This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which is __________.
N a. 25 miles from shore N b. 12 miles from shore N c. 3 miles from shore Y d. None of the above are correct. 526: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
N a. 6 N b. 12 N c. 18 Y d. 24 532: Fire hose should be washed with __________.
N a. salt water and a wire brush N b. caustic soap Y c. mild soap and fresh water N d. a holystone 660: Reserve buoyancy is __________.
Y a. the watertight part of a vessel above the waterline N b. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight N c. transverse watertight bulkheads N d. a measure of metacentric height 737: When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?
N a. The waters in which vessels may operate N b. Special construction limitations N c. Grades of cargo which may be carried Y d. Type of vessel to which the regulation applies 779: A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?
N a. 64.3 tons N b. 69.6 tons Y c. 81.6 tons N d. 116 tons 825: ABYC equipment standards are published by the __________.
N a. Association of Boat and Yacht Classifiers Y b. American Boat and Yacht Council N c. American Boat and Yacht Convention 1991 N d. American Boat and Yacht Club 866: The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.
N a. determined by the Master N b. specified by the Coast Guard Y c. specified by the manufacturer N d. None 965: What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
N a. Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on deck. Y b. No stowage container for immersion suits may be capable of being locked. N c. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated using light machine oil or mineral oil. N d. Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be replaced. 1209: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.
N a. allow for cutting out branch circuits Y b. prevent overloading the circuits N c. reduce voltage to the branch circuits N d. permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits 1335: What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?
N a. The hydrostatic release N b. Nothing N c. A Rottmer release Y d. The weak link in the painter line 1518: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do?
Y a. Keep well clear of the vessel because she is on fire and has dangerous cargo on board or she is leaking dangerous cargo. N b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is requesting to communicate. N c. Approach the vessel with caution because she is dragging her anchor. N d. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a tug. 1526: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?
N a. Foam N b. Dry chemical Y c. Water (cartridge-operated) N d. Carbon dioxide 1534: Which statement is TRUE?
Y a. You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility. N b. You need not keep a record of dumping ground garbage in to the sea more than 25 miles offshore. N c. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped. N d. You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship. 1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?
Y a. A bolt must be used in every hole. N b. 6 N c. 4 N d. 3 1822: Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold?
N a. Lack of oxygen N b. Methane gas N c. Hydrogen sulfide gas Y d. Carbon monoxide 1867: Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to the sea you must __________.
N a. notify the U.S. Coast Guard N b. make an entry in the Official Logbook Y c. keep a record for two years N d. No action is required if you are more than 25 miles from land and no plastic materials are dumped. 1881: What does a SART signal sound or look like?
N a. It transmits "SOS" and the vessel's name and position in slow speed Morse Code. Y b. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the innermost dot indicating the SART's position. N c. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the outermost dot indicating the SART's position. N d. None of the above 1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
N a. Class A EPIRBs N b. Class B EPIRBs Y c. L-Band EPIRBs N d. Category I EPIRBs 1950: The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be __________.
N a. inspected weekly N b. stowed in locked compartments Y c. readily accessible N d. tested yearly 1970: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?
Y a. Octanol N b. Acetonitrile N c. Hog grease N d. Carbon black hose 1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?
N a. AMVER Y b. SafetyNET N c. NAVTEX N d. INMARSAT-M SES 2174: You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?
N a. Less than the flammable range N b. Within the flammable range Y c. Over the flammable range N d. The explosimeter is defective and giving a false reading. 2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.
Y a. temporary guide base N b. permanent guide base N c. guide frame N d. foundation template 2844: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center.
Y a. 0.4 foot N b. 1.4 feet N c. 1.8 feet N d. 2.6 feet 2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.
Y a. the letter "E" N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit N c. a no-smoking symbol N d. the word "DANGER" 2966: Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. 3 months in any 12 month period since it was last hauled out N b. 6 months in the 3 year period since it was last hauled out N c. 12 months in the 5 year period since it was last hauled out N d. whenever ownership or management changes 3006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0094
N a. FWD 26'-03", AFT 27'-08" N b. FWD 26'-08", AFT 25'-07" Y c. FWD 25'-06", AFT 26'-11" N d. FWD 26'-11", AFT 25'-06" 3184: The center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
N a. only when there is positive stability N b. only when there is negative stability N c. only when there is neutral stability Y d. at all times 3266: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0117
Y a. FWD 17'-11", AFT 22'-07" N b. FWD 17'-09", AFT 23'-01" N c. FWD 17'-05", AFT 23'-04" N d. FWD 17'-02", AFT 23'-04" 3339: What is acceptable flame screening?
