USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


470: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.


477: The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of __________.


559: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 28'-08" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.


579: The letter R followed by one or more numbers indicates __________.

    N a. a vessel's identity
    N b. bearing
    N c. visibility
    Y d. distance

609: Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB?

    N a. A coastwise vessel whose route does not take it more than three miles from shore
    N b. A vessel operating on lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers
    N c. A vessel operating within three miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes
    Y d. All of the above

692: Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?

    N a. To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire spreads
    N b. To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire
    N c. To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from igniting
    Y d. To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire

789: An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.

    Y a. so as to float free
    N b. with the vessel's emergency equipment
    N c. near the wheelhouse
    N d. as far forward as possible

940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.

    N a. shape of the vessel's underwater hull remains the same
    N b. vessel's center of gravity shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull
    Y c. vessel's center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull
    N d. vessel's mean draft increases

1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)

    Y a. a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge
    N b. An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel
    N c. A good air vent of sufficient diameter
    N d. A glass tube to visually observe the fuel

1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?

    N a. Clean out plates
    N b. Fuel gauges
    N c. Drain valves
    Y d. Shut-off valves

1085: When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.

    N a. on only the forward falls
    N b. on only the after falls
    Y c. with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat
    N d. from the falls to the main deck of the vessel

1239: With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be __________.

    N a. changing in relation to the speed of the craft
    N b. less than outside air pressure
    Y c. greater than outside air pressure
    N d. equal to outside air pressure

1338: Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?

    N a. Motor gasoline
    N b. Jet fuel
    N c. Crude petroleum
    Y d. Alcohol

1449: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?

    Y a. Food waste, not comminuted or ground
    N b. Rags ground to less than 1"
    N c. Paper ground to less than 1"
    N d. None of the above

1453: The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?

    Y a. Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is difficult to extinguish.
    N b. In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height.
    N c. They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or range fires.
    N d. They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the ignition point.

1600: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

    N a. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.
    N b. The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely.
    N c. Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.
    Y d. The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs.

1759: You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.

    N a. jack down one leg at a time
    Y b. jack up first, then down
    N c. undog doors to the engine room
    N d. assemble all personnel on the main deck

1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

    N a. 24 hours prior to departure
    Y b. within a few hours before or after departure
    N c. 24 hours after departure
    N d. after the first position report

1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

    Y a. small GM
    N b. low center of gravity
    N c. stiff vessel
    N d. large GZ

2061: Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig?

    N a. In the rig safety manual
    N b. On the Certificate of Inspection
    Y c. On the Ship Station License
    N d. On the rig Watch Bill

2270: When a vessel is inclined at a small angle the center of buoyancy will __________.

    N a. remain stationary
    Y b. move toward the low side
    N c. move toward the high side
    N d. move to the height of the metacenter

2386: What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?

    N a. Two licensed GMDSS radio operators
    N b. Equipment carriage requirements
    N c. Distress alerting and response
    Y d. All of the above

2586: To which group of hydrocarbons do Benzene and Toluene belong?

    N a. Ketone
    N b. Caustic
    Y c. Aromatic
    N d. Alcohol

2801: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?

    Y a. 2
    N b. 3
    N c. 4
    N d. 5

2837: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0083

    N a. 7.7 feet
    Y b. 9.1 feet
    N c. 9.9 feet
    N d. 10.6 feet

2867: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for amidships is __________.

    N a. 2
    Y b. 3
    N c. 4
    N d. 5

2907: The number of kips necessary to change the true mean draft of a MODU one inch is known as __________.

    N a. MT1 inch
    N b. MH1 inch
    Y c. KPI
    N d. KMD

2941: The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

    N a. metacenter
    N b. center of buoyancy
    N c. center of flotation
    Y d. center of gravity

3219: The final inspection responsibility for seeing that a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo rests with the __________.

    N a. terminal operator
    N b. owner of the barge
    Y c. tankerman or person in charge of loading
    N d. charterer through the Master of the towing vessel

3229: The engine head, block, and exhaust manifold shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    Y a. water jacketed
    N b. air cooled
    N c. preheated prior to starting
    N d. drained weekly

3284: Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. 20% of the passengers carried
    Y b. 10% of the total number of persons carried
    N c. 10% of the passengers carried
    N d. 20% of the total number of persons carried

3397: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the true mean draft (draft at the center of flotation)?

    N a. 8.0 feet
    N b. 9.0 feet
    Y c. 10.0 feet
    N d. 11.0 feet

3497: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?

    Y a. To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks
    N b. To inflate the raft automatically
    N c. To test the rafts hydrostatically
    N d. None of the above

3541: The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum drilling depth of __________.

    N a. 18,400 feet
    N b. 20,600 feet
    N c. 22,800 feet
    Y d. 25,000 feet

3680: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.

    Y a. 12 to 15 times per minute
    N b. 18 to 20 times per minute
    N c. 20 to 25 times per minute
    N d. as fast as possible

3730: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.

