This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
N a. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full N b. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty N c. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full Y d. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty 480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.
Y a. 33'-00" N b. 33'-04" N c. 33'-08" N d. 33'-11" 599: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.
N a. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water N b. drain water from the lungs before ventilating Y c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible N d. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting 662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.
N a. cooling N b. chemical action Y c. smothering N d. inerting the air 728: When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?
N a. 64 cubic feet Y b. 35 cubic feet N c. 100 gallons N d. 500 liters 757: Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?
N a. A 1,000 GT tanker on a coastwise voyage Y b. A 200 GT tanker on an international voyage N c. A 300 GT tanker on an intercoastal voyage N d. All of the above 812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
Y a. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge N b. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire N c. over the top of the fire N d. at the main body of the fire 912: A "fifteen-pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because __________.
Y a. there are fifteen pounds of CO2 in the container N b. the container, when full, weighs fifteen pounds N c. the pressure at the discharge nozzle is l5 psi N d. the empty container weighs fifteen pounds 1345: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
N a. the float-free method ONLY N b. breaking the weak link on the painter Y c. throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft N d. removing the securing straps 1404: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.
N a. a rocket shoulder rifle N b. an oil lantern Y c. red flares N d. an air horn 1542: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-10", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0041
N a. 1.91 feet N b. 2.09 feet Y c. 2.21 feet N d. 2.48 feet 1554: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 32'-04", AFT 34'-02". The KG is 31.5 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
N a. 3.4° N b. 4.7° Y c. 6.4° N d. 7.9° 1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?
N a. They may be worn while working on deck but not while working over the side. Y b. They must be used only under supervision of a designated ship's officer. N c. They will be accepted for up to 10% of the required life preservers. N d. They may be worn during drills. 1768: The flammable limit of methyl ethyl ketone is from __________.
Y a. 1.8% to 11.5% N b. 6.6% to 12.1% N c. 9.6% to 15.1% N d. 12.2% to 18.1% 1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?
N a. 5 nautical miles N b. 10 nautical miles Y c. 12 nautical miles N d. 25 nautical miles 1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons?
N a. 6.04 feet N b. 6.23 feet Y c. 6.51 feet N d. 6.76 feet 1860: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.
N a. remain on course and hold speed N b. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed Y c. change course and put the stern to the wind N d. remain on course but decrease speed 1901: Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?
N a. It will respond only to interrogation by 9-Ghz radar signals. N b. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching vessel's radar if the radar antenna is at least 15 meters high. N c. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching aircraft's radar if the radar's output power is at least 10,000 watts and the aircraft is at a height of 3000 feet and within 30 nautical miles. Y d. All of the above 1940: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.
N a. survival craft N b. messrooms Y c. readily accessible locations N d. locked watertight containers 2015: A shroud is __________.
N a. a light sail N b. a topmast stay N c. a sheet Y d. standing rigging 2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
Y a. 2.4 feet (0.70 meters) N b. 2.8 feet (0.85 meters) N c. 3.0 feet (0.90 meters) N d. 3.2 feet (0.98 meters) 2153: On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's __________.
Y a. name and port of registry N b. owner and port of registry N c. port of registry and identification number N d. name and owner 2195: Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and(or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
N a. Rig superintendent N b. Tool Pusher N c. Company man Y d. Designated person in charge 2249: A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?
N a. 4.9° N b. 5.2° Y c. 5.7° N d. 6.0° 2253: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.
Y a. reduce your drift rate N b. keep the survival craft from turning over N c. aid in recovering the survival craft N d. increase your visibility 2496: What type of vent system would a barge of acrylonitrile have?
N a. Open Y b. Pressure-vacuum N c. Safety relief N d. Rupture disk 2540: The MINIMUM ventilation requirements for pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1960) carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the freeboard deck specify __________.
N a. gooseneck vents and flame screens N b. that it be connected to a vent header system Y c. that it be power ventilation N d. that it be fitted with at least two ducts extended to the weather deck 2671: To meet the regulations governing manning requirements outside U.S. jurisdiction, a person holding a foreign license can serve in any of the following positions EXCEPT __________.
N a. able seaman N b. ballast control operator N c. barge supervisor Y d. offshore installation manager 2779: Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by __________.
N a. making a structural change to the vessel N b. a short circuit near the compass N c. belt buckles Y d. All of the above 3000: A rigid lifesaving device ONLY designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is known as a __________.
N a. liferaft N b. life float N c. life preserver Y d. buoyant apparatus 3129: If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.
