This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.
N a. has off-center weights N b. is taking on water N c. has a greater draft forward than aft Y d. has poor stability 150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
N a. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full N b. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty N c. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full Y d. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty 169: The signal T 0735 means __________.
N a. The Greenwich mean time is 0735 Y b. The zone time is 0735 N c. The latitude is 7° 35' N d. The longitude is 7° 35' 213: Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.
Y a. unbalanced rudders N b. balanced rudders N c. contraguide rudders N d. straight rudders 769: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
Y a. a painter N b. red smoke flares N c. a jackknife N d. a signal mirror 851: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________.
N a. CO2 N b. dry chemical N c. water Y d. foam 1191: According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for providing adequate ventilation for a battery storage area is to prevent __________.
N a. accumulation of carbon dioxide gas that chokes the battery Y b. accumulation of explosive and toxic gases the battery can generate N c. mildew or dry rot in the battery box N d. battery failure including battery case meltdown caused by excessive heat 1194: Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
N a. Open the liferaft casing. N b. Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation. Y c. Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side. N d. After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft. 1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________.
N a. At each crew change N b. Every week N c. Every month Y d. To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies 1298: If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be __________.
Y a. dry powder N b. water fog N c. CO2 N d. steam 1298: If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be __________.
Y a. dry powder N b. water fog N c. CO2 N d. steam 1403: Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?
N a. The tank must be gas freed. N b. The tank must be ballasted. Y c. The tank must be vented to the atmosphere. N d. The bypass valve must also be closed. 1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?
Y a. One approved Category 1 EPIRB N b. Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs N c. One approved Class B EPIRB N d. Two approved Class B EPIRBs 1660: If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?
Y a. Replace the batteries. N b. Check the sampling tube for blockage. N c. Adjust the final reading by the amount the needle is displaced from zero. N d. Replace the platinum filament. 1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.
N a. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks N b. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks N c. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam Y d. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion 1818: In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?
N a. This equipment must be carried at all times at sea regardless of where the vessel will be operating. Y b. This equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3. N c. This equipment satisfies in full the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A2. N d. HF SITOR equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3, but INMARSAT equipment must be carried to satisfy the requirement when the vessel is in Sea Area A4. 2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
Y a. 55 tons N b. 99 tons N c. 140 tons N d. 360 tons 2135: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0051
N a. 395 tons Y b. 530 tons N c. 750 tons N d. 990 tons 2234: As a vessel falls off the wind from close-hauled to a beam reach, the tendency for the vessel to move sideways through the water will __________.
N a. increase Y b. decrease N c. change only if the vessel comes about on the opposite tack N d. not change 2311: What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump?
Y a. Vapor pockets in the flow stream N b. Rough impeller surfaces N c. Worn wearing rings N d. Heavy fluid in the flow stream 2327: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower?
N a. 5 N b. 4 N c. 3 Y d. 2 2482: If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.
N a. above the "explosive range" N b. within the "explosive range" Y c. below the "explosive range" N d. None of the above 2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products?
N a. American Bureau of Shipping N b. National Cargo Bureau Y c. Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard N d. Vessel owner 2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.
N a. 1.6 feet N b. 2.9 feet N c. 3.8 feet Y d. 4.6 feet 2939: How many distress flares and smoke signals are small passenger vessels on oceans, coastwise or Great Lakes routes required to carry?
Y a. Six red hand flares and six orange smoke signals in a watertight container N b. Two ring life buoys with attached water lights N c. A battery operated red-flasher lantern N d. All of the above 2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
N a. only when there is positive stability N b. only when there is negative stability N c. only when there is neutral stability Y d. at all times 3212: Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that __________.
N a. the gasoline tank is full Y b. the bilges, cabins, etc. are thoroughly ventilated N c. you have fresh water on board N d. Each of the above is followed 3223: After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________.
N a. buoyant cushion for each person on board Y b. inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack N c. inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached N d. approved rescue boat 3256: Gasoline vapor tends to collect __________.
N a. above the floor plates of the bilges N b. above the carburetor level Y c. at the lowest point of the bilge areas N d. at no particular level 3269: What is the purpose of the liferaft's hydrostatic release?
Y a. To release raft automatically as the ship sinks N b. To inflate the raft automatically N c. To test rafts hydrostatically N d. None of the above 3282: What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry grade B petroleum products?
