This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
26: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?
N a. One B-I extinguisher Y b. One B-II extinguisher N c. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher N d. One B-V extinguisher 53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
N a. pushing up on one side Y b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards N c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder N d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate 55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.
N a. equipment failure Y b. human error N c. major casualties N d. unforeseeable circumstances 88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
N a. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. N b. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. N c. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. Y d. Re-tip the head and try again. 257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
N a. A sailing vessel N b. A fishing vessel Y c. A non self-propelled vessel in tow N d. A towing vessel 390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.
N a. low in the vessel N b. completely empty N c. completely full Y d. slack 502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________.
N a. be kept as high and as far inboard as possible N b. not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to another N c. have some means to make them watertight Y d. All of the above 544: In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.
N a. a ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance Y b. a calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person N c. the message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation N d. the message following is a meteorological warning 693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.
N a. produce high-velocity fog Y b. produce low-velocity fog N c. produce a straight stream N d. shut off the water 989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.
N a. area of the body burned N b. source of heat causing the burn Y c. layers of skin affected N d. size of the burned area 1080: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged?
N a. Paper products N b. Glass ground to less than 1" N c. Metal ground to less than 1" Y d. Food waste 1205: On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries containing an electrolyte must be set in trays constructed of __________.
N a. a fireproof material Y b. a material resistant to damage by the electrolyte N c. a porous material that permits drainage of any acid overflow N d. suitably strong to hold the weight of the batteries 1212: Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?
N a. 6% N b. 10% N c. 15% Y d. 21% 1448: After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, the FIRST action should be to __________.
N a. apply straw or sawdust on the oil Y b. contain the spread of the oil N c. throw grains of sand into the oil N d. have the vessel move out of the spill area 1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.
N a. 2 N b. 2 PORT N c. 3 Y d. 4 1468: You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take first to correct the situation?
N a. Pump out a slack double bottom tank to reduce free surface. N b. Flood any empty double bottom tanks to decrease KG. Y c. Jettison topside weights to increase freeboard. N d. Pump out flooding water in the cargo holds to reduce free surface. 1533: Which statement is TRUE?
N a. You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into the sea more than 25 miles offshore. N b. You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship. N c. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped. Y d. You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility. 1727: Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?
N a. Exhaust gas pressure from the stack Y b. High capacity fan N c. Inert gas compressor N d. Natural aspiration 1877: Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?
N a. S-Band Radar N b. A DSC receiver Y c. X-Band Radar N d. The autoalarm 1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________.
Y a. on a close reach on a port tack N b. close hauled on a starboard tack N c. on a broad reach on a port tack N d. on a beam reach on a starboard tack 1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )
N a. 1.35 feet N b. 1.86 feet N c. 2.56 feet Y d. 3.60 feet 2120: You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
N a. 34 tons Y b. 62 tons N c. 134 tons N d. 186 tons 2172: Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
Y a. 4.11 feet N b. 4.36 feet N c. 4.57 feet N d. 4.78 feet 2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.
N a. check the fuel level N b. open the doors N c. take the life preservers off Y d. check that hooks are fully locked in place 2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?
Y a. On a ketch, you will most likely strike the jib before making your final approach. N b. On a yawl, the last sail you will strike after you have picked up the mooring will normally be the mainsail. N c. On a sloop, if your initial approach is to be downwind you could slow your approach by striking the jib and letting your main sheet out as far as it will go. N d. All of the above are correct. 2415: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0062
Y a. 1171.5 tons N b. 1311.0 tons N c. 1503.0 tons N d. 1710.5 tons 2603: Where is the keel generally located on a MODU?
N a. Along the midships axis Y b. Along the centerline of the lower hulls N c. Along the roll axis of the hull N d. Along the axis of rotation of the hull 2647: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?
N a. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. N b. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. Y c. Communications involving safety of life at sea do not have to be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. N d. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an onboard licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 2699: Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 45° if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 3.8 feet Y b. 2.7 feet N c. 1.9 feet N d. 0.9 foot 2729: You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?
N a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a pilot. Y b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone and begin a search because the vessel has a man overboard. N c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it is disabled. N d. Approach with caution because the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water. 2844: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center.
