This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
N a. a righting line N b. red hand flares Y c. pendants N d. drinking water 155: When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?
Y a. Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water. N b. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil. N c. Throw sand on the water to sink the oil. N d. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers 258: In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________.
N a. application of CPR N b. removal of any foreign objects N c. administration of oxygen Y d. for traumatic shock 275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using __________.
N a. skimmers N b. straw Y c. chemical agents N d. sawdust 470: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.
N a. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15% Y b. labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible N c. replaced in its proper location regardless of weight N d. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% 900: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT __________.
N a. mean draft Y b. trim N c. displacement N d. deadweight 927: The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is __________.
Y a. water N b. carbon dioxide N c. foam N d. dry chemical 1052: The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________.
N a. frostbite N b. skin burns Y c. asphyxiation N d. an explosive reaction 1079: Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?
Y a. Low oxygen alarm N b. Low pressure alarm N c. Scrubber high water level alarm N d. Deck seal low water alarm 1230: The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________.
N a. control the fore and aft motion of a lifeboat during lowering N b. control the outboard swing of a lifeboat during lowering N c. provide suspensions for the manropes Y d. hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading 1309: On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector?
N a. Updraft N b. Two barrel N c. Four barrel Y d. Downdraft 1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Post a lookout. N c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y d. Pick up other survivors. 1520: When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.
N a. fuel supply valve should be closed Y b. hatches, doors, and oar ports should be closed N c. air cylinder shut-off valve should be closed N d. engine should be shut off 1562: Drinking salt water will __________.
N a. protect against heat camps N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water Y d. dehydrate you 1562: Drinking salt water will __________.
N a. protect against heat camps N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water Y d. dehydrate you 1695: In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?
Y a. Hard rubber N b. Canvas N c. Leather N d. Sponge rubber 1699: On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to __________.
Y a. provide elasticity N b. increase the strength N c. reduce the cost N d. reduce the weight 1770: On a survival craft VHF radio precautions shall be taken to prevent the inadvertent selection of which channel __________.
N a. 6 N b. 8 Y c. 16 N d. 22 1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.
N a. 24 hours prior to departure Y b. within a few hours before or after departure N c. 24 hours after departure N d. after the first position report 2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than __________.
N a. 1.5 inches N b. 2.0 inches Y c. 2.5 inches N d. 3.0 inches 2121: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
N a. smoke flares Y b. a life line N c. a hydrostatic release N d. a signal mirror 2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?
N a. Buoyant cushion N b. Buoyant vest Y c. Life jacket N d. Ring life buoy 2474: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of cargo are loaded 86 feet forward of amidships.
N a. FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-04" N b. FWD 18'-10", AFT 21'-01" N c. FWD 19'-10", AFT 21'-08" Y d. FWD 19'-11", AFT 21'-04" 2568: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.
N a. 0.3 foot N b. 1.3 feet Y c. 1.5 feet N d. 1.8 feet 2596: Drinking salt water will __________.
Y a. dehydrate you N b. prevent seasickness N c. be safe if mixed with fresh water N d. protect against heat cramps 2711: The number of able seamen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.
N a. American Bureau of Shipping code N b. Department of Energy regulations N c. Mineral Management Service rules Y d. Certificate of Inspection 2742: A vessel with a small GM will __________.
N a. have a large amplitude of roll Y b. provide a comfortable ride for the crew and passengers N c. have drier decks in heavy weather N d. be likely to have cargo shift in heavy weather 2851: Kevlar sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.
N a. left in the sunlight N b. stowed wet Y c. folded frequently N d. washed with soap and water 3200: Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. The removal of a watertight bulkhead N b. A minor overhaul of the propulsion machinery N c. Renewal of a FCC Certificate for a radiotelephone N d. All of the above 3208: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________.
N a. catching rain water Y b. stability N c. easy drainage N d. maneuverability 3312: By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
Y a. readily accessible N b. securely stowed N c. stored in sealed containers N d. stowed with the emergency provisions 3367: After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.
Y a. serves as a sea painter N b. detaches automatically N c. is used to rig the boarding ladder N d. is cut immediately as it is of no further use 3457: Using a sea anchor will __________.
