This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?
N a. Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint. N b. Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply a pressure dressing. N c. Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and splint. Y d. Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice. 284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.
N a. G421G Y b. G4214 N c. G421G421 N d. G4211 343: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using __________.
N a. a boat bucket N b. an air tank filled with water N c. an oar and canvas weighted down Y d. All of the above 453: You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
N a. make the vessel more tender Y b. make the vessel stiffer N c. increase the rolling period N d. decrease the metacentric height 549: If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.
Y a. determine the cause before taking countermeasures N b. assume the shift is due to off-center loading N c. counterflood N d. assume the cause is environmental forces 554: When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by the signal __________.
N a. YZ N b. CQ N c. WA Y d. AR 854: If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?
N a. MVP N b. MPH Y c. MPF N d. MSO 868: Burning wood is which class of fire?
Y a. A N b. B N c. C N d. D 875: How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling?
N a. 2 Y b. 4 N c. 6 N d. 8 891: On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be __________.
Y a. obtained from the engine's cooling water system or from a separate engine-driven pump N b. chemically treated to prevent corrosion N c. flushed and changed periodically N d. obtained from a fresh water storage tank or an expansion tank 980: Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?
Y a. Empty double-bottoms and lower holds, and a heavy deck cargo N b. Flooding the forepeak to correct the vessel's trim N c. Having KG smaller than KM N d. Having a small positive righting arm 1132: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine?
N a. For at least four to five minutes N b. Long enough to achieve a minimum of two complete air changes Y c. Long enough to achieve at least one complete change of air N d. No fixed amount, but the blower should run until you don't smell any gas 1250: The falls on gravity davits are __________.
N a. manila N b. nylon Y c. wire N d. All of the above 1270: The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the __________.
N a. radial N b. sheath-screw Y c. gravity N d. quadrantal 1379: Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE?
N a. The pressures of the inert gas in the tank may create excessive pressure at the pump while discharging. Y b. Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest permissible level throughout the discharging process. N c. High gas pressures may cause pyrophoric oxidation in the tank. N d. High gas pressures may cause loss of suction when stripping. 1424: Halon gas will decompose and may form very hazardous toxic fumes when discharged __________.
Y a. directly on flames N b. at room temperature N c. in an extremely cold climate N d. None of the above 1689: You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from a sailboat. The final approach should be __________.
N a. upwind N b. downwind Y c. on a close reach N d. on a broad reach 1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?
N a. Polyester sailcloth, such as Dacron, is resistant to rot due to moisture but susceptible to UV degradation and should be kept covered as much as possible. N b. Canvas sailcloth is susceptible to rot due to moisture and should never be covered when wet. N c. Kevlar sail cloth is susceptible to weakening due to repeated folding and therefore should be draped loosely over the boom when stowed. Y d. All of the above are true. 1708: A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic __________.
Y a. odor N b. color N c. pressure N d. density 1811: What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?
Y a. Sound the alarm. N b. Attempt to put out the fire. N c. Confine it by closing doors, ports, vents, etc. N d. Call the Master. 1865: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.6 feet and drafts of: FWD 13'-07", AFT 15'-01". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.4 feet.
N a. Tanks: DB1, DB3 N b. Tanks: DB5, DT1A Y c. Tanks: DB6, DB7, DT7 N d. Tanks: DB4, DT8 2348: Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951)
N a. Straight vents open to atmosphere N b. Individual pressure vacuum relief valves N c. Branch vent lines connected to a vent header system Y d. Gooseneck vents and flame screens 2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.
Y a. temporary guide base N b. permanent guide base N c. guide frame N d. foundation template 2654: Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration.
N a. It increases its volume. Y b. It reduces its volume. N c. It has less product per volume. N d. None of the above 2714: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?
N a. 63 N b. 66 Y c. 71 N d. 77 2772: Tour vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-09", AFT 23'-07"; and the KG is 24.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 18° inclination.
Y a. 0.7 foot N b. 1.3 feet N c. 2.0 feet N d. 2.3 feet 2869: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.
N a. be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery Y b. have a guard over the gearing N c. be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing N d. not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery 2912: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0086
Y a. 0.68 foot N b. 0.85 foot N c. 0.97 foot N d. 1.30 feet 2924: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09".
Y a. 25° N b. 33° N c. 48° N d. 72° 2968: Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. must be approved for marine use N b. must have a double fan installation N c. must be filled with fresh water Y d. are permitted on vessels less than 65 feet carrying not more than 12 passengers 3028: While serving as Master on board your vessel, your license must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
N a. displayed in the company office on shore N b. displayed in your home Y c. in your possession on board the vessel N d. kept in the Coast Guard office where you sat for your license 3098: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN).
