USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


56: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is __________.


230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.


238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.


320: As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.

    N a. increases
    Y b. decreases
    N c. remains the same
    N d. may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the vessel's form

544: In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.

    N a. a ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance
    Y b. a calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
    N c. the message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation
    N d. the message following is a meteorological warning

576: Each lifeboat must be lowered and maneuvered in the water at least once every __________.

    N a. 2 months
    Y b. 3 months
    N c. 4 months
    N d. 5 months

757: Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?

    N a. A 1,000 GT tanker on a coastwise voyage
    Y b. A 200 GT tanker on an international voyage
    N c. A 300 GT tanker on an intercoastal voyage
    N d. All of the above

821: Bleeding from a vein is __________.

    Y a. dark red and has a steady flow
    N b. bright red and slow
    N c. bright red and spurting
    N d. dark red and spurting

963: Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its full rolling period to be 21.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?

    N a. 1.1 ft
    N b. 1.3 ft
    N c. 1.6 ft
    Y d. 1.8 ft

1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________.

    N a. At each crew change
    N b. Every week
    N c. Every month
    Y d. To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies

1437: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D007SA )

    Y a. F
    N b. G
    N c. J
    N d. K

1503: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

    N a. spread apart as far as possible
    N b. held as tightly against your chest as possible
    N c. in a kneeling position
    Y d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles

1541: Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?

    N a. Garbage
    N b. Hazardous substances
    N c. Oil
    Y d. All of the above

1552: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel must keep course and speed when __________.

    Y a. being overtaken
    N b. to windward of another sailing vessel
    N c. to leeward of another sailing vessel
    N d. crossing a vessel engaged in fishing

1612: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

    N a. Test the pressure gauge for correct reading.
    Y b. Weigh the cartridge.
    N c. Replace the dry chemical.
    N d. Pressure test the discharge hose.

1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________.

    N a. drowning
    N b. electrocution
    N c. poisoning
    Y d. All of the above

1741: The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system is __________.

    N a. 4%
    N b. 5%
    Y c. 8%
    N d. 10%

1743: Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called __________.

    Y a. purging
    N b. gas freeing
    N c. gas dispersion
    N d. bonding

1804: Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx 33'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 52.8 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?

    Y a. 4.83 feet
    N b. 5.12 feet
    N c. 5.46 feet
    N d. 5.85 feet

2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    N a. 22 tons
    N b. 48 tons
    Y c. 94 tons
    N d. 239 tons

2118: You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

    N a. 1.50 feet
    N b. 2.25 feet
    Y c. 2.66 feet
    N d. 2.91 feet

2207: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

    N a. both cubic meters and cubic feet
    Y b. cubic meters
    N c. both kilos and pounds
    N d. barrels of 55 gallon capacity

2361: What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port?

    Y a. The vessel is not capable of performing all required distress and safety functions.
    N b. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators.
    N c. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate.
    N d. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required.

2485: A drilling bit which is doughnut shaped to permit recovery of the center portion of the hole drilled is called a __________.

    N a. diverter bit
    N b. hole reamer
    Y c. core bit
    N d. conventional bit

2605: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft of amidships.

    N a. FWD 22'-08", AFT 26'-00"
    N b. FWD 22'-10", AFT 25'-09"
    Y c. FWD 23'-04", AFT 26'-03"
    N d. FWD 23'-05", AFT 25'-11"

2748: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.

    Y a. passengers are strapped to their seats
    N b. fuel tanks are not less than half full
    N c. sea anchor is deployed to windward
    N d. lower ballast tanks are filled with water

3017: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft trim angles is likely to have __________.

    N a. an off-center TCG
    N b. LCG greater than level-vessel LCB
    N c. KMT greater than KML
    Y d. KML less than KGL

3065: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

    Y a. Never remove the line from the rocket.
    N b. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon.
    N c. Wear asbestos gloves.
    N d. All of the above

3161: The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.

    Y a. filling completely
    N b. developing free surfaces
    N c. developing free surface moments
    N d. collapsing

3216: Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate __________.

    N a. in the engine compartment
    N b. in the fuel tank space
    Y c. above or outside the hull
    N d. at the most convenient location

3270: Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel?

    N a. 2-1/2 gallon foam extinguisher
    Y b. 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher
    N c. 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher
    N d. None of the above

3407: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

    N a. open the CO2 inflation valve
    N b. open the raft container
    Y c. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
    N d. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side

3417: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

    N a. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.
    N b. Crew members may jump into the raft without damaging it.
    N c. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.
    Y d. All of the above

3431: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet?

