This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
69: Fire hose couplings __________.
Y a. are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals N b. should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths N c. are specially hardened to prevent crushing N d. should be greased frequently 107: What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?
N a. For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate Y b. For the instant that it is made N c. Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened N d. Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space 118: A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________.
N a. with puncture wounds Y b. when all other means have failed N c. when the victim is unconscious N d. to prevent bleeding from minor wounds 183: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water. N b. Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it. N c. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated. Y d. All of the above 219: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.
N a. non-displacement vessel N b. limited vessel N c. power-driven vessel Y d. vessel 350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
N a. flowing from side to side within the vessel N b. flowing from fore to aft within a vessel Y c. flowing in and out of a holed wing tank N d. pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels 460: A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________.
N a. 6 passengers N b. 12 passengers N c. 36 passengers Y d. 49 passengers 772: What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel?
N a. It be operated at one and one half times normal operating pressure for ten minutes. N b. Safety and/or relief valves settings be checked at two and one half times normal operating pressures. Y c. It be installed to the satisfaction of the cognizant OCMI N d. All of the above 838: A class C fire would be burning __________.
N a. fuel oil N b. wood N c. celluloid Y d. electrical insulation 899: EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?
N a. Head up and feet down Y b. Head down and feet up N c. Flat on back with head and feet elevated N d. Arms above the head 1136: The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliances is __________.
N a. 300 lbs Y b. 500 lbs N c. 1000 lbs N d. 1500 lbs 1142: While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then __________.
N a. enter the tank safely Y b. suspect the accuracy of the reading N c. ventilate the tank N d. test for nitrogen 1161: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?
N a. Give the vessel a wide berth as she is carrying dangerous goods. N b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled. N c. Stop your vessel instantly. Y d. Slow your vessel and keep well clear because she has a diver down. 1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.
N a. 4, based on the breaking strength N b. 5, based on the maximum allowable stress Y c. 6, based on the maximum working load N d. 8, based on the normal working load 1351: While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram asking for medical advice from a Greek station?
Y a. RADIO MEDICAL N b. DH MEDICO N c. MEDICO ELLAS N d. MAYDAY 1476: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 6 Y b. 5 N c. 3 N d. 3 STARBOARD 1902: Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?
N a. Inspecting and cleaning the SART's container, and clearing the immediate storage area of any debris or obstacles. Y b. Measuring the SART's transmitted frequency. N c. Placing the SART in the test mode and verifying that the nearby PPI shows concentric circles. N d. Ensuring the SART's batteries are replaced before their expiration date. 1967: Define the acronym MSI.
Y a. Maritime Safety Information N b. Maritime Shipping Index N c. Maritime Satellite Indicator N d. Mariner Safety Intelligence 2069: The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay are called_________.
Y a. hanks N b. shackles N c. warps N d. gudgeons 2100: You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 20 tons N b. 60 tons Y c. 100 tons N d. 400 tons 2105: If a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should __________.
N a. inflate the liferaft on deck Y b. roll the liferaft over the side N c. go to another liferaft station N d. get a saw and cut the liferaft free 2487: The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the __________.
Y a. outer barrel of the telescoping joint N b. inner barrel of the telescoping joint N c. marine riser connector N d. ball joint 2648: Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________.
N a. utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers N b. utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers N c. blowing the flames out Y d. letting it burn itself out 2820: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0082
N a. FWD 26'-02", AFT 26'-08" Y b. FWD 25'-09", AFT 27'-02" N c. FWD 25'-03", AFT 28'-09" N d. FWD 24'-11", AFT 29'-11" 2852: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.
N a. progressive downflooding N b. reduction of water in the storage tanks Y c. increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height N d. reduction of KG to the minimum allowable 2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
N a. positive N b. negative Y c. zero N d. vertical 3145: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.
N a. C1P N b. 8P Y c. 1P N d. 2S 3236: While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.
N a. "abandon ship" N b. "commence lowering boats" Y c. "stop lowering boats" N d. "secure from boat stations" 3351: In good weather, you should deploy the sea anchor from the liferaft to __________.
N a. keep the liferaft from capsizing N b. navigate against the current N c. keep personnel from getting seasick Y d. stay in the general location 3357: What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter. Y b. Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter. N c. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. N d. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. 3378: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 1 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)
Y a. 2230 tons N b. 2270 tons N c. 2310 tons N d. 2350 tons 3435: Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________.
