This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
N a. has fired a torpedo during a drill Y b. is about to rise to periscope depth N c. is on the bottom in distress N d. is disabled and unable to surface 93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________.
N a. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued N b. get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel N c. immediately head for the nearest land Y d. remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position 137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the __________.
N a. Master N b. Chief Mate Y c. Chief Engineer N d. First Assistant 393: A sea anchor is __________.
N a. a heavy anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in deep water Y b. a cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect N c. a pad eye to which the sea painter is made fast N d. made of wood if it is of an approved type 747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?
N a. The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire. N b. They can be used only when the compartment is gas free. Y c. They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps. N d. No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed. 890: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT __________.
N a. metacentric height N b. mean draft Y c. moment to trim one inch N d. deadweight 989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.
N a. area of the body burned N b. source of heat causing the burn Y c. layers of skin affected N d. size of the burned area 1057: The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.
N a. removing the oxygen Y b. cooling the fire below the ignition temperature N c. removing combustible material N d. diluting combustible vapors 1100: The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.
N a. limit switches N b. emergency disconnect switch Y c. governor brake N d. position of the counterweight on the brake handle 1106: On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines?
N a. In diesel installations only N b. In gasoline installations only Y c. In both diesel and gasoline installations N d. In neither diesel nor gasoline installations 1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.
N a. white Y b. green N c. yellow N d. red 1303: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________.
Y a. the engine air intakes N b. the fuel tanks N c. a separate pipe leading to the bilges N d. a suitable absorbant material 1650: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.
Y a. be drier N b. be heavier N c. be more heat resistant N d. not cling to vertical surfaces 1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. The true wind is a little abaft your beam, at just under 25 knots. N b. The apparent wind at the top of your mast will be slightly stronger than 25 knots and slightly farther forward than the wind at deck level. N c. If you turn to a close reach, the apparent wind will reduce in strength. Y d. None of the above are true. 1786: Which statement concerning reserve sources of energy for GMDSS is FALSE?
N a. While the ship is at sea, there must be available at all times a supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations and to charge any batteries used as part of a reserve source of energy. Y b. Both the VHF and MF/HF installations must be simultaneously supplied. N c. A means of ensuring a continuous supply of electrical power must be provided to all GMDSS equipment that could be affected by an interruption in power. N d. If a uninterrupted power supply or equivalent is used to supply power to the ship's GPS receiver or other source of positional information, a means must be provided to ensure the continuous supply of the information in the event of a failure to the ship's main or emergency source of power. 1813: On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas, recreational and hospital areas that are adjacent to or immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint locker, washroom, or toilet space must be made __________.
N a. watertight N b. weathertight Y c. odorproof N d. soundproof 1884: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Unless the rules require otherwise, a sailing vessel must keep out of the way of __________.
N a. an overtaking vessel N b. a pilot vessel on station N c. another sailing vessel on a crossing course Y d. a vessel trawling 1934: Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
N a. Radio Direction Finder (RDF) Y b. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz N c. Survival Craft Transceiver N d. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz 2086: A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.
N a. metacenter N b. center of buoyancy N c. center of flotation Y d. center of gravity 2100: You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 20 tons N b. 60 tons Y c. 100 tons N d. 400 tons 2108: Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?
N a. A cargo handling room N b. A space in which cargo hose is stored N c. An enclosed space containing cargo piping Y d. All of the above 2373: An uncontrolled flow of gas, oil, or other well fluids into the atmosphere is called a __________.
N a. flow N b. breakout N c. kick Y d. blowout 2379: Regulations require that access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo, shall be __________.
N a. away from galleys, living quarters, or navigation spaces N b. only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems Y c. from the open deck N d. isolated from sources of vapor ignition 2389: The best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal is to __________.
N a. send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation Y b. compose and send a brief message to your own INMARSAT-C terminal N c. send a message to another ship terminal N d. see if the send light flashes, then proper operation has been confirmed 2428: What is the flash point of iso - Hexane?
Y a. -10°Fahrenheit N b. 20°Centigrade N c. 68°Fahrenheit N d. 152°Centigrade 2538: According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees F) of __________.
N a. 65 N b. 80 - 100 N c. 110 - 140 Y d. 150 - 430(cc) 2561: The weight of the loaded personnel carrier, when transferring personnel from a MODU with a crane, must not exceed __________.
N a. 2/3 of the static rated load at the lift radius N b. 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius N c. 1/5 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of the line used Y d. 1/10 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used 2690: Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________.
N a. more harmful to sea life than lighter oils N b. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils Y c. less harmful to sea life than lighter oils N d. not a real threat to marine life 2714: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
N a. 63 N b. 66 Y c. 71 N d. 77 2767: Forces within a drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is __________.