N a. Gooseneck vents only N b. Gooseneck vents with flame screens Y c. Individual pressure-vacuum relief valves with flame screens N d. Straight vents with flame screens 3330: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. One percent N b. Five percent N c. Seven percent Y d. Ten percent 3738: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.
Y a. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised N b. administer a liquid stimulant N c. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet N d. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness 3800: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.
N a. spread apart as far as possible N b. held as tightly against your chest as possible N c. in a kneeling position Y d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles 3840: The painter of the inflatable liferaft has a length of __________.
N a. 25 feet Y b. 100 feet N c. 200 feet N d. 400 feet 3883: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
N a. A sailing vessel N b. A fishing vessel Y c. A non self-propelled vessel N d. A towing vessel 3921: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has -3,600 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 10P and 10S to level the unit in list?
Y a. 25.1 long tons N b. 50.2 long tons N c. 62.8 long tons N d. 252.1 long tons 3979: In the illustration shown, where would you find the knife? (D014SA )
Y a. Item #2 N b. item #4 N c. item #12 N d. item #16 4054: Which navigational equipment is required to be tested and logged before a towing vessel embarks on a voyage of more than 24 hours?
N a. Compass and/or swing meter N b. Radar(s) and VHF radio(s) N c. LORAN-C and/or GPS receiver(s) Y d. All required navigational equipment, without exception 4065: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse free surface correction (FSCT) is obtained from the total of transverse free surface moments (FSMT) by __________.
N a. adding the TCG N b. subtracting the TCG N c. multiplying by displacement Y d. dividing by displacement 4112: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.
N a. remain on course and hold speed N b. remain on course but slack the speed N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed Y d. change course and put the stern to the wind 4165: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?
N a. 61.19 feet N b. 62.80 feet N c. 62.99 feet Y d. 62.94 feet 4189: You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)
N a. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to sea. Y b. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany. N c. You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to compensate. N d. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical mark upon arrival in the tropical zone. 4217: A mat-supported jack-up is best suited for drilling in locations with bottom conditions which are __________.
Y a. soft and level N b. firm and uneven N c. sloping N d. coral 4401: Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.
N a. the hull being in the storm wave zone Y b. increased overturning moments N c. reduced exposed area N d. increased static leg loading 5201: If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________.
Y a. saltwater eductor system N b. raw water tower pumps N c. mud pumps N d. preload pumps 5283: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use __________.
Y a. starboard drill water pump N b. starboard saltwater service pump N c. starboard ballast pumps N d. port ballast pumps and crossover system 5341: For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.
Y a. center of each lower hull guide N b. center of each upper hull guide N c. top of the jack house N d. bottom of the hull 5495: Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to __________.
Y a. fatigue N b. corrosion N c. distortion N d. abrasion 5533: Connecting elements of a mooring system should be fabricated from __________.
N a. cast iron Y b. forged steel N c. stainless steel N d. cast steel 5647: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension increases __________.
Y a. KG N b. GM N c. KM N d. free surface moments 5705: The design of a spring buoy helps __________.
N a. to retrieve the anchor Y b. to prevent chafing at the lower end of the pendant N c. to mark the rig's approach to the location N d. an anchor handling vessel back toward the rig 6051: The connection facilities for the international shore connection required on board offshore drilling units in international service must be located to provide access __________.
Y a. to each side of the drilling unit N b. as close as possible to the control house N c. on the drill floor N d. on each level of the accommodation space 6625: Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the standards of the __________.
Y a. Federal Aviation Administration N b. Corps of Engineers N c. National Fire Protection Association N d. National Transportation Safety Board 6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.
Y a. tour reports N b. hull reports N c. machinery repair record book N d. deck equipment log 7951: What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system for powering drilling rig machinery?
N a. Commutators are eliminated. N b. Several machines can be operated from a DC bus. N c. SCR systems are simpler. Y d. Required power can be drawn from a common AC bus. 8597: On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested __________.
N a. daily N b. weekly Y c. monthly N d. yearly 8848: Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________.
N a. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air Y b. regular checks of bilge levels N c. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise N d. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water 8885: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft?
Y a. 19 feet 9 inches N b. 20 feet 4 inches N c. 20 feet 8 inches N d. 21 feet 4 inches 9263: A casing string that is run below the previous casing string, but does not extend to the wellhead is called a __________.
N a. production string Y b. liner N c. packer N d. squnch joint