N a. 460 tons per hatch N b. 520 tons per hatch Y c. 690 tons per hatch N d. 730 tons per hatch 3179: What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank barges?
Y a. They may be located in cargo handling rooms N b. They must be located in well ventilated spaces N c. Each battery box must have a watertight lining N d. They must be secured against movement 3316: When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?
Y a. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle N b. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds N c. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle N d. Three short blasts of the whistle 3385: A jack-up, 180 feet in length, has the center of flotation at 110 feet aft of frame zero. The draft at the bow is 11.0 feet and the draft at the stern is 13.0 feet. What is the true mean draft?
N a. 11.78 feet N b. 12.00 feet Y c. 12.22 feet N d. 12.78 feet 3396: On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________.
N a. a lifeboat drill be held within 12 hours prior to departure N b. fire pumps be tested by starting within 12 hours prior to departure N c. the emergency generator and lighting system be tested by starting and operating within 12 hours prior to departure Y d. the entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours prior to departure 3429: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 37.6 lbs.
N a. 930 tons each N b. 955 tons each Y c. 975 tons each N d. 990 tons each 3493: The longitudinal distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.
N a. 122'-09" Y b. 164'-00" N c. 260'-00" N d. 260'-05" 3607: With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is __________.
Y a. 1,378 feet N b. 1,423 feet N c. 1,591 feet N d. 1,624 feet 3766: The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.
N a. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication Y b. avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling N c. preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain N d. providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration 3773: What is the ullage in P-Tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the weight is 75.24 long tons?
Y a. 4.0 feet N b. 5.0 feet N c. 10.2 feet N d. 16.0 feet 3812: If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________.
Y a. remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel N b. head for the closest land N c. head for the closest sea-lanes N d. get a majority opinion 3832: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0148
N a. 229.8 ft N b. 234.3 ft Y c. 246.8 ft N d. 251.5 ft 3920: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
N a. shape N b. shallow draft N c. large sail area Y d. All of the above 3980: In the illustration shown, the pressure relief valve is indicated as item number __________. (D014SA )
N a. 3 Y b. 4 N c. 9 N d. 11 4171: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?
N a. 10.07 feet N b. 8.80 feet Y c. 7.59 feet N d. 5.45 feet 4189: You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)
N a. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to sea. Y b. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany. N c. You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to compensate. N d. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical mark upon arrival in the tropical zone. 4485: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KMT is __________.
Y a. 153.73 feet N b. 160.42 feet N c. 179.41 feet N d. 203.97 feet 5445: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and forward. Strong wind and high waves are from the starboard quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.
N a. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2 Y b. failure of mooring lines 5 or 6 N c. leak in ballast tank #2P N d. ballast tanks are equalizing into tank 1P 5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.
N a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks N b. satisfactory, continue tripping Y c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft N d. satisfactory, place unit in standby 6196: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance?
N a. 1 Y b. 2 N c. 3 N d. 4 6303: The most doubtful and unpredictable factor in a mooring system is the __________.
Y a. ability of the anchors to hold in a seabed N b. anchor chain catenary length N c. variability of the fairlead N d. angle of the flukes 6485: The main function of the drawworks on a MODU is to __________.
N a. transport tubulars from the pipe racks to the derrick floor N b. maintain constant tension on the marine riser N c. store and secure the excess drill line Y d. lower and hoist the drill string into and out of the drilled hole 6937: A casualty report of an intentional grounding of a MODU is required under what condition?
N a. Under any condition N b. If the grounding lasts over 24 hours Y c. If it creates a hazard to the environment N d. At the owner's discretion 8103: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.
Y a. 20 feet N b. 30 feet N c. 35 feet N d. 40 feet 8221: What is the purpose of a vent header?
N a. Prevents entry of water into vent systems N b. Prevents passage of flame into fuel tanks N c. Catches overflow Y d. Combines individual vent lines into a main 8777: On a MODU, an obvious indicator of lost circulation of drilling fluid is __________.
N a. fluid level in the mud pits increases rapidly Y b. fluid level in the mud pits decreases rapidly N c. increased cuttings on the shale shaker N d. decreased cuttings on the shale shaker 8781: To determine the number of certificated Lifeboatmen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.
N a. load line certificate Y b. Certificate of Inspection N c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate N d. Operations Manual 9191: After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________.
Y a. pass through the body with little absorbed by the system N b. help to prevent fatigue N c. quench thirst for only 2 hours N d. help to prevent seasickness 9443: The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.
N a. time Y b. lever arm N c. displacement N d. angle of inclination