This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
11: A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
N a. On their side if unconscious N b. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head N c. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level Y d. Arms above their head 29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.
N a. invert the CO2 extinguisher N b. squeeze the two trigger handles together Y c. remove the locking pin N d. open the discharge valve 45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?
N a. They usually disappear quickly. N b. They usually stay in a small area. Y c. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative. N d. A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area. 91: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
Y a. removing the fuel N b. interrupting the chain reaction N c. removing the oxygen N d. removing the heat 101: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.
N a. 1.1 feet Y b. 1.2 feet N c. 1.3 feet N d. 1.5 feet 299: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
N a. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant. Y b. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system. N c. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore. N d. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance. 366: You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space?
N a. 1674 N b. 2511 Y c. 3348 N d. 5022 416: Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?
N a. If a vessel carries two outfits, they may be stored in the same location. Y b. Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type. N c. Each fireman's outfit shall contain a fresh-air breathing apparatus. N d. All of the above 460: A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________.
N a. 6 passengers N b. 12 passengers N c. 36 passengers Y d. 49 passengers 510: A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________.
N a. within one week N b. within 24 hours N c. on reporting day if it occurs within normal work hours Y d. before sailing 533: What is the purpose of limber holes?
N a. To allow for air circulation N b. To allow for stress and strain in rough waters N c. To allow water in the boat to drain overboard Y d. To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain 600: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.
N a. initial stability N b. free surface Y c. stability at large angles of inclination N d. permeability 675: Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?
N a. The U.S. Coast Guard N b. The manager of the shore facility Y c. The person(s) designated in-charge N d. The American Bureau of Shipping 800: The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.
N a. LCB and LCF N b. LCF and LCG N c. LHA and LCG Y d. LCB and LCG 1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.
N a. may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life preservers N b. should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency stations N c. may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat drills Y d. should be used when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge 1105: In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?
N a. Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position N b. As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head N c. After the limit switch is activated Y d. After all people have been embarked 1264: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.
N a. removing the top half of the shell, cutting the line at its source, and renewing completely N b. cutting the line where it enters the case and replacing that portion N c. leaving the original line and tying another one to it so the two lines will take the strain Y d. an approved servicing facility ashore 1372: It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________.
N a. allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke N b. extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering Y c. prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire N d. protect fire fighting personnel from smoke 1406: The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the____________________.
N a. decrease in capabilities of radar N b. decrease in displacement N c. adverse effect on trim Y d. loss of stability 1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
N a. The sailing plan may be sent in any reasonable time before departure, but not later than 12 hours after departure. N b. Distress messages should be sent to the AMVER center. N c. In the body of the sailing plan report, the letter G is used to indicate a great circle course. Y d. There are four different message reports in the AMVER system. 1468: You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take first to correct the situation?
N a. Pump out a slack double bottom tank to reduce free surface. N b. Flood any empty double bottom tanks to decrease KG. Y c. Jettison topside weights to increase freeboard. N d. Pump out flooding water in the cargo holds to reduce free surface. 1498: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
Y a. cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire N b. leaving combustibles in the endangered area N c. increasing the oxygen supply N d. All of the above 1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.
N a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode N b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft N c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB Y d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB 1672: Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation?
Y a. Vessel heels until water enters a hatch. N b. Vessel in collision floods through a damaged area above the waterline. N c. Vessel takes on water due to the hatches being left open in heavy rain. N d. Vessel takes on water by the propeller shaft due to failure of the stern gland. 1874: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.
N a. remote operated valve N b. C02 system pressure switch Y c. fusible link N d. heat or smoke detector 2105: If a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should __________.
N a. inflate the liferaft on deck Y b. roll the liferaft over the side N c. go to another liferaft station N d. get a saw and cut the liferaft free 2227: When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air they are used for __________.
Y a. an air supply for personnel N b. additional flotation N c. priming the sprinkler system N d. filling the self righting bags 2260: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed?
N a. 3.19 feet N b. 3.24 feet N c. 3.40 feet Y d. 3.56 feet 2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.
N a. check the fuel level N b. open the doors N c. take the life preservers off Y d. check that hooks are fully locked in place 2341: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0060
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft Y b. Available GM 4.24 ft N c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2351: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower?
N a. 5 N b. 4 Y c. 3 N d. 2 2508: What is the TLV of cyclohexanol?
N a. 20 ppm N b. 30 ppm N c. 40 ppm Y d. 50 ppm 2962: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0090
Y a. FWD 17'-06", AFT 24'-03" N b. FWD 19'-03", AFT 22'-06" N c. FWD 17'-01", AFT 24'-08" N d. FWD 21'-04", AFT 19'-07" 2993: Convection spreads a fire by __________.