N a. for all persons on board N b. for not less than 67% of all persons permitted on board Y c. for not less than 100% of all persons permitted on board N d. in place of ring life buoys 3456: When a sea anchor for a survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.
N a. completely stop the survival craft from drifting Y b. help to prevent broaching N c. prevent the survival craft from pitching N d. prevent the survival craft from rolling 3679: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
N a. 5 compressions then 1 inflation Y b. 15 compressions then 2 inflations N c. 20 compressions then 3 inflations N d. 30 compressions then 4 inflations 3683: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. What might have caused the inclination?
N a. Mooring lines 6 and 7 have failed. Y b. The drilling crew has dumped the mud. N c. The drill string has broken. N d. Ballast tanks have equalized into tank 10S. 3684: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
N a. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth N b. keeping the head elevated Y c. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth N d. holding the jaw down firmly 3825: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?
Y a. 21,913 foot-tons decrease N b. 13,414 foot-tons decrease N c. 10,944 foot-tons decrease N d. 6,707 foot-tons decrease 3827: What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?
N a. 15,522 foot-tons increase Y b. 15,181 foot-tons increase N c. 3,594 foot-tons increase N d. 1,797 foot-tons increase 3907: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________.
N a. two rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type N b. three rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type Y c. four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type N d. five rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type 4127: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?
N a. 0.45 foot Y b. -0.45 foot N c. -1.78 feet N d. -2.68 feet 4278: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.
N a. on standby in the messroom Y b. in or near the pilothouse N c. always in the pilothouse N d. reporting to the bridge every half hour 4299: When jumping into water upon which there is an oil-fire, you should __________.
N a. enter the water midships on the leeward side of the vessel N b. enter the water midships on the windward side of the vessel N c. enter the water at the bow or stern on the leeward side of the vessel Y d. enter the water at the bow or stern on the windward side of the vessel 4323: Guide tolerances during elevation of the jack-up rig will __________.
N a. reduce spud can bearing pressure Y b. keep the unit level and reduce overloading N c. reduce stresses on the hull N d. minimize the potential for punch-through 5203: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapid increasing inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.
N a. consumption of on board liquids N b. miscalculation of loads N c. external environmental forces Y d. flooding due to hull damage 5313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
Y a. 2.6 feet N b. 4.1 feet N c. 26.3 feet N d. 26.8 feet 5722: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?
N a. 25.1 feet Y b. 25.4 feet N c. 25.7 feet N d. 26.0 feet 5923: The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to maintain required fire streams, or __________.
N a. 50 psi N b. 75 psi Y c. 125 psi N d. 150 psi 6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. Once a week N b. Once a month Y c. Once a year N d. During each drill 6196: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6605: All fire hoses on mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at least __________.
N a. 100 psi Y b. 110 psi N c. 120 psi N d. 130 psi 7387: Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of excess __________.
N a. hydrocarbon gas N b. carbon monoxide gas Y c. carbon dioxide gas N d. freon gas 7843: After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?
N a. The unit is working properly. N b. The face mask is not sealed properly. Y c. The air bottle needs to be refilled. N d. The air supply hose has a leak. 8151: Laying down drill pipe from the derrick of a semisubmersible on location reduces the __________.
Y a. natural roll period N b. metacentric height N c. waterplane area N d. righting moment 8333: Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.
N a. unusually large concentrations of H2S Y b. smaller than normal concentrations of H2S N c. moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions N d. longer exposure to H2S concentrations 8711: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast from the forward-starboard column using starboard pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.
Y a. 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N b. 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48 N c. 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48 N d. 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48 8717: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the uncorrected height of the center of gravity?
N a. 52.14 feet Y b. 53.78 feet N c. 55.03 feet N d. 58.50 feet 8863: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What is the new KGL?
N a. 51.65 feet N b. 52.67 feet Y c. 55.16 feet N d. 62.24 feet 8994: Two types of anchor shackles which are currently available are __________.
N a. U-Type and posilok shackles N b. C-Type and wedge shackles Y c. D-Type and bow shackles N d. wedge and kenter shackles 9633: Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
N a. Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve. N b. Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space. N c. An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied. Y d. All of the above 69354: Which casualty involving a mobile offshore drilling unit would require a report to be filed?
N a. Damage to property of $20,000 N b. An injury treated by first aid Y c. An occurrence materially and adversely affecting the vessel's fitness for service N d. All of the above