USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


140: Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?


204: When signaling by flashing light, a correctly received repetition of a signal is acknowledged by the signal __________.


242: You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?


567: On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________.

    Y a. the equipment must be approved by the Commandant
    N b. it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment
    N c. it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment regardless of its condition
    N d. it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector

613: The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

    N a. shorter than the rowing oars
    N b. the same length as the rowing oars
    Y c. longer than the rowing oars
    N d. unrelated to the length of the rowing oars

618: You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?

    N a. Advise the Chief Mate and Master.
    N b. Release carbon dioxide into the hatch.
    Y c. Sound the general alarm.
    N d. Lead a fire hose to the hatch.

661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________.

    N a. day
    N b. week
    Y c. month
    N d. 3 months

671: When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, the signal __________.

    N a. must be followed by "T", "M" or "C" to indicate if it is true, magnetic or compass
    N b. should be preceded by the letters CSE
    N c. should include the compass deviation if a compass course is signaled
    Y d. always indicates a true course unless indicated otherwise in the message

689: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.

    N a. walked around until he is back to normal
    N b. given several shots of whiskey
    Y c. kept lying down and warm
    N d. allowed to do as he wishes

799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.

    N a. conspicuously marked
    N b. stowed anywhere
    N c. left on deck
    Y d. secured or stowed out of the way

799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.

    N a. conspicuously marked
    N b. stowed anywhere
    N c. left on deck
    Y d. secured or stowed out of the way

921: You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by __________.

    N a. looking at the gauge
    N b. checking the nameplate data
    N c. weighing by hand
    Y d. weighing on a properly calibrated scale

928: A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?

    N a. A
    N b. B
    Y c. C
    N d. D

997: Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?

    Y a. Water spray
    N b. Foam
    N c. Carbon dioxide
    N d. Dry chemical

1007: What is the BEST conductor of electricity?

    N a. Carbon dioxide
    N b. Distilled water
    N c. Fresh water
    Y d. Salt water

1071: Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines?

    N a. Annealed copper tubing
    N b. Nickel-copper tubing
    N c. Copper-nickel tubing
    Y d. Seamless steel pipe or tubing

1323: How should latitude 51°48.7'S be written when preparing an AMVER report?

    Y a. 5149S
    N b. 51.8S
    N c. 0578S
    N d. 52S

1434: Halon fire extinguishers are NOT effective when used on which types of fires?

    N a. Fires in electrical equipment
    N b. Flammable oils and greases
    N c. Class "A" fires in ordinary combustibles
    Y d. Materials containing their own oxygen

1539: The AMVER system requires __________.

    N a. sailing plans to be sent before departure
    N b. more frequent reports in heavy weather
    N c. arrival reports to be sent within 8 hours of arrival
    Y d. a position report within 24 hours of departure

1754: A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly moving flame through the piping is called a __________.

    N a. flame arrestor
    N b. flame screen
    Y c. detonation arrestor
    N d. detonation blocker

1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

    N a. 24 hours prior to departure
    Y b. within a few hours before or after departure
    N c. 24 hours after departure
    N d. after the first position report

1781: Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?

    N a. 406 MHz via EPIRB
    N b. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via INMARSAT
    N c. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies
    Y d. All of the above

1915: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

    N a. apparent wind moves aft
    Y b. heeling moment increases
    N c. side slip decreases
    N d. mainsheet must be eased

2019: You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

    N a. 0.54 foot (0.16 meter)
    Y b. 1.06 feet (0.32 meter)
    N c. 1.35 feet (0.41 meter)
    N d. 1.64 feet (0.50 meter)

2239: You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________.

    N a. put the wind off the beam and sheet in
    N b. put the wind off the stern and ease all sheets
    Y c. bring the vessel's head into the wind and let the sails luff
    N d. raise the centerboard when running before the wind

2241: If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________.

    N a. loaded more on the port side forward
    N b. loaded equally on both sides with more forward
    Y c. loaded equally on both sides with more aft
    N d. allowed to sit anywhere

2468: What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid?

    N a. Methyl alcohol
    N b. Heptane
    Y c. Mineral spirits
    N d. iso-Hexane

2699: Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 45° if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 3.8 feet
    Y b. 2.7 feet
    N c. 1.9 feet
    N d. 0.9 foot

2787: You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached?

    N a. 60 feet
    N b. 70 feet
    N c. 80 feet
    Y d. 90 feet

2844: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center.

    Y a. 0.4 foot
    N b. 1.4 feet
    N c. 1.8 feet
    N d. 2.6 feet

2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.

    N a. only when there is positive stability
    N b. only when there is negative stability
    N c. only when there is neutral stability
    Y d. at all times

3398: Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?

