This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
280: In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an "open boat" is a vessel __________.
N a. that is used for charter fishing or tours and is open to the public N b. on which gambling and consumption of alcoholic beverages is permitted N c. that is docked and open for visitors Y d. that is not protected from entry of water by means of a complete weathertight deck 303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which is __________.
N a. 25 miles from shore N b. 12 miles from shore N c. 3 miles from shore Y d. None of the above are correct. 361: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?
N a. Flame safety lamp N b. Combustible gas indicator Y c. Oxygen indicator N d. H2S meter 454: Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.
N a. 13 Y b. 16 N c. 19 N d. 23 618: You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?
N a. Advise the Chief Mate and Master. N b. Release carbon dioxide into the hatch. Y c. Sound the general alarm. N d. Lead a fire hose to the hatch. 623: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 645: A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.
N a. the cognizant OCMI N b. superintendent of the shoreside facility N c. local fire department Y d. person in charge of the transfer 812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
Y a. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge N b. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire N c. over the top of the fire N d. at the main body of the fire 915: Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels?
N a. Protection where people or equipment can contact the pipe. N b. Piping must be arranged so that water backflow cannot reach the engine exhaust ports N c. Dry exhaust pipe ending at the transom should be located as far outboard as possible Y d. All of the above 982: In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher is limited to __________.
N a. 2 to 4 feet Y b. 3 to 8 feet N c. 9 to 12 feet N d. 10 to 15 feet 1059: Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water?
N a. Up to 3 days Y b. 8 to 14 days N c. 15 to 20 days N d. 25 to 30 days 1083: On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be __________.
Y a. made of non-ferrous metal, and be a flare or non-bite flareless type N b. an interlocking type N c. a silver-soldered type N d. an asbestos covered type 1318: The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is __________.
Y a. water N b. carbon dioxide N c. dry chemical N d. foam 1585: Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.
N a. 12 hours N b. 1 day Y c. 2 days N d. 4 days 1610: An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.
Y a. a mattress N b. spilled liquids such as oil or paint N c. high voltage electrical gear N d. a trash can 1775: You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid pressure of __________.
N a. 70 psi Y b. 105 psi N c. 140 psi N d. 210 psi 1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?
N a. 1.96 feet Y b. 2.24 feet N c. 2.45 feet N d. 2.68 feet 1891: What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?
N a. Signal absorption by the ionosphere N b. Heavy sea swells Y c. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-cm radar N d. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-cm radar 2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
N a. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable INMARSAT unit. N b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. Y c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them to the survival craft. N d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. 2168: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?
N a. compression Y b. tension N c. shear N d. racking 2312: Which statement is TRUE concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene?
Y a. 3000 ppm is endurable for 30 - 60 minutes (single exposure) N b. 500 - 1000 ppm for 30 - 60 minutes will produce definite irritation to the trachea N c. 5.5 ppm for 1 minute is practically intolerable N d. No chronic effects noticed after 20,000 ppm exposure for 5 - 10 minutes 2352: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 5333 tons N b. 5420 tons Y c. 5649 tons N d. 5775 tons 2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF?
N a. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. Y b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. N c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. N d. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. 2559: What is NOT a grade B flammable liquid?
N a. tert-Butylamine N b. Allyl chloride Y c. Ethyl chloride N d. Carbon disulfide 2601: In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in __________.
Y a. increased capacity to set flooding boundaries N b. decreased capacity to set flooding boundaries N c. reduced compartmentation N d. greater deck load capacity 2628: What normally helps in detecting escaping gas?
N a. Running hand along pipe N b. Red flame Y c. Odor N d. Increase the line pressure 2649: Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________.
N a. alkalies Y b. concentrated nitric acid N c. saltwater N d. organic acids 2722: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 53 tons N b. 57 tons N c. 61 tons Y d. 65 tons 2786: Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. This includes __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. bunks, silverware, china, and glassware N b. anchors, line, paint cans, and fuel drums Y c. life jackets, life floats and paddles N d. whistles, searchlights, navigation lights, and ship's bell 2850: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 9000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 7° Y b. 11° N c. 15° N d. 17° 3116: According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.
N a. 5% N b. 10% Y c. 25% N d. 40% 3205: On a sailing vessel, it is best to approach a person in the water by placing them on your __________.
