USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


176: On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________.


265: The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________.


484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________.


589: Fires are grouped into what categories?

    Y a. Class A, B, C, and D
    N b. Type 1, 2, 3, and 4
    N c. Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
    N d. Flammable solids, liquids, and gases

590: The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.

    N a. draft
    Y b. freeboard
    N c. buoyancy
    N d. camber

592: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

    N a. solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
    Y b. flammable liquids
    N c. a piece of electrical equipment
    N d. combustible metallic solids

625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________.

    N a. is always effective immediately
    Y b. includes a statement of each condition requiring corrective action
    N c. must be in writing before it takes effect
    N d. All of the above

643: The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.

    N a. bumpkin oar
    N b. stroke oar
    Y c. sweep oar
    N d. becket oar

650: Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?

    N a. Metacentric height
    N b. Righting moment
    N c. Rolling period
    Y d. Freeboard

664: Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.

    N a. your radio transmitter is not working properly
    N b. the Coast Guard vessel is testing its receiver
    Y c. the Coast Guard vessel is taking a radio direction finder bearing on your vessel
    N d. the Coast Guard vessel is requesting your position in latitude and longitude

783: A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.

    N a. the line attached to the tack of the lugsail
    N b. the emergency rudder
    N c. a canvas awning
    Y d. the aftermost seating

865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.

    N a. be connected at the highest point in the tank
    N b. terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion resistant wire screen of at least 30x30 mesh
    N c. be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from being trapped in the line
    Y d. All of the above

926: Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________.

    N a. six months
    Y b. twelve months
    N c. eighteen months
    N d. twenty-four months

991: Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________.

    N a. able to absorb heat
    N b. water based
    Y c. nonconducting
    N d. nontoxic

1059: Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water?

    N a. Up to 3 days
    Y b. 8 to 14 days
    N c. 15 to 20 days
    N d. 25 to 30 days

1092: Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator?

    Y a. Several seconds will elapse between the taking of a sample and the reading appearing on the dial.
    N b. The instrument will operate in any atmosphere.
    N c. Toxicity of the atmosphere is measured by the instrument.
    N d. All of the above

1214: An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________.

    N a. the single hook at the top of the raft
    N b. two lines passed under the raft
    Y c. the towing bridle
    N d. All of the above

1224: In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.

    N a. lifelines
    N b. righting strap
    N c. sea anchor
    Y d. towing bridle

1268: Where must the draft marks be placed on a small passenger vessel?

    N a. On each side of the stem
    N b. Near the stern post or rudder post
    N c. At each end of the vessel
    Y d. All of the above

1418: Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?

    N a. GM
    N b. The longitudinal center of gravity
    Y c. The stress on the hull
    N d. The vertical center of gravity

1506: Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?

    N a. Fuel supply line valve
    N b. Pressure registered on the accumulator gauge
    Y c. Cold-spark voltage readings test lamp
    N d. Engine stop control

1641: The most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

    Y a. causes corrosion
    N b. reduces the ability of the system to cool the engine
    N c. can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system
    N d. accelerates formation of metal plating

1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)

    N a. 2.17 feet
    N b. 2.32 feet
    Y c. 2.52 feet
    N d. 3.01 feet

1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________.

    N a. shallow water
    N b. an engine that is misfiring
    N c. a tight tail shaft gland
    Y d. worn stern bearing or misalignment

2196: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are on a sailing vessel with the wind on the starboard side and are approaching another sailing vessel that has the wind on the port side. Which action should you take?

    N a. Reduce sail and hold course.
    N b. Alter course away from the other vessel.
    Y c. Maintain course and speed.
    N d. Any maneuver to avoid collision.

2266: Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine?

    Y a. Water foam
    N b. Dry chemical powder
    N c. Water fog
    N d. Alcohol foam

2510: Camphor oil is classified as a __________.

    N a. Grade A flammable liquid
    N b. Grade C flammable liquid
    Y c. Grade D combustible liquid
    N d. Grade E combustible liquid

2637: The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.

    Y a. Load Line mark
    N b. Certificate of Inspection
    N c. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    N d. Tonnage mark

2667: Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________.

    N a. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted six months before expiration
    N b. only once every five years, with a letter submitted six months before expiration
    N c. and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, six months before expiration
    Y d. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted to the Coast Guard within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval

2753: For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain __________.

    N a. detailed construction plans
    N b. chemical and physical properties of ABS approved steels
    Y c. approved welding procedures and welding test procedures
    N d. loading conditions and limitations

2756: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 26° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.0 foot off center.

    N a. 0.0 feet
    N b. 0.4 foot
    Y c. 0.8 foot
    N d. 1.7 feet

2914: The sailing drafts are: FWD 25'-03", AFT 26'-03" and the GM is 3.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 25° inclination.

