USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.


350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.


414: A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the __________.


471: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    N a. 4
    N b. 3
    Y c. 2
    N d. 1

478: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

    Y a. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
    N b. administer a liquid stimulant
    N c. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
    N d. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness

533: What is the purpose of limber holes?

    N a. To allow for air circulation
    N b. To allow for stress and strain in rough waters
    N c. To allow water in the boat to drain overboard
    Y d. To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain

614: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.

    N a. press up a slack double bottom tank on the port side
    N b. fill an empty centerline double bottom tank
    Y c. pump out a slack marine portable tank located on the portside amidships
    N d. jettison the anchors and anchor cables

640: The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its __________.

    N a. free surface
    N b. marginal stability
    Y c. reserve buoyancy
    N d. freeboard

728: When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?

    N a. 64 cubic feet
    Y b. 35 cubic feet
    N c. 100 gallons
    N d. 500 liters

803: The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

    N a. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
    N b. more than 6 short blasts
    Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
    N d. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds

1015: Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109°34'West?

    N a. D0934
    N b. LO10934W
    Y c. G10934
    N d. L10934

1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.

    N a. spray directly on the base of the fire
    Y b. flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
    N c. sweep the fire with the foam
    N d. spray directly on the surface of the fire

1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.

    N a. 4, based on the breaking strength
    N b. 5, based on the maximum allowable stress
    Y c. 6, based on the maximum working load
    N d. 8, based on the normal working load

1321: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

    Y a. Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls
    N b. Spliced into the ring on the stem post
    N c. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls
    N d. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart

1357: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9 feet and drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.9 feet.

    Y a. Tanks: DB4, DT6
    N b. Tanks: DB3, DB5, DT8
    N c. Tanks: DB6, DT7
    N d. Tanks: DB2, DT1, DT6

1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

    N a. turning the victim's head to the side to keep his airway open
    N b. positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
    N c. giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no food
    Y d. elevating the head and shoulders slightly with a pillow

1846: You are under sail on a close reach, and the wind is steady. While steady on course, you reef the mainsail and your speed slows. The apparent wind __________.

    N a. is unchanged
    N b. increases and draws aft
    N c. increases and draws forward
    Y d. decreases and draws aft

1868: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    N a. 0.56 foot
    N b. 0.96 foot
    Y c. 1.18 feet
    N d. 1.43 feet

1876: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140° relative would be __________.

    N a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    N b. close hauled on the port tack
    Y c. on a broad reach
    N d. running before the wind

1980: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

    N a. Dodecyl methacrylate
    N b. Asphalt
    N c. Camphor oil
    Y d. Latex

2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?

    N a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency.
    Y b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.
    N c. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70.
    N d. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.

2302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0056

    N a. Available GM 6.8 ft
    N b. Available GM 5.4 ft
    Y c. Available GM 4.1 ft
    N d. Available GM 3.6 ft

2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?

    N a. Each cargo tank must have a vent.
    N b. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve.
    Y c. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter.
    N d. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.

2389: The best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal is to __________.

    N a. send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation
    Y b. compose and send a brief message to your own INMARSAT-C terminal
    N c. send a message to another ship terminal
    N d. see if the send light flashes, then proper operation has been confirmed

2398: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

    N a. understanding the GMDSS console's normal operational indicators
    N b. maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log
    N c. responding to and comprehending alarms
    Y d. All of the above

2421: How many degrees are there on a compass card?

    Y a. 360°
    N b. 380°
    N c. 390°
    N d. 420°

2565: Annual inspection of MODU cranes shall be conducted by __________.

    N a. U.S. Coast Guard
    N b. the person in charge
    Y c. a qualified inspector
    N d. the crane operator

2571: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?

    Y a. Close up the entrances.
    N b. Top up the buoyancy tubes.
    N c. Prepare for the arrival of rescue units.
    N d. Decide on food and water rations.

2671: To meet the regulations governing manning requirements outside U.S. jurisdiction, a person holding a foreign license can serve in any of the following positions EXCEPT __________.

    N a. able seaman
    N b. ballast control operator
    N c. barge supervisor
    Y d. offshore installation manager

2952: Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil?

    N a. The loading dock
    Y b. The midpoint of the barge
    N c. Within 25 feet of the pump engine
    N d. Above the forward rake end

3010: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0096

    Y a. Available GM 4.07 ft
    N b. Available GM 4.60 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.69 ft
    N d. Available GM 4.81 ft

3199: You are towing a 1,000 GT gasoline tank barge which is not gas free. By regulation, cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may __________.

    N a. not be open without flame screens under any circumstances
    N b. be open without flame screens in good weather from 16 May to 15 September
    N c. be open without flame screens when the barge is empty
    Y d. be open without flame screens under the supervision of the senior crew member on duty

3252: Before any machinery is put in operation, you should __________.

