excessive oxygen content is de-oxygenated in the scrubber.

1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in __________.

    N a. sand
    Y b. soft soil
    N c. stiff clay
    N d. heterogeneous soil

1762: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and free of the bottom you should __________.

    N a. raise one leg at a time
    N b. not be concerned about any list
    Y c. raise all legs simultaneously
    N d. have the crane standing upright

2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than __________.

    N a. 1.5 inches
    N b. 2.0 inches
    Y c. 2.5 inches
    N d. 3.0 inches

2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

    N a. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance.
    N b. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore.
    Y c. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.
    N d. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.

2198: Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel with the sails properly trimmed?

    N a. The more the sails are sheeted in, the greater your speed will be when sailing downwind.
    N b. As the sails are sheeted in, the vessel will heel less when close hauled.
    N c. As the sails are sheeted in on a close hauled course, speed will increase as the side forces on the vessel decrease.
    Y d. Sheeting in the sails will allow the vessel to sail closer to the wind but will decrease speed.

2216: Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?

    N a. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment will partially meet this requirement.
    N b. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS maintainer's license will partially meet the requirements.
    N c. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will partially meet this requirement.
    Y d. All of the above

2247: When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.

    N a. tie up to the rescue vessel
    N b. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
    Y c. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
    N d. transfer all personnel immediately

2311: What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump?

    Y a. Vapor pockets in the flow stream
    N b. Rough impeller surfaces
    N c. Worn wearing rings
    N d. Heavy fluid in the flow stream

2373: An uncontrolled flow of gas, oil, or other well fluids into the atmosphere is called a __________.

    N a. flow
    N b. breakout
    N c. kick
    Y d. blowout

2579: What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

    N a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.
    Y b. Transmit Distress call by MF/HF, VHF or INMARSAT.
    N c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on Channel 13.
    N d. Transmit Distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.

2648: Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________.

    N a. utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers
    N b. utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers
    N c. blowing the flames out
    Y d. letting it burn itself out

2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.

    N a. submerged hulls
    Y b. column void spaces
    N c. dry mud tanks
    N d. ballast tanks

2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.

    N a. empty
    Y b. fully ballasted
    N c. partially ballasted
    N d. sealed

2749: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    Y a. 62 tons
    N b. 68 tons
    N c. 74 tons
    N d. 78 tons

2789: As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. charts
    N b. Coast Pilots
    N c. Light Lists
    Y d. All of the above

2873: As shown, the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made is __________. (D041DG )

    Y a. 5
    N b. 4
    N c. 3
    N d. 1

3125: The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.

    N a. underwater volume
    N b. above water volume
    N c. amidships section
    Y d. waterplane area

3132: If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

    N a. increase the speed of the survival craft
    N b. shift all personnel to the bow
    N c. shift all personnel to the stern
    Y d. check the bilge drain plug

3141: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0108

    N a. Available GM 4.81 ft
    N b. Available GM 4.69 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.60 ft
    Y d. Available GM 4.28 ft

3185: Control of flooding on a MODU should be addressed __________.

    N a. first
    Y b. following control of fire
    N c. following restoration of vital services
    N d. only if a threat exists

3221: A MODU with a displacement of 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. A load of 300 kips is shifted from a VCG of 100 feet to a VCG of 10 feet. How far does the KG move?

    N a. 0.2 foot downward
    N b. 0.2 foot upward
    Y c. 1.8 feet downward
    N d. 1.8 feet upward

3326: The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.

    Y a. in contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark
    N b. from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark
    N c. in contact with the fill opening to allow proper venting
    N d. None of the above

3351: In good weather, you should deploy the sea anchor from the liferaft to __________.

    N a. keep the liferaft from capsizing
    N b. navigate against the current
    N c. keep personnel from getting seasick
    Y d. stay in the general location

3641: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

    N a. Very pistol
    Y b. orange smoke signal
    N c. air horn
    N d. lantern

3747: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

    N a. boric acid solution
    Y b. water
    N c. baking soda solution
    N d. ammonia

3790: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm bell bells" is the signal for __________.

    N a. abandon ship
    Y b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations
    N c. fire and emergency
    N d. man overboard

3940: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.

    N a. wear as much clothing as possible
    N b. enter the water feet first
    Y c. swim with the wind
    N d. cover eyes with one hand when entering the water

3983: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

    N a. 61.24 feet
    N b. 61.22 feet
    Y c. 61.20 feet
    N d. 61.13 feet

4027: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM =3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    Y a. 5.66 feet
    N b. 6.31 feet
    N c. 7.37 feet
    N d. 55.47 feet

4601: The COASTAL DRILLER is drilling while weighing 15,436 kips. LM are 2,006,680 ft-kips, and TM are -7,718 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    N a. 3,806 kips
    N b. 5,751 kips
    Y c. 5,879 kips
    N d. 7,549 kips

5097: To have the ultimate authority for a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is under tow, a rig mover must __________.

    N a. hold an Able Seaman certificate and be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    Y b. hold a license as Offshore Installation Manager and be held as the person in charge of the rig
    N c. be certified by an approved classification society and be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    N d. be certified by the Minerals Management Service and be designated as the person in charge of the rig

5615: Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses due to __________.

    Y a. environmental loads
    N b. variable loads
    N c. ballast loading
    N d. mooring loads

5701: The vessel motion that can significantly affect mooring line tensions on a MODU is __________.

    N a. roll
    N b. yaw
    Y c. surge
    N d. pitch

5725: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain in comparison to the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.

    N a. longer
    N b. identical
    Y c. shorter
    N d. indeterminable

5935: The size of fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.

    N a. 1 inch
    Y b. 2-1/2 inches
    N c. 3 inches
    N d. 3-1/2 inches

6007: On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.

    Y a. 12 months
    N b. 24 months
    N c. 36 months
    N d. 48 months

6127: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of persons required to be trained in the use of fireman's outfits is __________.

    N a. 1
    Y b. 2
    N c. 3
    N d. 4

6245: On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.

    Y a. well-conducted drills
    N b. a dedicated crew
    N c. good equipment
    N d. good communication

7387: Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of excess __________.

    N a. hydrocarbon gas
    N b. carbon monoxide gas
    Y c. carbon dioxide gas
    N d. freon gas

8045: At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.

    N a. maximum
    N b. negative
    N c. positive
    Y d. zero

8517: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips. LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The port leg reaction is __________.

    N a. 4,536 kips
    N b. 4,716 kips
    N c. 4,824 kips
    Y d. 4,890 kips

9107: The amount of Halon remaining in an extinguisher is determined by __________.

    N a. internal inspection
    N b. checking the gage
    Y c. weighing the cylinder
    N d. checking the tag

9634: A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.

    Y a. one control
    N b. two controls
    N c. three controls
    N d. none of the above

69354: Which casualty involving a mobile offshore drilling unit would require a report to be filed?

    N a. Damage to property of $20,000
    N b. An injury treated by first aid
    Y c. An occurrence materially and adversely affecting the vessel's fitness for service
    N d. All of the above