USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


208: What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid?


390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.


679: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.


719: A fire hose has a __________.

    N a. male coupling at both ends
    N b. female coupling at both ends
    N c. female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the hydrant end
    Y d. male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end

724: Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.

    N a. MAYDAY
    N b. PAN-PAN
    Y c. SECURITE
    N d. SOS

747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?

    N a. The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire.
    N b. They can be used only when the compartment is gas free.
    Y c. They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps.
    N d. No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed.

785: 33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning __________.

    Y a. oil and hazardous material transfer operations
    N b. vessel construction and design
    N c. operation of nautical school ships
    N d. lifesaving and firefighting equipment

903: On a vessel displacing 8,000 tons, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 45 feet long and 45 feet wide is partly filled with salt water?

    Y a. 1.22 feet
    N b. 1.16 feet
    N c. 1.13 feet
    N d. 1.10 feet

1024: The firing of a red star signal may mean __________.

    N a. "This is the best place to land"
    N b. "You are seen - assistance will be given as soon as possible"
    N c. "Tail block is made fast"
    Y d. "Slack away"

1062: Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of __________.

    Y a. CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers
    N b. foam fire extinguishers
    N c. water (stored pressure) fire extinguishers
    N d. All of the above

1100: The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.

    N a. limit switches
    N b. emergency disconnect switch
    Y c. governor brake
    N d. position of the counterweight on the brake handle

1357: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9 feet and drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.9 feet.

    Y a. Tanks: DB4, DT6
    N b. Tanks: DB3, DB5, DT8
    N c. Tanks: DB6, DT7
    N d. Tanks: DB2, DT1, DT6

1363: Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.

    N a. have someone standing by
    N b. make sure there is sufficient air within the locker
    N c. de-energize the windlass
    Y d. All of the above

1432: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )

    N a. 9'-10"
    Y b. 9'-06"
    N c. 9'-04"
    N d. 9'-02"

1529: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

    N a. until the end of the voyage
    N b. until the next Coast Guard inspection
    N c. one year
    Y d. two years

1545: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing hooks to prevent __________.

    N a. the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated accidentally while the boat is being lowered
    N b. operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne
    N c. the falls from rehooking after they have been released
    Y d. accidental unhooking when the falls become slack

1578: You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.

    N a. under any circumstances
    Y b. unless authorized by the Captain of the Port
    N c. unless radio communication is set up between the vessels
    N d. unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks

1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

    Y a. one mast
    N b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    N c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    N d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast

1906: Your vessel displaces 930 tons and measures 156'L by 38'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (46'L by 28'B by 8'D) is filled with 1.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 36.8 tons)

    N a. 2.16 feet
    Y b. 2.44 feet
    N c. 2.75 feet
    N d. 2.99 feet

1919: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050° relative would be __________.

    Y a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    N b. reaching on a starboard tack
    N c. on a broad reach on a port tack
    N d. running before the wind

1930: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.

    N a. locked up
    Y b. readily accessible for use
    N c. inaccessible to passengers
    N d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times

1965: Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUE?

    N a. There is minimal hazard potential as long as the Operator notifies other system users aboard the vessel that the potential exists.
    Y b. The INMARSAT-B ray dome normally prevents nearby persons from being able to determine the direction of the internal antenna.
    N c. There is equally significant hazard potential from all INMARSAT antenna systems.
    N d. FCC type acceptance regulations require that radiated power be kept to a minimum so as to prevent hazard potential.

2013: What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons?

    N a. 4
    N b. 3
    Y c. 2
    N d. 1

2066: A boom vang __________.

    Y a. holds the boom down and flattens the main sail
    N b. draws the head of the sail to windward
    N c. tautens the standing rigging
    N d. douses the gaff topsail

2448: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.

    N a. 3 nautical miles
    N b. 5 nautical miles
    Y c. 12 nautical miles
    N d. 25 nautical miles

2605: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft of amidships.

    N a. FWD 22'-08", AFT 26'-00"
    N b. FWD 22'-10", AFT 25'-09"
    Y c. FWD 23'-04", AFT 26'-03"
    N d. FWD 23'-05", AFT 25'-11"

2678: What happens to the pulling power of a winch when retrieving wire rope?

    N a. It increases
    Y b. It decreases
    N c. It remains the same
    N d. It fluctuates, depending on the gearing system

2838: How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. 6
    N b. 5
    Y c. 3
    N d. 2

2874: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 22° inclination.

    N a. 1.2 feet
    Y b. 1.8 feet
    N c. 2.4 feet
    N d. 3.0 feet

2941: The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

    N a. metacenter
    N b. center of buoyancy
    N c. center of flotation
    Y d. center of gravity

3069: Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" applied to a vessel's equipment, means approved by the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. American Bureau of Shipping
    N b. Congress of the United States
    Y c. Commandant of the Coast Guard
    N d. Board of Fire Underwriters

3115: For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes __________.