    N a. slow and strong pulse
    N b. flushed and dry skin
    N c. slow and deep breathing
    Y d. pale and clammy skin

3895: When filling fuel-oil tank 6P on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.

    N a. 9
    N b. 10
    N c. 11
    Y d. 12

3910: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.

    N a. be of a light color
    N b. be 250 meters in length
    Y c. have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs
    N d. be made of synthetic material

3954: The float free link attached to a sea painter on an inflatable liferaft has a breaking strength of __________.

    N a. 100-134 lbs for buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 10 persons or less
    N b. 200-268 lbs for buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 11 to 20 persons
    N c. 400-536 lbs for buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 21 persons or more
    Y d. All of the above

4059: What must the owner or Master do if any of the towing vessel's required navigational safety equipment fails during a voyage?

    N a. Repair it at the earliest practicable time
    N b. Enter its failure in the log or other on board record
    N c. Consider the state of the equipment in deciding whether it is safe for the vessel to proceed
    Y d. All of the above

4763: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred between tanks 6 and 7 to level the vessel in list?

    N a. 47.2 kips tank #7 to tank #6
    N b. 23.6 kips tank #7 to tank #6
    Y c. 23.6 kips tank #6 to tank #7
    N d. 47.2 kips tank #6 to tank #7

5047: A jack-up drilling rig being towed must __________.

    Y a. turn off all lights that interfere with the navigation lights
    N b. turn on all available working lights on deck
    N c. ring the bell rapidly for five seconds once a minute
    N d. display two black diamonds in a vertical line during the day

5068: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 19'-00", AFT 24'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0171

    N a. 0.62 foot
    N b. 0.80 foot
    Y c. 0.85 foot
    N d. 0.99 foot

5427: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new LCG?

    N a. 115.79 feet AFO
    Y b. 119.18 feet AFO
    N c. 119.44 feet AFO
    N d. 126.68 feet AFO

5501: What is a major disadvantage of Di-Lok chain compared with Oil Rig Quality (stud link) chain in floating drilling rig operations?

    Y a. Shorter fatigue life
    N b. Higher weight
    N c. Lower strength
    N d. Greater expense

5533: Connecting elements of a mooring system should be fabricated from __________.

    N a. cast iron
    Y b. forged steel
    N c. stainless steel
    N d. cast steel

5694: What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?

    N a. This is the call sign of a vessel registered in Latvia.
    Y b. Is anchoring prohibited?
    N c. Will you lead me to a safe anchorage?
    N d. Interrogative

6074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0190

    N a. Available GM 4.1 ft
    N b. Available GM 4.3 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.7 ft
    Y d. Available GM 5.1 ft

6496: In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?

    N a. Mud drum
    Y b. Superheater
    N c. Economizer
    N d. Firebox

6807: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows __________.

    N a. the name of the crane operator
    N b. an entry each time the crane is used
    Y c. date and result of each rated load test
    N d. the time of day of the test

6811: A mobile offshore drilling unit crane certificate is required to be maintained __________.

    Y a. on the unit
    N b. in the company office
    N c. on file with the OCMI
    N d. on file with the American Bureau of Shipping

7051: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.

    N a. give the patient a laxative to relieve pain
    N b. give the patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain
    Y c. confine to bed until helicopter arrives
    N d. give the patient aspirin with a glass of water

7075: Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?

    N a. Major multiple fractures
    N b. Eye injuries
    N c. Back injuries with spinal-cord damage
    Y d. Airway and breathing difficulties

8161: A semisubmersible, displacing 20,500 long tons, has vertical moments of 1,060,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are discharged from a VCG of 120 feet?

    N a. 1.22 feet downward
    Y b. 1.71 feet downward
    N c. 1.75 feet downward
    N d. 2.93 feet downward

8391: What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?

    N a. Lube oil pressure gauge
    N b. Jacket water temperature gauge
    N c. Tachometer
    Y d. Exhaust pyrometer

8433: The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of __________.

    N a. one year from the date of issue
    N b. two years from the date of issue
    N c. three years from the date of issue
    Y d. four years from the date of issue

8731: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is TCG?

    Y a. 0.00 feet
    N b. 1.03 feet
    N c. 2.22 feet
    N d. 3.91 feet

9231: The transverse free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 24,000 long tons is 1.0 foot. When the MODU is deballasted by discharging 8,000 long tons of ballast, the FSMT decreases by 4,000 ft-long tons. What is the new FSCT?

    N a. 1.50 feet
    Y b. 1.25 feet
    N c. 1.00 foot
    N d. 0.83 foot

9311: Basic emergency care for third degree electrical burn is to __________.

    N a. flood the burned area with warm water for two minutes
    N b. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area
    Y c. cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility
    N d. apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth

9651: In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

    Y a. 2
    N b. 3
    N c. 4
    N d. 6