N a. A fitted single brass screen of 10 x 10 mesh Y b. A fitted stainless steel screen of 30 x 30 mesh N c. A fitted single stainless steel screen of 15 x 15 mesh N d. Two fitted brass screens of 10 x 15 mesh spaced 1/2 inch apart 3376: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are _____________,
N a. permitted for drawing fuel samples N b. permitted for draining fuel from lines N c. permitted for bleeding air from lines Y d. prohibited 3409: To launch a liferaft by hand, you should __________.
N a. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and it will inflate by itself N b. detach the operating cord, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate N c. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the operating cord Y d. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord 3437: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the trim by the stern?
N a. 2.0 feet N b. 2.4 feet Y c. 3.0 feet N d. 6.0 feet 3556: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.
Y a. compass N b. one 50 meter line N c. one can opener N d. All of the above 3585: When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach with the wind __________.
N a. astern and the victim just off the bow N b. ahead and the victim just off the bow N c. just off the bow and the victim to windward Y d. just off the bow and the victim to leeward 3600: How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Y a. TAY-RAH-TREE N b. BEES-SOH-THREE N c. NUM-ERL-THREE N d. TRIC-THREE 3611: Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.
N a. every 6 months after initial installation N b. every 12 months after initial installation N c. every 24 months after initial installation Y d. on or before the expiration date of the power source 3772: The abandon ship signal sounded by the vessel's whistle is __________.
N a. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast N b. more than 6 short blasts Y c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast N d. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds 3903: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is __________.
N a. 33 N b. 36 Y c. 46 N d. 48 3910: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.
N a. be of a light color N b. be 250 meters in length Y c. have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs N d. be made of synthetic material 4213: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of four seconds. What would be the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limit of the legs?
N a. 6.3 degrees N b. 5.0 degrees N c. 3.5 degrees Y d. 2.0 degrees 4219: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eleven days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
N a. 85 inches Y b. 82 inches N c. 80 inches N d. 78 inches 4239: Either one approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system is required to protect the engine room on towing vessels whose construction was contracted for before __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. April 29, 2005 N b. April 29, 2004 Y c. August 27, 2003 N d. February 1, 2002 4295: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs so that the can tips are __________.
Y a. 60.5 feet below the hull N b. 48.5 feet below the hull N c. 11.6 feet below the hull N d. 1.2 feet below the hull 4317: Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during normal transit based on __________.
Y a. leg strength N b. variable load N c. environmental load N d. load line 4336: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5486 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0160
N a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet N b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet Y c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet N d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet 4346: The EPIRB on board your vessel is required to be tested __________.
N a. weekly Y b. monthly N c. quarterly N d. yearly 4677: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?
N a. 47.49 feet N b. 49.16 feet Y c. 50.82 feet N d. 50.93 feet 5354: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.
N a. 17'-00" N b. 16'-10" N c. 16'-07" Y d. 16'-04" 5616: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?
N a. 1 N b. 2 N c. 3 Y d. 4 6013: On a MODU, size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.
N a. hand portable N b. all purpose N c. fixed extinguishers Y d. semi-portable 6255: Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.
N a. immediately after restoring vital services Y b. immediately N c. following control of flooding N d. following establishment of fire boundaries 6401: Why must the drilled hole be filled with drilling mud when tripping the drill string out of the hole?
N a. To maintain circulation to the mud pits N b. To compensate for MODU heave N c. To keep the mud agitated Y d. To prevent reduction of fluid head on the formations 6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.
Y a. the name of the person conducting the test N b. the weight of the charge N c. recommendations for the next test N d. All of the above 7607: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.
N a. righting arm N b. metacentric radius N c. height of the center of buoyancy Y d. height of the center of gravity 8217: What is the purpose of a striker plate?
N a. Provides surface for applying force on machinery Y b. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob N c. Absorbs machinery vibration N d. Prevents valve stem over-travel 8235: What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?
N a. Direction is unimportant N b. Depends on seat configuration Y c. From below the seat N d. From above the seat 9187: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.
N a. before you enter the water Y b. after you enter the water N c. after one hour in the water N d. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy 9607: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.
Y a. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed N b. put the wind off either beam N c. put the stern into the wind and increase speed N d. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed