USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


37: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?


102: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.


372: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0005


718: Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must __________.

    N a. be of manila rope or equivalent, not less than two inches in circumference and not less than four fathoms long
    Y b. be 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of at least 1500 lbs.
    N c. be at least 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of 3,000 lbs.
    N d. be made of 90 feet of 3/8" nylon

1004: The lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here highly dangerous" is __________.

    N a. firing of a white star signal
    Y b. firing of a red star signal
    N c. vertical motion of a red light
    N d. code letter "K" given by light or sound signaling apparatus

1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.

    N a. may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life preservers
    N b. should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency stations
    N c. may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat drills
    Y d. should be used when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge

1157: When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.

    N a. sour crude
    Y b. leaded gasoline
    N c. CO2
    N d. chlorine

1158: Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________.

    N a. an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites
    N b. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance
    Y c. chemical action within a substance
    N d. All of the above

1211: A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________.

    N a. a small dose of alcohol
    Y b. treatment for shock
    N c. a large meal
    N d. a brisk rub down

1223: The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing vessel must safely accommodate __________.

    Y a. all of the people aboard
    N b. the number of people required by the certificate of inspection
    N c. the entire crew
    N d. None of the above are correct.

1347: A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.

    Y a. large GM
    N b. high center of gravity
    N c. excessive free surface
    N d. small GZ

1460: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

    N a. 2
    N b. 2 STARBOARD
    Y c. 3
    N d. 4

1478: There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should __________.

    N a. ventilate the quarters as much as possible
    N b. prepare to abandon ship
    Y c. close all ventilation to the quarters if possible
    N d. attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding the alarm

1510: You are in enemy port and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter eight. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. If on a coastwise voyage along the east coast of the U.S., you should put into the nearest port.
    N b. You should only enter a port in the danger zone during hours of darkness.
    N c. When over 200 hundred miles from a port in the danger zone, you should not darken ship.
    Y d. You should attempt to submit an AMVER report to NSA.

1677: After an engine is started you should __________.

    N a. increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all parts of the engine
    N b. pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the engine
    Y c. check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks
    N d. run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased

1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________.

    N a. use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to get the strain properly aligned
    N b. avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth
    Y c. be sure to orient the weave of the patch material, on large patches, in the same orientation as the sail cloth being repaired
    N d. All of the above

1703: With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE?

    Y a. If the thrust on a sail becomes excessive when close-hauled, it is likely to capsize the vessel rather than drive it.
    N b. When a sail is trimmed too tight, turbulence will break out on the windward side of the sail and cause a telltale there to flutter.
    N c. A properly trimmed sail should have laminar flow on the windward side and turbulent flow on the leeward side.
    N d. Adjusting the angle of attack on a mainsail is accomplished by adjusting the outhaul or the vang, if fitted.

1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

    Y a. small GM
    N b. low center of gravity
    N c. stiff vessel
    N d. large GZ

1966: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090° relative would be __________.

    N a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    Y b. reaching on the starboard tack
    N c. on a broad reach on the starboard tack
    N d. close hauled on the port tack

2090: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See the stability letter for the M.V. Hudson illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

    Y a. 84 tons
    N b. 160 tons
    N c. 244 tons
    N d. 317 tons

2345: During an annual FCC inspection __________.

    N a. all required documents and publications may have to be produced
    N b. licensed GMDSS radio operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies
    N c. all required equipment must be fully operational
    Y d. All of the above

2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.

    Y a. to each side of the vessel
    N b. as close as possible to the house
    N c. on the main deck
    N d. on each level of the accommodation space

2546: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 24.0 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    N a. 5,202 foot-tons
    Y b. 8,666 foot-tons
    N c. 10,876 foot-tons
    N d. 11,424 foot-tons

2579: What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

    N a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.
    Y b. Transmit Distress call by MF/HF, VHF or INMARSAT.
    N c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on Channel 13.
    N d. Transmit Distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.

2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline.

    Y a. 0.0 feet
    N b. 0.5 foot
    N c. 1.2 feet
    N d. 1.7 feet

2824: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-05"; and the KG is 22.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.9 feet off the centerline.

    N a. 3.7 feet
    N b. 2.3 feet
    N c. 1.4 feet
    Y d. 0.7 foot

2842: No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard __________.

    Y a. unless the operator has a Coast Guard license
    N b. unless the vessel has a valid Permit to Proceed
    N c. until the Boarding Officer has checked the papers
    N d. until a permit is obtained from the Collector of Customs

2962: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0090

    Y a. FWD 17'-06", AFT 24'-03"
    N b. FWD 19'-03", AFT 22'-06"
    N c. FWD 17'-01", AFT 24'-08"
    N d. FWD 21'-04", AFT 19'-07"

2996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0093

    N a. 286.1 ft
    Y b. 282.7 ft
    N c. 278.6 ft
    N d. 272.4 ft

3099: Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank barge?

    N a. Only air
    N b. Only steam
    N c. Air or steam only
    Y d. Steam, air, or electricity

3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.

    N a. stabilize at an angle of loll
    Y b. decrease
    N c. increase
    N d. remain constant

3261: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. What is the change in KG?

    N a. 1.32 feet downward
    N b. 1.32 feet upward
    N c. 0.89 foot downward
    Y d. 0.89 foot upward

3279: You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that __________.