Y a. 0.4 foot N b. 1.4 feet N c. 1.8 feet N d. 2.6 feet 2845: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0084
N a. FWD 27'-01", AFT 25'-08" N b. FWD 29'-09", AFT 25'-09" N c. FWD 25'-09", AFT 30'-05" Y d. FWD 25'-06", AFT 30'-00" 2847: The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be __________.
N a. equipped with an approved carrying case N b. equipped with spare batteries Y c. readily accessible for transfer to a lifeboat N d. in a waterproof enclosure 2910: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.5 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 3.0 feet N b. 2.7 feet N c. 2.4 feet Y d. 1.9 feet 3026: Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. The builder of the vessel Y b. The owner or Master of the vessel N c. The U.S. Coast Guard N d. The classification society 3034: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0 feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity 195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 4° Y b. 8° N c. 13° N d. 16° 3110: When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. Change of Employment Y b. Permit to Proceed N c. Application for Inspection N d. Temporary Certificate of Inspection 3208: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________.
N a. catching rain water Y b. stability N c. easy drainage N d. maneuverability 3535: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the ball joint angle will exceed 10° or the mooring line tensions will exceed __________.
N a. 348 kips N b. 500 kips Y c. 522 kips N d. 600 kips 3639: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
Y a. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels N b. At half hour intervals N c. At one hour intervals N d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel 3804: All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.
Y a. boarding and operating procedures N b. maintenance schedule N c. navigational systems N d. fuel consumption rates 3805: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the longitudinal moments for a sounding of 15 feet in tank C3P?
N a. 1,055 foot-tons N b. 7,772 foot-tons N c. -21,391 foot-tons Y d. -25,669 foot-tons 3855: Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?
N a. Muster List ("Station Bill") Y b. Certificate of Inspection N c. Forecastle Card N d. Clearance Papers 3862: In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.
N a. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces N b. may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency Y c. should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency N d. All of the above 3893: When filling fuel-oil tank 4S on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.
N a. 9 N b. 10 Y c. 11 N d. 12 3901: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.
N a. 48 Y b. 47 N c. 37 N d. 23 3944: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?
N a. The fire pump N b. Exposed hard piping N c. The hydrant valve Y d. The fire hose 3948: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.
N a. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes N b. the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure Y c. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel N d. the entrance curtains should never be opened 3997: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?
Y a. 3,493 foot-tons N b. 1,797 foot-tons N c. 1,748 foot-tons N d. 100 foot-tons 4255: What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever?
N a. 450 kips Y b. 529 kips N c. 550 kips N d. 750 kips 4403: Scouring usually occurs with soils such as __________.
N a. clay Y b. sand N c. coral N d. mud 4813: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KML if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?
N a. 253.90 feet N b. 253.24 feet Y c. 252.92 feet N d. 252.24 feet 5065: Under what condition are you allowed to depart from the rules of the road?
Y a. To avoid immediate danger N b. When authorized by the rig superintendent N c. To comply with an operator's requirement N d. Under no conditions 5101: When a marine surveyor is employed to assist in the move of a mobile offshore drilling unit, he __________.
N a. becomes responsible for the safe movement of the rig N b. relieves the Offshore Installation Manager at the moment the rig is free from the bottom N c. must be designated as the person in charge of the rig Y d. is a specialist who is hired to provide advice and guidance on aspects of the move 5781: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring line 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about __________.
N a. 375 kips Y b. 330 kips N c. 275 kips N d. 220 kips 6657: The design specifications for cranes and crane foundations on MODU's are set and published by the __________.
N a. American Society of Mechanical Engineers Y b. American Petroleum Institute N c. Society of Petroleum Engineers N d. American Society of Civil Engineers 6767: A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.
N a. working on the rig floor Y b. working over water N c. working on the pipe racks N d. operating line throwing equipment 6797: Where must you record the date of each emergency training drill conducted on a MODU?
Y a. In the logbook N b. In the Operations Manual N c. On the Certificate of Inspection N d. On the muster list 8157: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?
N a. 50.00 feet N b. 25.00 feet N c. 0.04 foot Y d. 0.02 foot 9137: Fighting a fire in the galley poses the additional threat of __________.
N a. contaminating food with extinguishing agent N b. spreading through the engineering space N c. loss of stability Y d. a grease fire in the ventilation system