N a. leeward side Y b. windward side N c. bow N d. transom 3330: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. One percent N b. Five percent N c. Seven percent Y d. Ten percent 3384: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4236 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.2 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0125
Y a. KG 26.9 feet N b. KG 27.3 feet N c. KG 27.8 feet N d. KG 28.1 feet 3419: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 35 lbs.
N a. 785 tons each N b. 820 tons each Y c. 880 tons each N d. 900 tons each 3528: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0137
N a. 271.2 ft N b. 288.8 ft Y c. 294.4 ft N d. 305.3 ft 3635: For the DEEP DRILLER, in deballasting to survival draft when threatened with heavy weather from 100 knot winds, a load form should be calculated to determine that __________.
N a. the maximum allowable KG is exceeded N b. KG corrected for free surface effects does not exceed 62.24 feet Y c. KG corrected for free surface effects does not exceed 62.09 feet N d. GM remains the same 3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
Y a. convection N b. conduction N c. radiation N d. direct contact 3895: When filling fuel-oil tank 6P on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.
N a. 9 N b. 10 N c. 11 Y d. 12 3912: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.
N a. protect your life preserver by holding it above your head Y b. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel N c. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first N d. wear very light clothing 3923: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the #1 bilge pump is valve __________.
N a. 28 N b. 36 Y c. 41 N d. 42 3929: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
N a. Open equipment pack. N b. Post a lookout. N c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine. Y d. Pick up other survivors. 4077: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?
N a. 1.06 feet Y b. 1.09 feet N c. 3.30 feet N d. 3.38 feet 4120: Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?
N a. An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts Y b. A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids N c. An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen N d. An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores" 4139: Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.
N a. regulating the oil flow with the six-way valve N b. moving the automatic differential valve N c. moving the follow up indicator which regulates the six-way valve Y d. varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a floating ring 4196: You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You cannot load beyond the summer mark at port A and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B. N b. You can only load to the winter mark plus any fresh water allowance and burnout to sea at port A. Y c. You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the summer mark upon departing port A. N d. You can load so that upon arrival at the pier at port B your freeboard is equal to the summer mark less any fresh water allowance. 4636: What will be released by pulling on line number 5? (D012SA )
N a. Frapping line N b. Gripes Y c. Tricing pendant N d. Lifeboat 4706: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
N a. 4.82 Y b. 4.64 N c. 4.30 N d. 3.97 4717: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load from #2 (preload). All of the preload is dumped with the exception of 50 kips in preload tank #28. What is the new LCG?
N a. 119.11 feet AF0 N b. 119.44 feet AF0 Y c. 119.68 feet AF0 N d. 120.11 feet AF0 5234: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 15'-05", AFT 21'-03". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0174
N a. 1.05 feet Y b. 1.15 feet N c. 1.25 feet N d. 1.31 feet 5561: What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system?
N a. Guy wire N b. Joining pendant N c. Wildcat leader Y d. Anchor pendant 6618: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6048 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0193
Y a. LCG-FP 267.03 feet N b. LCG-FP 267.92 feet N c. LCG-FP 268.66 feet N d. LCG-FP 269.94 feet 8392: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.
N a. decrease the GM N b. give the vessel a gentler roll Y c. increase the metacentric height N d. decrease the reserve buoyancy 8447: Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a MODU?
N a. On the outside of the tank Y b. At the bottom of the tank N c. At the top of the tank N d. At the center of the tank 8535: You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.
Y a. increase N b. decrease N c. stop N d. stabilize 9277: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?
N a. 100.0 feet N b. 109.2 feet Y c. 110.4 feet N d. 119.2 feet 9382: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.
Y a. completely closing the compartment N b. closing the compartment except for the ventilators N c. leaving the compartment open to the air N d. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers 9543: Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
N a. at a lower level than the baseline N b. on the longitudinal centerline Y c. higher than the center of gravity N d. at amidships 9585: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.
Y a. when the craft clears the water N b. when the cable has been attached N c. on approach to the platform N d. at the embarkation deck 9601: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.
N a. 1.25 feet N b. 0.90 foot Y c. 0.83 foot N d. 0.34 foot