This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
41: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.
N a. secure the engine room ventilation N b. secure the machinery in the engine room N c. evacuate all engine room personnel Y d. All of the above 73: A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
Y a. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards N b. should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards N c. will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate N d. must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself 85: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
N a. shut off all electrical power N b. remove combustibles from direct exposure N c. cool the bulkhead around the fire Y d. close all openings to the area 108: Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
N a. speed healing Y b. prevent infection N c. reduce inflammation N d. increase blood circulation 606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.
N a. 4° Y b. 8° N c. 12° N d. 16° 678: Fire may be spread by which means?
N a. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces N b. Direct radiation N c. Convection Y d. All of the above 684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is __________.
N a. 2132 kilohertz Y b. 2182 kilohertz N c. 2670 kilohertz N d. 2750 kilohertz 686: You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________.
Y a. during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom N b. during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank N c. when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action N d. shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather 711: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.
Y a. 12 to 15 times per minute N b. 18 to 20 times per minute N c. 20 to 25 times per minute N d. as fast as possible 836: What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 851: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________.
N a. CO2 N b. dry chemical N c. water Y d. foam 1128: Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system?
N a. A threefold purchase, rove to advantage N b. A spare rudder, stowed so it can be readily mounted Y c. A suitable hand tiller, approved by the OCMI N d. All of the above 1184: If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?
N a. Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the raft container. Y b. Attach the cord to a fixed object on the ship. N c. You should stand on the cord. N d. Attach the cord to the special pad eye on the "raft davit launcher". 1542: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-10", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0041
N a. 1.91 feet N b. 2.09 feet Y c. 2.21 feet N d. 2.48 feet 1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?
N a. LPG is compatible with all cargos. N b. LPG's high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile. N c. Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers. Y d. The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only. 1838: When a sail is reefed, the sail area is _______ .
Y a. reduced N b. increased N c. widened N d. unchanged 2150: You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)
Y a. 0.1 foot N b. 0.3 foot N c. 0.5 foot N d. 0.9 foot 2341: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0060
N a. Available GM 5.26 ft Y b. Available GM 4.24 ft N c. Available GM 4.11 ft N d. Available GM 4.01 ft 2353: Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?
N a. A copy of the IMO master plan of shore-based facilities N b. Station logs N c. 47 CFR Part 80 FCC Rules and Regulations Y d. All of the above 2363: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 22.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?
N a. 76° N b. 84° N c. 89° Y d. 98° 2415: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0062
Y a. 1171.5 tons N b. 1311.0 tons N c. 1503.0 tons N d. 1710.5 tons 2416: Which statement is TRUE?
N a. GMDSS radio logs are required to contain entries pertaining to all incidents connected to radio communication service which appear to be of importance to the safety of life at sea. N b. All distress communications must be entered in the GMDSS radio log. Y c. Both of the above N d. None of the above 2469: According to the regulations, cargo pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1965) handling grade C liquid cargo shall have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.
N a. 1 minute Y b. 3 minutes N c. 5 minutes N d. 10 minutes 2482: If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.
N a. above the "explosive range" N b. within the "explosive range" Y c. below the "explosive range" N d. None of the above 2497: In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means __________.
N a. releasing the tongs from the drill pipe N b. welding hard metal to tool joints Y c. hoisting drill pipe out of and returning it to the wellbore N d. sliding a joint of drill pipe down to the pipe rack ramp 2630: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire?
N a. Alcohol foam N b. CO2 N c. Dry chemical Y d. Water fog 2762: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination.
N a. 1.9 feet Y b. 2.1 feet N c. 3.5 feet N d. 4.2 feet 2812: What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT?
N a. Penetrations are prohibited. Y b. Sluice valves are not permitted. N c. Each bulkhead must be stepped at its midpoint. N d. All of the above 3121: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.
Y a. cool the bulkheads around the fire N b. remove combustibles from direct exposure N c. close all openings to the area N d. shut off all electric power 3177: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0112
N a. FWD 25'-07", AFT 27'-01" N b. FWD 25'-02", AFT 27'-06" Y c. FWD 24'-10", AFT 27'-10" N d. FWD 24'-08", AFT 28'-00" 3201: The stamped full weight of a 100-lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged?