    Y a. Oil level
    N b. Flow of cooling water
    N c. Exhaust discharge
    N d. All of the above

3399: Which sizes of fire extinguishers are considered to be semi-portable? (Uninspected vessel regulations)

    N a. I, II, III, IV, and V
    N b. I, II, and III only
    N c. II, III, and IV only
    Y d. III, IV, and V only

3423: What is the trim of a jack-up with forward draft of 11 feet and aft draft of 13.75 feet?

    N a. 1.38 feet by the stern
    N b. 1.45 feet by the stern
    Y c. 2.75 feet by the stern
    N d. 2.90 feet by the stern

3489: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.

    N a. set the water lights on immersion
    N b. release the dye-marker from the liferaft
    Y c. free the liferaft from a sinking vessel
    N d. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder

3563: Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGL is 1.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GML?

    N a. 0.15 foot
    N b. 1.00 foot
    N c. 1.24 feet
    Y d. 1.39 feet

3641: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

    N a. Very pistol
    Y b. orange smoke signal
    N c. air horn
    N d. lantern

3671: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    N a. 2P
    N b. 9P
    N c. C2BS
    Y d. C2BP

3703: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    N a. 58.78 feet
    Y b. 60.68 feet
    N c. 61.53 feet
    N d. 62.78 feet

3907: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________.

    N a. two rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
    N b. three rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
    Y c. four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
    N d. five rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type

4138: Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is __________.

    N a. on line to the fire main
    Y b. kept available for use on the fire main at all times
    N c. capable of being connected to the fire main
    N d. rated at or above 125 psi

4171: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    N a. 10.07 feet
    N b. 8.80 feet
    Y c. 7.59 feet
    N d. 5.45 feet

4623: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the bilge discharge is normally through the __________.

    Y a. overboard discharge
    N b. dump valves
    N c. skimmer tank
    N d. sump valves

5281: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room while in transit. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may __________.

    Y a. use port drill water pump
    N b. use port saltwater service pump
    N c. use port ballast pumps
    N d. use starboard ballast pumps and crossover system

5787: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 8%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.

    N a. 6.5%
    Y b. 5.0%
    N c. 2.5%
    N d. 0.0%

5791: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring lines 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about __________.

    N a. 375 kips
    Y b. 330 kips
    N c. 275 kips
    N d. 220 kips

5858: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    N a. 1050 foot-tons
    N b. 1065 foot-tons
    N c. 1090 foot-tons
    Y d. 1130 foot-tons

5901: With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the __________.

    Y a. tug losing power
    N b. tow line parting
    N c. bridle twisting
    N d. rig broaching

6493: A helicopter making a round trip from a helodeck with refueling capabilities to an unmanned platform will take 45 minutes each way. The helicopter should be carrying enough fuel to last __________.

    N a. 45 minutes
    N b. 1 hour and 15 minutes
    N c. 1 hour and 30 minutes
    Y d. 2 hours

6767: A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.

    N a. working on the rig floor
    Y b. working over water
    N c. working on the pipe racks
    N d. operating line throwing equipment

6817: How long must the records of tests and inspections of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU be retained on board?

    N a. 6 months
    N b. 1 year
    N c. 3 years
    Y d. Until the next inspection for certification

8063: Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguishers used on MODU's should have the propellant cartridge weighed every __________.

    N a. 3 months
    N b. 6 months
    Y c. 12 months
    N d. 2 years

8115: When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, you should __________.

    N a. open all valves on the discharge side to permit improved flow
    N b. close the valve on the discharge side of the pump to re-acquire suction
    N c. close the valve on the suction side of the ballast pump to re-prime the pump
    Y d. shut down one pump

8333: Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.

    N a. unusually large concentrations of H2S
    Y b. smaller than normal concentrations of H2S
    N c. moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions
    N d. longer exposure to H2S concentrations

8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters?

    N a. Air, water, electric
    Y b. Air, hydraulic, electric
    N c. Metered, hydraulic, automatic
    N d. Air, emergency, hydraulic

8393: Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or __________.

    N a. air starters
    N b. carburetors
    Y c. natural aspiration
    N d. air receivers

8440: Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

    Y a. reduce initial stability
    N b. increase righting moments
    N c. increase GM
    N d. All of the above

9267: Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. What should this entry include?

    N a. The time required to lower a lifeboat
    N b. The time required to raise a lifeboat
    Y c. The date of inspection and condition of the winch
    N d. All of the above

9303: When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.

    N a. increase
    Y b. decrease
    N c. are directly proportional
    N d. remain unchanged

9481: The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.

    N a. trim
    Y b. change of trim
    N c. final trim
    N d. change of draft