Y a. reduce your drift rate N b. keep the liferaft from turning over N c. aid in recovering the liferaft N d. increase your visibility 3534: When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT required to show information on the __________.
N a. fire detection system N b. portable fire extinguishers Y c. lifeboats, liferafts, and life preservers N d. ventilation systems 3577: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude rolls of 10° with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________.
N a. continue towing operations at a 19.5 foot draft N b. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and continue towing operations Y c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motions N d. alter course to bring the wind off the starboard beam 3598: If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to __________.
N a. hold the survival craft's head up into the seas N b. generate orange smoke N c. seal leaks in rubber rafts Y d. send radio homing signals to searching aircraft 4057: In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.
N a. adding the free surface correction N b. subtracting the free surface correction N c. multiplying by displacement Y d. dividing by displacement 4146: The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.
N a. relieves excessive fluid pressure Y b. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained N c. synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position N d. returns the rudder to mid-position when the wheel is released 4154: Coast Guard Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________.
N a. 1 hour N b. 4 hours N c. 8 hours Y d. 12 hours 4161: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?
N a. 51.50 feet N b. 52.54 feet Y c. 52.88 feet N d. 53.54 feet 4222: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0157
Y a. 273.5 ft N b. 288.8 ft N c. 292.3 ft N d. 305.3 ft 4276: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.
Y a. in or near the pilothouse N b. on the bridge wing N c. always in the pilothouse N d. only when another vessel is in sight 4313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for leg strength and __________.
Y a. stability N b. variable load N c. environmental load N d. load line 4363: Scouring is the result of __________.
Y a. interruption of the normal current flow by the footing N b. elevating in mud-slide zones N c. penetrating rapidly through a hard crust into weaker soils N d. extracting legs from soils with high cohesion 4385: While elevated as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), winds are 57 knots and current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wave height allowed for drilling?
N a. 30 feet N b. 33 feet Y c. 35 feet N d. 40 feet 4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.
N a. OIM's quarters N b. OIM's office N c. control house Y d. bilge pit 4623: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the bilge discharge is normally through the __________.
Y a. overboard discharge N b. dump valves N c. skimmer tank N d. sump valves 5418: Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved __________.
N a. life floats N b. inflatable buoyant apparatus N c. inflatable liferafts Y d. Any of the above 5705: The design of a spring buoy helps __________.
N a. to retrieve the anchor Y b. to prevent chafing at the lower end of the pendant N c. to mark the rig's approach to the location N d. an anchor handling vessel back toward the rig 5727: Given the same water depth and line tension, the length of the ground cable of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain compared to the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/ft wire rope mooring line will be __________.
N a. indeterminable N b. identical N c. shorter Y d. longer 6580: The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as __________.
Y a. refractory N b. the screen wall N c. the water wall N d. fire plate 6626: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.
N a. 11,650 tons N b. 11,800 tons Y c. 12,000 tons N d. 12,250 tons 7128: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.
Y a. 20 seconds N b. 40 seconds N c. one minute N d. two minutes 7427: What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?
Y a. About 20 miles N b. 50 - 100 miles N c. 100 - 150 miles N d. 150 - 200 miles 8191: During a severe storm while the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, on board loads must be shifted so that the TCG is on the centerline and the LCG is __________.
N a. 40.00 feet AF0 N b. 68.33 feet AF0 Y c. 119.44 feet AF0 N d. 160.33 feet AF0 8283: When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?
Y a. About 4-5 minutes N b. About 8-10 minutes N c. About 12-15 minutes N d. About 18-20 minutes 8285: The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened if __________.
N a. you are entering a space containing poisonous vapors N b. you are entering a space containing explosive gases Y c. the regulator of the breathing apparatus malfunctions N d. the facepiece of the breathing device is too tight 8287: Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the __________.
Y a. machinery spaces N b. cargo compartments N c. living quarters N d. galley 8891: Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
N a. U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA) N b. Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA) N c. Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) Y d. Pressure-Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) 9098: When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should __________.
N a. tie up to the rescue vessel N b. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick Y c. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel N d. transfer all personnel immediately