This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
17: The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.
N a. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level) N b. capable of supporting combustion N c. in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basis Y d. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit) 115: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
N a. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. Y b. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket. N c. They should be tight fitting. N d. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. 153: If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.
Y a. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter N b. find some wood for a fire N c. get the provisions out of the raft N d. set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it 188: The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.
Y a. direct pressure on the wound N b. elevating the wounded area N c. pressure on a pressure point N d. a tourniquet above the wound 198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________.
N a. be assisted in walking around N b. be examined then walked to a bunk Y c. not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives N d. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk 282: The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.
N a. a difference in water pressure Y b. the method of breaking up the water stream N c. the length of the applicator N d. All of the above 385: You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board?
N a. 25% N b. 50% N c. 75% Y d. 100% 431: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 31'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0007
N a. FWD 29'-01", AFT 31'-04" N b. FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-00" Y c. FWD 29'-08", AFT 30'-09" N d. FWD 29'-11", AFT 30'-07" 453: You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
N a. make the vessel more tender Y b. make the vessel stiffer N c. increase the rolling period N d. decrease the metacentric height 464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.
N a. speech N b. signaling tones N c. a busy signal Y d. All of the above 657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?
Y a. 1 watt or less N b. 5 watts N c. 10 watts N d. 20 watts 679: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
N a. heat N b. oxygen Y c. electricity N d. fuel 735: You are fueling your vessel when you notice oil in the water around your vessel. You should immediately stop fueling and __________.
N a. begin cleanup operations Y b. notify the U. S. Coast Guard N c. leave the area N d. notify the Corps of Engineers 930: Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.
N a. II, III, and IV N b. I, II, and III Y c. III, IV, and V N d. IV and V 978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?
N a. It will explode if exposed to a flame. Y b. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal. N c. It will burn rapidly once ignited. N d. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride. 1177: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0030
N a. 1.20 feet N b. 1.64 feet Y c. 2.26 feet N d. 3.00 feet 1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.
N a. keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly N b. prevent voltage fluctuations Y c. keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated N d. make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the fuses blow 1742: What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?
N a. DP N b. DR N c. PR Y d. SP 1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
N a. 030947C MAR N b. 03094703 N c. 06470303Z Y d. 030647Z MAR 1911: A ketch is a sailing vessel with __________.
N a. one mast N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post Y c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast 1917: How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?
Y a. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. N b. It informs survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened. N c. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode. N d. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. 2364: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 27'-06". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 26'-00". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
Y a. 950 tons 2.5 feet forward of the tipping center N b. 950 tons 5.6 feet aft of amidships N c. 1250 tons 4.3 feet forward of amidships N d. 1250 tons 1.4 feet aft of the tipping center 2489: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area?
N a. CO2 N b. Dry chemical N c. Monoxide powders Y d. Foam 2669: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 61 tons N b. 72 tons Y c. 79 tons N d. 86 tons 2715: The certificate of inspection of a MODU will specify the __________.
Y a. number of licensed personnel required on board N b. maximum load line draft N c. maximum water depth for drilling N d. next date for an inclining experiment 2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets. N b. They shall be of an approved type. N c. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment. N d. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water. 2944: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08".
N a. 12° N b. 17° N c. 20° Y d. 23° 2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.
N a. 9° N b. 12° N c. 15° Y d. 19° 3046: How long is the Certificate of Inspection issued to a 50 gross ton, passenger carrying vessel which is 60 feet (18 meters) in length valid? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. One year N b. Two years Y c. Three years N d. Four years 3088: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.
Y a. reduce your drift rate N b. keep the survival craft from turning over N c. aid in recovering the survival craft N d. increase your visibility 3234: The abandon ship signal is __________.
N a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds N b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells N d. a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle 3374: What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. The rated capacity in gallons, quarts, or pounds Y b. The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder N c. The name of the item N d. An identifying mark of the actual manufacturer 3481: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 Drill Water Tanks are discharged, what is the new longitudinal free surface correction?