    N a. 0.8 foot
    N b. 1.4 feet
    Y c. 2.0 feet
    N d. 2.6 feet

3008: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0095

    N a. 280.2 ft
    N b. 284.1 ft
    N c. 285.3 ft
    Y d. 286.2 ft

3112: An 85 foot uninspected towing vessel with a crew of ten (10) persons on board must carry at LEAST __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    N a. 10 approved ring life buoys and 10 approved life preservers
    N b. 10 approved work vests
    Y c. 10 approved life jackets and 1 approved ring life buoy
    N d. 11 approved life preservers

3339: What is acceptable flame screening?

    N a. A fitted single brass screen of 10 x 10 mesh
    Y b. A fitted stainless steel screen of 30 x 30 mesh
    N c. A fitted single stainless steel screen of 15 x 15 mesh
    N d. Two fitted brass screens of 10 x 15 mesh spaced 1/2 inch apart

3511: The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    N a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    N b. 9,733 ft-long tons
    Y c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    N d. 000 ft-long tons

3579: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs.

    N a. 1150 tons each
    N b. 1180 tons each
    Y c. 1220 tons each
    N d. 1250 tons each

3863: On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?

    N a. One ring life buoy
    Y b. One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV
    N c. Three ring life buoys
    N d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV

3904: The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.

    N a. when the power source is replaced
    N b. each year after installation
    N c. every six months
    Y d. when it is no longer serviceable

3940: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.

    N a. wear as much clothing as possible
    N b. enter the water feet first
    Y c. swim with the wind
    N d. cover eyes with one hand when entering the water

4091: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of salt water ballast 1anks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KML = 348.58)

    N a. 261.11 feet
    Y b. 279.37 feet
    N c. 283.37 feet
    N d. 301.12 feet

4221: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the centerline is __________.

    N a. 1000 kips
    N b. 875 kips
    Y c. 854 kips
    N d. 755 kips

4264: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    Y a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects.
    N b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypoglycemia for weeks.
    N c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
    N d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires 1.5 times more time to climb a ladder than without the suit.

4485: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KMT is __________.

    Y a. 153.73 feet
    N b. 160.42 feet
    N c. 179.41 feet
    N d. 203.97 feet

4597: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), 236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting starboard leg reaction?

    N a. 4,281 kips
    N b. 5,382 kips
    Y c. 5,459 kips
    N d. 5,537 kips

4667: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

    N a. 249.47 feet
    N b. 250.16 feet
    Y c. 252.92 feet
    N d. 253.90 feet

5668: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 18'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    N a. 935 foot-tons
    Y b. 960 foot-tons
    N c. 985 foot-tons
    N d. 1000 foot-tons

6073: Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________.

    Y a. 20 seconds
    N b. 30 seconds
    N c. 40 seconds
    N d. 60 seconds

6248: Your drafts are: FWD 26'-03", AFT 30'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

    N a. 2.8 feet aft
    N b. 2.3 feet aft
    N c. 1.9 feet aft
    Y d. 1.5 feet aft

6551: When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.

    N a. distance of the barite surface above the tank bottom
    N b. percentage of barite in the tank
    Y c. distance of the barite surface below the tank cover
    N d. total weight of barite in UPC (ullages per centimeter)

6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

    N a. conduct a fire drill
    N b. conduct a boat drill
    Y c. log the fore and aft draft marks
    N d. test the emergency generator

8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.

    Y a. when there is no load on the cable
    N b. when there is a load on the cable
    N c. only when the doors are closed
    N d. when the engine is started

8107: What is the minimum required GML for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?

    N a. 0.17 foot
    Y b. 2.63 feet
    N c. 4.34 feet
    N d. 9.12 feet

8555: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.

    N a. gate valve
    Y b. pressure gauge
    N c. check valve
    N d. strainer

8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?

    N a. 0.00 feet
    N b. 1.03 feet
    Y c. 1.69 feet
    N d. 2.22 feet

8885: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft?

    Y a. 19 feet 9 inches
    N b. 20 feet 4 inches
    N c. 20 feet 8 inches
    N d. 21 feet 4 inches

9233: A ballast tank in a floating MODU has a maximum FSML of 7,000 ft-long tons. If the tank is converted to drill water storage, what would be the new maximum FSML?

    N a. 7,179 ft-long tons
    N b. 7,000 ft-long tons
    Y c. 6,825 ft-long tons
    N d. 2,125 ft-long tons

9241: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, discharges 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?

    Y a. 41 feet 6 inches
    N b. 42 feet 6 inches
    N c. 43 feet 6 inches
    N d. 44 feet 0 inches

9291: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?

    N a. 9.00 feet port
    Y b. 0.50 foot starboard
    N c. 0.50 foot port
    N d. 1.00 foot port

9455: The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.

    Y a. metacentric height is positive
    N b. metacentric radius is positive
    N c. KG exceeds maximum allowable limits
    N d. free surfaces are excessive