    N a. list to stabilize at an angle of loll
    Y b. list to decrease
    N c. trim to decrease
    N d. list to increase

3239: Your tow includes a loaded chlorine barge. After inspecting the tow, the mate reports that he hears a hissing sound coming from the safety valves. Where will you find information on emergency procedures concerning the uncontrolled release of cargo?

    N a. Barge's Certificate of Inspection
    Y b. Cargo Information Card on your towboat
    N c. Cargo Manifest or loading paper
    N d. Dangerous Cargo Regulations

3242: A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. for every passenger on board
    Y b. for every person on board, plus 10% childrens' life jackets
    N c. for every person on board, plus 10% additional on upper deck in box
    N d. or buoyant cushion for every person on board plus 10% for children

3317: You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

    N a. The nature of the distress
    N b. The time of day
    N c. Your radio call sign
    Y d. Your position by latitude and longitude

3347: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of the righting moment?

    N a. 18,118 foot-tons
    N b. 9,059 foot-tons
    N c. 4,529 foot-tons
    Y d. 0 foot-tons

3518: The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?

    N a. WA
    N b. RQ
    N c. CS
    Y d. RPT

3639: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?

    Y a. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
    N b. At half hour intervals
    N c. At one hour intervals
    N d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel

3764: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

    N a. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing
    N b. Diarrhea and frequent urination
    Y c. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen
    N d. Extreme sweating and reddening skin

3775: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this amount of fuel?

    Y a. -17,416 ft-long tons
    N b. -874 ft-long tons
    N c. 3,992 ft-long tons
    N d. 17,416 ft-long tons

3901: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.

    N a. 48
    Y b. 47
    N c. 37
    N d. 23

3957: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed from 8 to 6 feet?

    Y a. 80.00 long tons
    N b. 77.75 long tons
    N c. 83.34 long tons
    N d. 106.67 long tons

4015: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for transverse free surface effects?

    N a. 53.78 feet
    Y b. 54.82 feet
    N c. 55.47 feet
    N d. 56.01 feet

4160: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

    N a. 0.9 feet
    Y b. 2.1 feet
    N c. 4.0 feet
    N d. 5.9 feet

4326: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 279.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0159

    N a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet
    N b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    N c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    Y d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet

4541: What is the weight in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the sounding in the tank is 8 feet 2 inches?

    N a. 202.16 kips
    Y b. 204.60 kips
    N c. 206.87 kips
    N d. 209.34 kips

5276: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 18'-07", AFT 23'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 92 tons of seawater.

    Y a. FWD 19'-04.9", AFT 22'-08.7"
    N b. FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 22'-08.0"
    N c. FWD 19'-05.7", AFT 22'-07.7"
    N d. FWD 19'-06.3", AFT 22'-07.1"

5387: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

    N a. Nitric oxide
    N b. Carbon dioxide
    N c. Hydrogen sulfide
    Y d. Carbon monoxide

5447: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

    N a. failure of mooring lines 3 or 4
    Y b. failure of mooring lines 7 or 8
    N c. leak in ballast tank #2S
    N d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S

5616: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?

    N a. 1
    N b. 2
    N c. 3
    Y d. 4

5907: The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.

    Y a. person in charge
    N b. Coast Guard marine inspection officer
    N c. company safety director
    N d. entire crew

6675: According to the MODU regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________.

    N a. on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    Y b. on a sign next to the liferaft
    N c. on the Certificate of Inspection
    N d. in the Operations Manual

6721: Each hand portable, semi-portable and fixed fire extinguishing unit on a MODU must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.

    N a. six weeks
    N b. six months
    Y c. twelve months
    N d. two years

7431: What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?

    N a. Daylight before noon
    N b. At noon
    N c. Daylight after noon
    Y d. During darkness

8601: Offshore drilling units must have at least two ring buoys with water lights that, when released from the mounting rack, activate a __________.

    Y a. smoke signal
    N b. steam whistle
    N c. battery powered horn
    N d. radio signal

8671: The plans, for use during emergencies aboard the DEEP DRILLER, are readily available in the __________.

    N a. wheelhouse under glass
    N b. pump room
    N c. OIM's office
    Y d. ballast control room

8973: For a floating vessel, the result of subtracting KG from KM is the __________.

    N a. height of the metacenter
    N b. height of the righting arm
    N c. height of the center of buoyancy
    Y d. metacentric height

9233: A ballast tank in a floating MODU has a maximum FSML of 7,000 ft-long tons. If the tank is converted to drill water storage, what would be the new maximum FSML?

    N a. 7,179 ft-long tons
    N b. 7,000 ft-long tons
    Y c. 6,825 ft-long tons
    N d. 2,125 ft-long tons

9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.

    N a. accumulators
    Y b. control pods
    N c. consoles
    N d. shuttle controls

9631: Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.

    N a. the same control releasing the CO2
    Y b. a separate control to release the CO2
    N c. two separate controls to release the CO2
    N d. three separate controls to release the CO2