N a. abandon the survival craft N b. check for cracks in the hull N c. shift all personnel to the stern Y d. check the bilge drain plug 3172: Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________.
N a. warm up the exhaust blower motor N b. provide a proper supply of fresh air for the engine(s) N c. see the system is in good operating condition Y d. insure at least one complete change of air in the compartments concerned 3413: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 61.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG?
N a. -0.12 foot N b. 0.12 foot Y c. 2.11 feet N d. 2.35 feet 3478: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.
Y a. sealing clamps N b. repair tape N c. a tube patch N d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit 3622: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0143
N a. 451 tons Y b. 1126 tons N c. 1451 tons N d. 1726 tons 3622: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0143
N a. 451 tons Y b. 1126 tons N c. 1451 tons N d. 1726 tons 4225: The maximum transverse extension of the cantilever for the COASTAL DRILLER places the rotary __________.
Y a. within 10 feet of the centerline N b. at the vessel TCG N c. at the leg centroid N d. 40 feet aft of the transom 4229: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of six days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 43. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)
N a. 79.5 inches Y b. 76.5 inches N c. 75.0 inches N d. 72.5 inches 4234: Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)
N a. Dry chemical Y b. Water mist N c. Chemical foam N d. Steam smothering 4312: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 14'-07". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0158
Y a. 1.30 feet N b. 1.17 foot N c. 1.06 foot N d. 0.91 foot 4465: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and KGL less than __________.
N a. the height of the righting arm Y b. the maximum allowed N c. GMT and GML N d. BMT and BML 4607: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by hydrostatic alarm switches connected to a remote panel located in the __________.
N a. OIM's quarters Y b. OIM's office N c. control house N d. SCR room 5121: What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a MODU?
N a. Heavy rains could cause downflooding. N b. Visibility could be restricted by low clouds. N c. Large waves could cause structural damage. Y d. Personnel may be injured by loose deck gear blown by the wind. 5133: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured is __________.
N a. 5 N b. 4 N c. 3 Y d. 2 5341: For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.
Y a. center of each lower hull guide N b. center of each upper hull guide N c. top of the jack house N d. bottom of the hull 5462: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0179
N a. 1.30 feet N b. 1.17 foot Y c. 1.01 foot N d. 0.91 foot 5631: In deballasting to survival draft because of extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.
Y a. reduce windward mooring line tensions N b. reduce leeward mooring line tensions N c. increase leeward mooring line tensions N d. maintain constant mooring line tensions 5771: A J-chaser is used to __________.
N a. transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling vessel N b. clean chain as it is hauled into the rig N c. lower spring buoys into the water Y d. retrieve an anchor after the buoy has been lost 6193: What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?
N a. Automatic sprinkler system N b. Steam smothering system N c. Dry chemical system Y d. Carbon dioxide system 6253: The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to have __________.
Y a. remote ventilation shutdowns N b. remote pump shutdowns N c. alternative control stations N d. smoke and/or fire detection system 8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.
Y a. when there is no load on the cable N b. when there is a load on the cable N c. only when the doors are closed N d. when the engine is started 8395: What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?
Y a. They regulate the combustion cycle. N b. They supply cooling water. N c. They synchronize the ignition spark. N d. They supply and regulate the lubricant flow. 8445: Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have an International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate when the unit __________.
N a. is drilling on the Outer Continental Shelf N b. moves to a new drilling location in U.S. waters Y c. engages in a voyage to a port of another country which is a party of MARPOL N d. All of the above 8493: What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?
N a. 59.63 feet N b. 60.16 feet N c. 61.68 feet Y d. 61.13 feet 8537: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. satisfactory, keep the unit at transit draft N b. satisfactory, put the unit in standby Y c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft N d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby 8625: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?
Y a. 0.94 foot starboard of centerline N b. 0.90 foot starboard of centerline N c. 0.47 foot port of centerline N d. 0.23 foot port of centerline 8707: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). If port valves 24 and 2 are mistakenly opened, the change in inclination will be increasing trim by the __________.
Y a. bow with port list N b. bow N c. stern N d. stern with starboard list 9275: A jack-up displacing 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. The legs weighing 3,500 kips are lowered 100 feet. What is the new KG?
N a. 23.33 feet N b. 18.67 feet N c. 4.67 feet Y d. -3.33 feet 9277: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?
N a. 100.0 feet N b. 109.2 feet Y c. 110.4 feet N d. 119.2 feet 9700: The regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel are found in __________.
N a. 46 CFR subchapter S N b. 46 CFR subchapter T N c. 46 CFR subchapter B Y d. 46 CFR subchapter I