This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
15: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.
N a. you first start to receive fuel N b. hoses are being blown down Y c. final topping off is occurring N d. hoses are being disconnected 233: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.
N a. lower ballast tanks are filled with water N b. fuel tanks are not less than half full Y c. passengers are strapped to their seats N d. sea anchor is deployed to windward 254: If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board, you would hoist the flag signal __________.
Y a. AM N b. AL N c. AN 1 N d. MA 275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using __________.
N a. skimmers N b. straw Y c. chemical agents N d. sawdust 286: On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within __________.
N a. 1 minute Y b. 2 minutes N c. 4 minutes N d. 6 minutes 342: Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to the __________.
N a. Coast Guard Y b. vessel owner or owner's agent N c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration N d. National Fisheries Service 502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________.
N a. be kept as high and as far inboard as possible N b. not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to another N c. have some means to make them watertight Y d. All of the above 577: All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?
N a. At least two lifeboats Y b. A radiotelephone N c. A radio direction finder N d. None of the above 622: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.
N a. lower ballast tanks are filled with water Y b. passengers are strapped to their seats N c. sea anchor is deployed to windward N d. fuel tanks are not less than half full 630: Reserve buoyancy is __________.
N a. also called GM N b. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight N c. affected by the number of transverse watertight bulkheads Y d. the watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline 637: The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.
Y a. midnight N b. noon N c. beginning of the watch N d. any convenient time 723: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is __________.
Y a. red N b. white N c. yellow N d. green 831: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
N a. heating surfaces adjacent to the fire N b. leaving combustibles in the endangered area Y c. shutting off the oxygen supply N d. All of the above 892: While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________.
N a. secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders N b. continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2 Y c. retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning N d. make sure all doors and vents are secured 1101: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?
Y a. Rub the toes briskly. N b. Elevate the foot slightly. N c. Rewarm rapidly. N d. Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary. 1194: Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
N a. Open the liferaft casing. N b. Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation. Y c. Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side. N d. After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft. 1233: The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is __________.
N a. property damage less than $25,000 N b. no injury which requires more than first aid treatment N c. death or injury to a shipyard worker or harbor worker not resulting from the vessel casualty Y d. All of the above 1234: When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________.
N a. approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the current N b. drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the bow while the seas carry the boat toward the beach N c. approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet breaking seas on the bow Y d. rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue tripped between breakers 1467: Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?
N a. 204 tons Y b. 207 tons N c. 210 tons N d. 213 tons 1537: How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?
N a. V19.9 N b. 120°W N c. 119.9W Y d. 11956W 1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?
N a. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. N b. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. N c. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. Y d. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. 1930: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.
N a. locked up Y b. readily accessible for use N c. inaccessible to passengers N d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times 1972: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?
Y a. If you ease the sheets and change heading, you can sail faster but not so close to the wind. N b. If you ease the sheets you will be in irons. N c. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you can sail closer to the wind and decrease leeway. N d. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you will luff. 1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?
N a. AMVER Y b. SafetyNET N c. NAVTEX N d. INMARSAT-M SES 2325: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0058
N a. 395 tons N b. 530 tons N c. 750 tons Y d. 990 tons 2342: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 11'-09". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
Y a. 9069 tons N b. 9172 tons N c. 9207 tons N d. 9244 tons 2465: The element that supports the weight of the drill stem, allows the drill stem to rotate, and provides a pressure-tight seal and passageway for the drilling mud to be pumped down the inside of the drill stem is called the __________.
Y a. swivel N b. bail N c. kelly N d. cock 2520: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)?
N a. Aluminum N b. Nickel Y c. Copper or copper alloys N d. Stainless steel 2550: According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids?
N a. One Y b. Two N c. Three N d. None 2767: Forces within a drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is __________.
Y a. list N b. heel N c. trim N d. flotation 2990: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 30'-08". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0092
N a. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-01" N b. FWD 29'-03", AFT 29'-11" Y c. FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-09" N d. FWD 29'-07", AFT 29'-07" 3061: When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should __________.
N a. remove their lifejackets to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel N b. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel Y c. remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person at a time N d. enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel 3150: Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 4 lb. carbon dioxide N b. 4 lb. dry chemical Y c. 15 lb. carbon dioxide N d. 12 gallon foam 3251: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.