N a. 282 lbs. N b. 294 lbs. N c. 300 lbs. Y d. 304 lbs. 3207: The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft operate __________.
N a. by turning the globe clockwise N b. by a switch at the light N c. by a light sensor Y d. automatically when the raft is inflated 3263: What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?
N a. Sea water is heated to boiling temperature under a vacuum. N b. Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. Y c. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. N d. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. 3420: How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
N a. OO-NO Y b. OO-NAH-WUN N c. NUM-EV-WUN N d. NEW-MAL-WON 3489: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.
N a. set the water lights on immersion N b. release the dye-marker from the liferaft Y c. free the liferaft from a sinking vessel N d. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder 3644: When should distress flares and rockets be used?
N a. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel Y b. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by a rescue vessel N c. At one hour intervals N d. At half hour intervals 3669: The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.
N a. volume of liquid in the tank Y b. displacement of the vessel N c. location of the tank in the vessel N d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel 3909: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?
N a. It shall be fired at least once in every three months. Y b. A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months. N c. Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually. N d. No drills are required. 4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?
N a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area. N b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port. N c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing. Y d. All of the above 4183: What is the shift in KG if all the liquid mud is dumped when the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load #3 (Preparing to Drill)?
N a. 1.26 feet downward Y b. 1.51 feet downward N c. 2.77 feet downward N d. 1.47 feet downward 4625: The order to abandon a MODU should only be given by the __________.
Y a. Offshore Installation Manager N b. Barge Engineer N c. Ballast Control Operator N d. Rig Safety Supervisor 4751: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #20. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with this transfer?
Y a. 565 ft-kips N b. 900 ft-kips N c. 2603 ft-kips N d. 3168 ft-kips 4771: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what would be the new draft?
N a. 11.04 feet N b. 10.88 feet Y c. 10.72 feet N d. 9.02 feet 4814: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.
N a. 19'-00" N b. 18'-07" N c. 18'-04" Y d. 18'-01" 5091: Obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf must be displayed __________.
N a. at all times Y b. between sunset and sunrise N c. whenever visibility is restricted N d. whenever vessels approach within one-half mile 5157: A MODU displacing 10,000 tons uses its crane to lift a 20 ton load, already aboard, to a height of 5 feet above the deck. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50 feet above the load. What is the change in KG?
N a. No change Y b. 0.1 foot N c. 0.2 foot N d. 1.0 foot 5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.
Y a. counterflood in 1P N b. counterflood in 10S N c. pump from C1P N d. pump from C3S 5479: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine the __________.
Y a. location of the center of gravity of the light ship N b. position of the center of buoyancy N c. position of the metacenter N d. maximum load line 5531: With adaptor blocks/chocks removed from an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be __________.
N a. 20° N b. 30° N c. 40° Y d. 50° 5835: The initial tension set in the mooring system of a MODU establishes the __________.
N a. maximum water depth at which drilling operations can be conducted Y b. distance the unit can be offset from the wellbore before the restoring forces oppose the environmental forces N c. maximum time it will take to disconnect the riser package in the event of a storm N d. minimum amount of ballast needed to keep the vessel at operating draft during normal drilling operations 6105: The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.
Y a. burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas N b. loss of the mooring system N c. rotating and flying debris N d. heat damage to helicopter structure 6276: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.
N a. 5.6 feet forward Y b. 5.1 feet forward N c. at the center of flotation N d. 0.8 foot aft 7007: What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?
N a. Water should be applied in a fine spray. N b. The burned area should be immersed in water. N c. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment. Y d. Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently. 7645: What abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
N a. BK Y b. KB N c. CB N d. BM 7685: The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
N a. volume of liquid in the tank Y b. displacement of the MODU N c. location of the tank in the MODU N d. height of the center of gravity of the MODU 8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?
N a. 12 percent N b. 15 percent N c. 18 percent Y d. 21 percent 8397: What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?
N a. Oil temperature N b. Manifold pressure Y c. Exhaust gas temperature N d. Fuel consumption 8875: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Excessive motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?
N a. 6.23 feet N b. 5.11 feet N c. 4.86 feet Y d. 4.06 feet 8971: The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.
N a. MT1 inch N b. ML1 inch N c. MH1 inch Y d. TPI 9323: A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.
N a. rich to burn Y b. lean to burn N c. cool to burn N d. dense to burn