    N a. 2.0 feet by the head
    Y b. 4.0 feet by the head
    N c. 4.0 feet by the stern
    N d. 8.0 feet by the stern

3468: Handholds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.

    Y a. to right the raft if it capsizes
    N b. to carry the raft around on deck
    N c. for crewmen to hang on to
    N d. to hang the raft for drying

3531: The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is __________.

    Y a. 16.19 feet
    N b. 17.71 feet
    N c. 17.96 feet
    N d. 18.35 feet

3595: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of TCG?

    Y a. 0.00 on the centerline
    N b. 2.23 feet forward of amidships
    N c. 2.26 feet forward of amidships
    N d. 2.31 feet forward of amidships

3604: You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?

    N a. Switch to flag hoists.
    Y b. Broadcast "Seelonce Distress".
    N c. Broadcast "Charlie Quebec-Mayday-Quiet".
    N d. Key the microphone three times in quick succession.

3725: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.

    Y a. immerse the feet in warm water
    N b. warm the feet with a heat lamp
    N c. warm the feet at room temperature
    N d. rub the feet

3779: If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, __________.

    N a. each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
    N b. the possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by spreading out
    N c. reduce the number of liferafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible
    Y d. tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group

3996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0151

    N a. 2.85 feet
    N b. 2.65 feet
    Y c. 2.36 feet
    N d. 2.15 feet

4149: Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

    Y a. rudder angle indicator
    N b. follow-up gear
    N c. telemotor position
    N d. Rapson slide indicator

4235: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as __________.

    Y a. variable loads
    N b. stationary loads
    N c. fixed loads
    N d. basic loads

4487: Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER while floating will change the __________.

    N a. list
    N b. trim
    Y c. true mean draft
    N d. TPI

4785: What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft in a storm?

    Y a. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on.
    N b. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes.
    N c. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on.
    N d. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off.

5097: To have the ultimate authority for a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is under tow, a rig mover must __________.

    N a. hold an Able Seaman certificate and be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    Y b. hold a license as Offshore Installation Manager and be held as the person in charge of the rig
    N c. be certified by an approved classification society and be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    N d. be certified by the Minerals Management Service and be designated as the person in charge of the rig

5547: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.

    N a. increase fatigue life
    N b. eliminate the need for mooring buoys
    N c. prevent the anchor from fouling
    Y d. increase the catenary

5553: The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the __________.

    N a. holding angle
    N b. fleet angle
    Y c. fluke angle
    N d. shank angle

5665: When clear ice is present while drilling, the vertical transverse moments of the DEEP DRILLER are increased by __________.

    N a. 40,402 ft-long tons
    Y b. 42,255 ft-long tons
    N c. 45,593 ft-long tons
    N d. 49,280 ft-long tons

5741: A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an anchor handling vessel is __________.

    Y a. pelican hook
    N b. connecting link
    N c. shackle
    N d. retaining hook

6631: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.

    Y a. carried by hand to a fire
    N b. carried or rolled to a fire
    N c. recharged in the field
    N d. used on class "B" fires

6665: On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.

    Y a. posted with instructions on the operation of the system
    N b. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
    N c. painted with red and black diagonal stripes
    N d. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting

6837: With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile offshore drilling units, what must the Master or person in charge log?

    N a. The name of each person berthed in each space
    Y b. The date of each inspection of each space
    N c. The condition of each space at the beginning of a trip
    N d. The number of persons assigned to each space

7335: When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?

    Y a. Low power
    N b. Medium power
    N c. High power
    N d. Extra high power

8403: What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?

    N a. Carbon on cylinder heads
    N b. Faulty unloader
    Y c. Leaking air valves
    N d. Plugged air cooler

8673: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft. What is the value of GMT?

    N a. 0.05 foot
    N b. 1.02 feet
    N c. 2.63 feet
    Y d. 4.34 feet

8702: An oil fire is classified as class __________.

    N a. D
    N b. C
    Y c. B
    N d. A

8751: When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of __________.

    N a. 35 feet
    N b. 32 feet
    N c. 30 feet
    Y d. 25 feet

9557: Longitudinal moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.

    N a. VCG or KG
    N b. LCB
    Y c. LCG
    N d. TCG

9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

    N a. the midships house
    Y b. in the pumproom
    N c. at the vent header
    N d. at the main deck manifold