N a. must be wet before it will release N b. should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency N c. will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually Y d. must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically 3286: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0119
N a. 270.6 ft N b. 261.2 ft Y c. 250.5 ft N d. 246.8 ft 3531: The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is __________.
Y a. 16.19 feet N b. 17.71 feet N c. 17.96 feet N d. 18.35 feet 3536: There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________.
Y a. the lack of cooling effect on heated materials N b. that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pump N c. that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases N d. there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space 3620: How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. OCK TOW BER N b. O RI AN Y c. OSS CAH N d. OA KAM 3912: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.
N a. protect your life preserver by holding it above your head Y b. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel N c. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first N d. wear very light clothing 4060: After an item of required safety equipment on a towing vessel fails, the owner or Master must consider all of these factors before continuing the voyage, EXCEPT the ___________ .
N a. weather conditions, including visibility Y b. estimated time of arrival promised to the customer N c. safety of the vessel, considering the other traffic in the area N d. dictates of good seamanship 4127: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?
N a. 0.45 foot Y b. -0.45 foot N c. -1.78 feet N d. -2.68 feet 4141: How much additional solid weight could be loaded at a VCG of 189.7 feet on the DEEP DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling)? Assume ballast added or discharged to maintain draft is done so at 15 feet above the baseline.
N a. 279.2 long tons Y b. 314.2 long tons N c. 404.2 long tons N d. 461.9 long tons 4231: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?
N a. 225 N b. 235 N c. 245 Y d. 265 4251: What are the maximum acceptable levels of ice and snow accumulations on the COASTAL DRILLER?
N a. 3 inches N b. 2 inches N c. 1 1/4 inches Y d. none 4463: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than __________.
N a. 11,777 kips N b. 13,158 kips Y c. 14,158 kips N d. 17,280 kips 5281: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room while in transit. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may __________.
Y a. use port drill water pump N b. use port saltwater service pump N c. use port ballast pumps N d. use starboard ballast pumps and crossover system 5307: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.
N a. 26.8 feet N b. 26.3 feet N c. 1.8 feet Y d. 1.3 feet 5467: What is an advantage of the 6x19 class of wire rope over the 6x37 class of wire rope of the same diameter?
N a. Greater holding power N b. Better fatigue life N c. Resistance to elongation Y d. Resistance to corrosion 6856: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
N a. conduction Y b. convection N c. radiation N d. direct contact 6903: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding under what condition?
N a. At the owner's discretion Y b. If it creates a hazard to navigation N c. If the grounding lasts over 48 hours N d. Under any condition 6908: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it is usually off-center and __________.
N a. increases displacement Y b. increases the height of the center of gravity N c. increases draft N d. reduces the pocketing of free surface 7037: Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.
N a. severe nausea and cramps Y b. muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness N c. sudden thirst and craving for candy N d. severe agitation and desire to get out of closed spaces 7041: A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should __________.
N a. give the victim artificial respiration N b. completely restrain the victim N c. give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbital Y d. keep the victim from injuring him or herself 7121: CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.
N a. the discharge valve is open N b. the control box glass is broken Y c. pressure from the control cylinders is detected N d. the control cylinders have been completely discharged 8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters?
N a. Air, water, electric Y b. Air, hydraulic, electric N c. Metered, hydraulic, automatic N d. Air, emergency, hydraulic 8397: What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?
N a. Oil temperature N b. Manifold pressure Y c. Exhaust gas temperature N d. Fuel consumption 8481: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AF0 has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?
N a. 8.0 feet N b. 9.0 feet Y c. 11.0 feet N d. 12.0 feet 8871: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, what is the new KG?
N a. 54.76 feet N b. 55.76 feet Y c. 57.22 feet N d. 57.76 feet 9306: When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?
N a. The generator that's still running will motorize. N b. Both generators will immediately shut down. N c. The running generator's circuit breaker will immediately trip on overload. Y d. The stalled generator's circuit breaker will trip on reverse power. 9445: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the __________.
Y a. metacentric height N b. height of the righting arm N c. fore and aft perpendicular N d. height of the center of buoyancy