    N a. all wing voids and rakes are pumped dry before tying off the barge
    N b. the barge is moored next to the bank where it will be protected from a possible collision
    Y c. the barge is under the care of a watchman
    N d. a rake end is facing upstream to minimize the effect of current on the mooring lines

3298: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 2, 6, & 10, while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)

    N a. 510 tons per hatch
    Y b. 530 tons per hatch
    N c. 590 tons per hatch
    N d. 610 tons per hatch

3313: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to __________.

    N a. set the water lights on immersion
    N b. release the dye marker from the liferaft
    Y c. free the liferaft from the vessel
    N d. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder

3370: The carbon dioxide cylinders of all fixed fire extinguishing systems shall be retested and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    N a. 5 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
    N b. 7 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
    N c. 10 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
    Y d. 12 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder

3415: A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same affect on stability as __________.

    Y a. weight that is off-center to starboard
    N b. increasing the draft
    N c. reducing the freeboard
    N d. increasing the trim

3433: An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard ship by using __________.

    N a. the single hook at the top of the raft
    N b. two line passed under the raft
    Y c. the towing bridle
    N d. All of the above

3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?

    N a. Once each day
    N b. Once each week
    Y c. Once each month
    N d. Once each trip

3512: You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should you do?

    Y a. Repeat your signal.
    N b. Send any more signals necessary.
    N c. Change course to follow the airplane.
    N d. Prepare for a helicopter pickup.

3520: How should the number "5" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    N a. FIVE-ER
    N b. NEW-MARL-FIVE
    N c. NUM-ERL-FIVE
    Y d. PAN-TAH-FIVE

3547: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0139

    Y a. Available GM 3.5 ft
    N b. Available GM 3.9 ft
    N c. Available GM 4.3 ft
    N d. Available GM 4.8 ft

3733: In the event of damage to the DEEP DRILLER which results in flooding to one of the lower-hull tanks, pump from __________.

    N a. nearby damaged tanks
    Y b. nearby undamaged tanks containing ballast
    N c. tanks on the opposite corner
    N d. the opposite trim tank

3801: What are the vertical moments for the cement contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

    N a. 4,198 ft-tons
    Y b. 7,067 ft-tons
    N c. 7,096 ft-tons
    N d. 14,921 ft-tons

3815: Among the valves to open when deballasting using tanks 1P and 10P of the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

    N a. 2 Port
    N b. 24 Port
    Y c. 48 Port
    N d. 44 Port

3942: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?

    N a. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
    N b. Get plenty of rest.
    N c. Keep the entrance curtains open.
    Y d. All of the above

3986: A fire is discovered in the bow of your vessel while making way. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    N a. remain on course and hold speed
    N b. remain on course but slack the speed
    N c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    Y d. change course and put the stern to the wind

4033: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling) discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KG?

    N a. 1.18 feet
    N b. 51.80 feet
    Y c. 52.61 feet
    N d. 55.79 feet

4095: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival). What is the new longitudinal location of the center of buoyancy if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    N a. 2.34 feet
    N b. 2.48 feet
    N c. 2.50 feet
    Y d. 2.53 feet

4603: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated while preparing for the passage of a severe storm. With ideal loading, the static loading on each of the three legs would be 4,715 kips. However, the LCG is 121 feet AFO and TCG is 0.5 foot to starboard of the centerline. By how many kips does the starboard leg reaction exceed the ideal loading?

    N a. 00 kips
    N b. 32 kips
    Y c. 149 kips
    N d. 181 kips

4665: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new VCG?

    N a. 47.21 feet
    N b. 47.69 feet
    N c. 48.41 feet
    Y d. 49.16 feet

5101: When a marine surveyor is employed to assist in the move of a mobile offshore drilling unit, he __________.

    N a. becomes responsible for the safe movement of the rig
    N b. relieves the Offshore Installation Manager at the moment the rig is free from the bottom
    N c. must be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    Y d. is a specialist who is hired to provide advice and guidance on aspects of the move

5673: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

    N a. critical motion limits have been exceeded
    N b. waves approach within two feet of the spider deck
    Y c. the maximum wave height is less than 64 feet
    N d. winds are greater than 70 knots

6306: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

    Y a. The sea anchor deploys.
    N b. The floor inflates.
    N c. If upside down, the craft rights itself.
    N d. The painter detaches from the raft.

6497: The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the blades turning is __________.

    N a. a helicopter carrying cargo only
    Y b. a turbine-equipped helicopter
    N c. a Sikorsky
    N d. a helicopter carrying injured personnel in an emergency situation

6643: How many adult life jackets are required on board a MODU?

    N a. Enough for 100 percent of the persons allowed on board
    N b. One for each work station and industrial work site
    N c. Enough for 150 percent of the persons allowed on board
    Y d. Both A & B above

7147: What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?

    Y a. Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention.
    N b. Key the microphone several times before transmitting again.
    N c. Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again.
    N d. Report the problem to the head electrician.

9067: The TCG of a vessel may be found by dividing the displacement of the vessel into the __________.

    N a. transverse center of gravity of the vessel
    N b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
    Y c. sum of the transverse moments of the vessel
    N d. transverse baseline of the vessel

9375: After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.

    N a. opened and burned material removed
    Y b. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool
    N c. checked for oxygen content
    N d. doused with water to prevent reflash

9702: Which of the following is/are NOT required on Ro-Ro vessels, regarding spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    N a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
    Y b. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas.
    N c. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.
    N d. All of the above