    Y a. ventilate all compartments, see that the machinery is clean and there are no obstructions
    N b. just turn the key and start up
    N c. take for granted that there are no fuel leaks
    N d. assume there are no volatile fumes in the engine space

3269: What is the purpose of the liferaft's hydrostatic release?

    Y a. To release raft automatically as the ship sinks
    N b. To inflate the raft automatically
    N c. To test rafts hydrostatically
    N d. None of the above

3818: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no rescue craft is in sight, they should __________.

    Y a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
    N b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air
    N c. remove their life jackets and hold on to uninjured survivors
    N d. sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes

3843: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this quantity of ballast?

    N a. 729 ft-long tons
    N b. 6,707 ft-long tons
    N c. 19,609 ft-long tons
    Y d. 27,652 ft-long tons

3910: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.

    N a. be of a light color
    N b. be 250 meters in length
    Y c. have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs
    N d. be made of synthetic material

3916: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.

    N a. pushing up on one side
    Y b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards
    N c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder
    N d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate

4097: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    N a. 61.34 feet
    N b. 62.13 feet
    Y c. 62.35 feet
    N d. 64.00 feet

4214: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eight days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of ten days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.016, and the average TPI is 41. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    N a. 72 inches
    N b. 70 inches
    Y c. 68 inches
    N d. 64 inches

4486: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.

    N a. Maritime Advisory Council
    Y b. International Maritime Organization
    N c. International Association of Shipping
    N d. Association of Seafaring Nations

4597: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), 236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting starboard leg reaction?

    N a. 4,281 kips
    N b. 5,382 kips
    Y c. 5,459 kips
    N d. 5,537 kips

4655: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the drill water in drill water tanks #6 and #25 are discharged, what is the new draft?

    N a. 8.26 feet
    Y b. 10.66 feet
    N c. 10.88 feet
    N d. 11.10 feet

4815: What is the maximum amount of variables that may be taken aboard the COASTAL DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (drilling)?

    N a. 1000 kips
    N b. 681 kips
    N c. 89 kips
    Y d. 0 kips

4847: The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.

    N a. pressure differences in the atmosphere
    N b. the length of the hose attached to the facepiece
    Y c. the physical exertion of the person wearing the device
    N d. spaces containing poisonous vapors

5037: Where will you find the requirements for the signals that must be sounded by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed through an area of restricted visibility?

    Y a. COLREGS
    N b. MMS Rules
    N c. SOLAS Convention
    N d. Coast Pilot

5073: An obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf, shall have a lens that is visible over an arc of __________.

    N a. 60°
    N b. 90°
    N c. 180°
    Y d. 360°

5101: When a marine surveyor is employed to assist in the move of a mobile offshore drilling unit, he __________.

    N a. becomes responsible for the safe movement of the rig
    N b. relieves the Offshore Installation Manager at the moment the rig is free from the bottom
    N c. must be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    Y d. is a specialist who is hired to provide advice and guidance on aspects of the move

5645: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension reduces __________.

    N a. list
    N b. KM
    N c. KG
    Y d. GM

5857: In towing it is desirable for the tug and the MODU to ride wave crests simultaneously because __________.

    Y a. shock loading on the tow line is reduced
    N b. towing speed is improved
    N c. the MODU is more visible from the tug
    N d. the catenary of the tow line is reduced

6247: Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of liquid mud handling areas presents what possible hazard?

    N a. Toxic gasses may be present.
    Y b. Flammable gasses may be present.
    N c. Liquid muds may flood adjoining spaces.
    N d. An oxygen-deficient atmosphere may be present.

6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.

    Y a. the name of the person conducting the test
    N b. the weight of the charge
    N c. recommendations for the next test
    N d. All of the above

6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

    N a. conduct a fire drill
    N b. conduct a boat drill
    Y c. log the fore and aft draft marks
    N d. test the emergency generator

6957: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board for at least 3 months after a MODU is involved in a casualty or until advised that they are no longer needed on board by the __________.

    N a. owner
    N b. Master
    N c. person in charge
    Y d. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection

7318: A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.

    Y a. posted with instructions on the operation of the system
    N b. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
    N c. painted with red and black diagonal stripes
    N d. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting

7657: The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.

    N a. vertical center of gravity (KG)
    N b. longitudinal center of gravity (LCG)
    Y c. righting arm (GZ)
    N d. center of gravity (CG)

8431: The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the __________.

    N a. International Maritime Organization
    Y b. U.S. Coast Guard
    N c. American Bureau of Shipping
    N d. Environmental Protection Agency

8493: What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?

    N a. 59.63 feet
    N b. 60.16 feet
    N c. 61.68 feet
    Y d. 61.13 feet

8731: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is TCG?

    Y a. 0.00 feet
    N b. 1.03 feet
    N c. 2.22 feet
    N d. 3.91 feet

9293: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. The drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10.0 feet to starboard. The change in TCG is __________.

    N a. 9.00 feet starboard
    Y b. 0.50 foot starboard
    N c. 1.50 foot starboard
    N d. 1.00 foot starboard