Y a. 1.63 feet N b. 2.14 feet N c. 2.24 feet N d. 2.38 feet 3675: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2P and 3P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.
N a. 2S N b. 9S N c. C2BS Y d. 10S 3678: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
N a. 4 N b. 8 Y c. 12 N d. 20 3955: The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________.
N a. week N b. two months Y c. three months N d. six months 3975: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new uncorrected KG?
N a. 52.09 feet Y b. 52.20 feet N c. 53.23 feet N d. 55.36 feet 3992: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3300 brake horsepower?
N a. 2 N b. 3 Y c. 4 N d. 5 3995: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the Stores & Supplies if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?
Y a. 13,346 foot-tons N b. 5,054 foot-tons N c. 964 foot-tons N d. 292 foot-tons 4108: A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. four years N b. three years N c. two years Y d. one year 4226: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
N a. 85 inches Y b. 90 inches N c. 92 inches N d. 94 inches 4487: Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER while floating will change the __________.
N a. list N b. trim Y c. true mean draft N d. TPI 4583: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 150 feet of water with 0 knots current, 10 foot waves, and wind speeds of 70 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.
N a. 5,940 kips N b. 6,020 kips Y c. 6,080 kips N d. 6,520 kips 4601: The COASTAL DRILLER is drilling while weighing 15,436 kips. LM are 2,006,680 ft-kips, and TM are -7,718 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?
N a. 3,806 kips N b. 5,751 kips Y c. 5,879 kips N d. 7,549 kips 5598: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
N a. direct contact N b. radiation Y c. convection N d. conduction 5603: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, change course and speed Y b. satisfactory, continue transit N c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 5603: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, change course and speed Y b. satisfactory, continue transit N c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 5604: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0182
Y a. Available GM 2.4 ft N b. Available GM 3.2 ft N c. Available GM 3.5 ft N d. Available GM 3.8 ft 5771: A J-chaser is used to __________.
N a. transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling vessel N b. clean chain as it is hauled into the rig N c. lower spring buoys into the water Y d. retrieve an anchor after the buoy has been lost 6253: The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to have __________.
Y a. remote ventilation shutdowns N b. remote pump shutdowns N c. alternative control stations N d. smoke and/or fire detection system 6761: Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or, from the date of manufacture, not later than __________.
N a. 6 months N b. 12 months N c. 24 months Y d. 42 months 8325: If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have a low level concentration alarm to alert personnel when H2S concentrations first reach a maximum of __________.
Y a. 10 PPM N b. 20 PPM N c. 30 PPM N d. 40 PPM 8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?
N a. 12 percent N b. 15 percent N c. 18 percent Y d. 21 percent 8491: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 50 feet, has a KGT of 52.12 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port of the longitudinal centerline. What is the list in feet?
N a. 2.7 feet to port Y b. 5.4 feet to port N c. 5.7 feet to port N d. 10.8 feet to port 8849: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently bolted flange oil hose coupling?
N a. 3 N b. 4 N c. 6 Y d. A bolt must be used in every hole. 8907: When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know __________.
N a. which medications to prescribe N b. how to diagnose an illness from symptoms Y c. the limits of your capabilities N d. how to set broken bones 9301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet. What would be the value of uncorrected KG?
Y a. 51.65 feet N b. 52.67 feet N c. 55.15 feet N d. 62.24 feet 9545: An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
Y a. lower than the center of gravity N b. at the same height as the center of gravity N c. higher than the baseline N d. on the longitudinal centerline 9613: When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?
N a. The number of discharge nozzles in the space determines the quantity released. N b. The discharge will continue until the temperature of the space returns to its normal ambient temperature. N c. The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections that are individually designated for each of the protected spaces. Y d. A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve, and is preset for each space. 9623: You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?
N a. Close the door to the room. N b. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. N c. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Y d. Break out the nearest fire hose.