Y a. list N b. heel N c. trim N d. flotation 2816: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. 30 feet long Y b. 60 feet long N c. 90 feet long N d. 120 feet long 2961: The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
Y a. posted on board under glass, if practical N b. posted on the dock where passengers are embarked N c. retained at the owner's principal place of business N d. kept on file by the Collector of Customs 3075: Although KG for a MODU in lightweight is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________.
N a. KM is small Y b. KM is high N c. BL is small N d. KB is large 3377: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet loads 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?
N a. 52.0 feet N b. 57.5 feet Y c. 58.5 feet N d. 64.0 feet 3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.
N a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire Y b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system N c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system N d. use high-expansion foam 3739: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?
N a. Revive the person with smelling salts. N b. Loosen the clothing. N c. Lay the person horizontally. Y d. Give pain reliever. 3761: Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.
Y a. increased appetite and thirst N b. decreased appetite and thirst N c. gain in weight N d. elevated temperature 3807: For the DEEP DRILLER, What are the vertical moments for a sounding of 10 feet in tank C3P?
N a. 1,055 foot-tons Y b. 4,754 foot-tons N c. 14,621 foot-tons N d. 17,113 foot-tons 3826: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or survival craft. How much water per day should you permit each person to have after the first 24 hours?
N a. 1 can Y b. 1 pint N c. 1 quart N d. 1 gallon 3935: To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using the #2 bilge pump, open port-side valve __________.
N a. 28 N b. 36 N c. 41 Y d. 42 3972: The external recognition light can be seem up to two miles and is shown as item number __________. (D014SA )
N a. 2 N b. 3 Y c. 6 N d. 16 4024: In the towing vessel fire protection regulations, all of the following are fire detection requirements, EXCEPT that _____________ .
N a. the control panel must have labels for all switches and indicator lights N b. the detection system must be powered from two sources, with the switchover being either manual or automatic N c. there must be a circuit-fault detector test-switch in the control panel Y d. none of the above 4108: A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. four years N b. three years N c. two years Y d. one year 4109: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
N a. Subchapter B N b. Subchapter D N c. Subchapter F Y d. Subchapter T 4268: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Y a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. N c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. N d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires twice the time to climb a ladder than without the suit. 4307: To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70 knots?
N a. 0.0 feet N b. 1.2 feet N c. 25.0 feet Y d. 60.5 feet 4315: Curve A in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during severe storm conditions during transit based on __________.
Y a. stability and leg strength N b. variable load N c. environmental load N d. load line 4663: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #7 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new TCG?
N a. -0.15 foot N b. 0.00 foot Y c. 0.15 foot N d. 0.29 foot 5413: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the TCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom, and the drill floor is skidded 8 feet to port?
N a. -0.52 foot Y b. -0.33 foot N c. -0.17 foot N d. 0.52 foot 5627: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the weather lines should be adjusted so that several lines carry about the same tension, and the leeward lines are __________.
N a. tensioned to reduce weather mooring line tensions Y b. paid out to reduce weather mooring line tensions N c. adjusted so that at least 1,000 feet of chain lie along the bottom N d. adjusted so that the vertical component of chain tension at the lower fairlead is not excessive 5701: The vessel motion that can significantly affect mooring line tensions on a MODU is __________.
N a. roll N b. yaw Y c. surge N d. pitch 5825: The tension on an anchor cable increases so that the angle of the catenary to the seabed at the anchor reaches 10 degrees. How will this affect the anchor in sandy soil?
N a. It will have no effect. N b. It will increase the holding power. Y c. It will reduce the holding power. N d. It will cause the anchor to snag. 5947: Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads that meet the specifications of the __________.
N a. American Petroleum Institute Y b. National Standard Fire hose Coupling N c. American Society of Mechanical Engineers N d. Underwriter's Laboratories, Inc. 6497: The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the blades turning is __________.
N a. a helicopter carrying cargo only Y b. a turbine-equipped helicopter N c. a Sikorsky N d. a helicopter carrying injured personnel in an emergency situation 7121: CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.
N a. the discharge valve is open N b. the control box glass is broken Y c. pressure from the control cylinders is detected N d. the control cylinders have been completely discharged 8222: Which will improve stability?
N a. Closing watertight doors Y b. Pumping the bilges N c. Loading cargo on deck N d. Consuming fuel from a full tank 8223: What is the purpose of a check valve?
N a. Passes air but not liquid N b. Regulates liquid flow Y c. Permits flow in one direction only N d. Passes liquid but not air 8903: The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.
N a. apply ointment to the burned area Y b. flood the affected area with water N c. wrap the burn with sterile dressing N d. apply an ice pack to the burned area 8981: The important initial stability parameter, GM, is the __________.
Y a. metacentric height N b. height of the metacenter above the keel N c. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel N d. height of the center of gravity above the keel 9431: Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.
N a. BL N b. GMT N c. FSCT Y d. KG