N a. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space N b. burning liquids flowing into another space N c. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal Y d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems 3127: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.
Y a. fusible link N b. remote operated valve N c. C02 system pressure switch N d. heat or smoke detector 3257: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is discharged from a height of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?
Y a. 1.5 feet upward N b. 1.5 feet downward N c. 0.8 foot upward N d. 0.8 foot downward 3277: When starting a long ocean tow at a displacement of 18,000 short tons and a KG of 70 feet, you dump 100 short tons of water which had a VCG of 88 feet. What is the new KG?
N a. 59.9 feet Y b. 69.9 feet N c. 79.9 feet N d. 89.9 feet 3409: To launch a liferaft by hand, you should __________.
N a. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and it will inflate by itself N b. detach the operating cord, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate N c. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the operating cord Y d. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord 3507: The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.
N a. 680,914 ft-long tons N b. 9,733 ft-long tons N c. -5,937 ft-long tons Y d. -6,716 ft-long tons 3575: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 65.00 feet. What is the GML?
N a. 7.55 feet N b. 5.42 feet N c. 5.30 feet Y d. 5.10 feet 3623: You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.
N a. "Charlie Quebec" N b. "Code" N c. "Kilo" Y d. "Interco" 3851: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.
N a. 33 Starboard Y b. 36 Starboard N c. 33 Port N d. 36 Port 3901: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.
N a. 48 Y b. 47 N c. 37 N d. 23 4362: The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a vessel increase with the __________.
Y a. surface area of the fluid in the tank N b. displacement volume of the vessel N c. draft of the vessel N d. height of the tank above the keel 4455: What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?
N a. The davit-launched liferaft is easier to maintain. N b. The davit-launched liferaft is made of fire-retardant material. N c. The davit-launched liferaft has a built-in sprinkler system for fire protection. Y d. The davit-launched liferaft enables personnel to enter the raft without having to enter the water. 4493: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, has a displacement of __________.
Y a. 13,662 kips N b. 13,553 kips N c. 13,011 kips N d. 12,252 kips 4711: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's TCG?
Y a. 0.048 foot port N b. 0.048 foot starboard N c. 1.020 feet port N d. 1.020 feet starboard 4812: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0170
Y a. 0.54 ft N b. 0.62 ft N c. 0.80 ft N d. 0.85 ft 5235: If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.
Y a. determine the cause before taking countermeasures N b. assume the shift is due to off-center loading N c. counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim N d. assume the cause is environmental forces 5307: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
N a. 26.8 feet N b. 26.3 feet N c. 1.8 feet Y d. 1.3 feet 5431: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new TCG?
N a. -1.11 feet N b. -0.47 foot N c. 1.07 feet Y d. 1.11 feet 5683: You should consider placing the drilling operations of the DEEP DRILLER in standby when __________.
Y a. sustained winds exceed 50 knots N b. winds exceed 70 knots N c. critical motion limits have been exceeded N d. waves are greater than 64 feet 6093: On offshore drilling units where foam systems are installed on the heliport, the system must be able to discharge continuously for at least __________.
Y a. 5 minutes N b. 6 minutes N c. 8 minutes N d. 10 minutes 6792: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.
Y a. carried by hand to a fire N b. carried or rolled to a fire N c. recharged in the field N d. used on class "B" fires 6831: After conducting an abandonment drill, the Master or person in charge of a MODU shall log __________.
Y a. the names of crew members who participated in the drill N b. the length of time that each motor propelled lifeboat was operated in the drill N c. the length of time the lifeboat was in the water N d. the time it took to lower the boat 8071: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total environmental force would be __________.
Y a. 620 kips N b. 595 kips N c. 475 kips N d. 425 kips 8361: What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine?
N a. Increases efficiency N b. Increases engine horsepower N c. Increases engine life Y d. Reduces engine horsepower 8913: In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline that used principally for __________.
N a. equipment storage N b. machinery N c. elevators Y d. reserve buoyancy 9231: The transverse free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 24,000 long tons is 1.0 foot. When the MODU is deballasted by discharging 8,000 long tons of ballast, the FSMT decreases by 4,000 ft-long tons. What is the new FSCT?
N a. 1.50 feet Y b. 1.25 feet N c. 1.00 foot N d. 0.83 foot 9623: You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?
N a. Close the door to the room. N b. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. N c. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Y d. Break out the nearest fire hose.