USCG Safety: Master's License

This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.


39: A flame screen __________.


175: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the __________.


415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?


472: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.

    N a. produce high-velocity fog
    N b. produce low-velocity fog
    Y c. produce a straight stream
    N d. shut off the water

634: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.

    N a. progressive downflooding
    N b. reduction of water in the storage tanks
    Y c. increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height
    N d. reduction of KG to the minimum allowable

643: The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.

    N a. bumpkin oar
    N b. stroke oar
    Y c. sweep oar
    N d. becket oar

741: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

    N a. Stores such as line, rags, mattresses, linens, etc. must be treated to be fire retardant.
    N b. Stores certified for use on uninspected vessels may be identified by the certification number used by Underwriter's Laboratories.
    Y c. A portable container of a flammable liquid used as fuel for portable auxiliary equipment must be stowed in a paint locker or at a designated open location.
    N d. Acetylene may be in a ship's storeroom in quantities not exceeding 6000 cubic feet.

849: You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken?

    N a. Replace the suit.
    N b. Replace the inflation bladder.
    Y c. Take it out of service and repair in accordance with the manufacturers instructions.
    N d. Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is provided; no other action is necessary.

931: The major cause of shock in burn victims is the __________.

    N a. high level of pain
    N b. emotional stress
    N c. increase in body temperature and pulse rate
    Y d. massive loss of fluid through the burned area

976: Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually __________.

    N a. overhauled by the ship's crew
    N b. sent to the Coast Guard for servicing
    N c. sent to the steamship company shore repair facility
    Y d. sent to a Coast Guard approved service facility

995: If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, it would be referring to __________.

    Y a. bearing
    N b. altitude
    N c. diving
    N d. speed

1020: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

    N a. Towing vessels 25 feet in length or less
    Y b. Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying one or more passengers for hire
    N c. Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length
    N d. All of the above

1048: The angle of maximum righting arm corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.

    Y a. deck edge immersion
    N b. the load line
    N c. downflooding
    N d. loll

1068: The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________.

    N a. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite
    Y b. upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
    N c. upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn
    N d. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present

1189: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0032

    N a. 2.62 feet
    Y b. 2.82 feet
    N c. 2.97 feet
    N d. 3.15 feet

1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.

    N a. spray directly on the base of the fire
    Y b. flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
    N c. sweep the fire with the foam
    N d. spray directly on the surface of the fire

1449: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?

    Y a. Food waste, not comminuted or ground
    N b. Rags ground to less than 1"
    N c. Paper ground to less than 1"
    N d. None of the above

1507: A thrust block is designed to __________.

    N a. absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow
    N b. be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration
    N c. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller
    Y d. transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel

1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?

    N a. 4.98 feet
    N b. 5.21 feet
    Y c. 5.43 feet
    N d. 5.67 feet

1919: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050° relative would be __________.

    Y a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    N b. reaching on a starboard tack
    N c. on a broad reach on a port tack
    N d. running before the wind

2070: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    N a. 25 tons
    Y b. 65 tons
    N c. 95 tons
    N d. 175 tons

2162: Which tank barges require draft marks?

    N a. Tank barges over 50 GT
    N b. Tank barges over 100 GT
    N c. Notch barges over 1000 GT
    Y d. All tank barges

2305: With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from a __________.

    N a. nuclear environment
    Y b. fire and toxic environment
    N c. hurricane
    N d. drop greater than 10 feet

2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

    N a. filling a partially filled tank
    Y b. using fuel from a pressed fuel tank
    N c. emptying a partially filled tank
    N d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak

2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

    N a. B only
    N b. B or C
    N c. C or D
    Y d. D or E

2524: What characteristic determines when a grade "C" product will start to vaporize?

    N a. Its filling density
    N b. Its ignition point
    N c. The flammable range
    Y d. Its flash point

2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.

    N a. submerged hulls
    Y b. column void spaces
    N c. dry mud tanks
    N d. ballast tanks

2744: Radar reflectors are required for __________.

    N a. all fishing vessels over 39 feet in length
    N b. sail-propelled fishing vessels
    N c. all fishing vessels of less than 200 GT
    Y d. wooden hull fishing vessels with a poor radar echo

2811: A vessel heading SW is on a course of __________.

    N a. 202.5°
    Y b. 225.0°
    N c. 247.5°
    N d. 270.0°

2878: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    N a. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    Y b. cool the bulkheads around the fire
    N c. close all openings to the area
    N d. shut off all electrical power

2908: How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard license be renewed without retaking the complete exam?

    N a. 1 month
    N b. 6 months
    Y c. 12 months
    N d. 24 months

3210: On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump shall have a minimum pumping capacity of __________.

    N a. 10 gallons per minute
    N b. 25 gallons per minute
    Y c. 50 gallons per minute
    N d. 100 gallons per minute

3394: The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.

    N a. distribute the gasoline
    Y b. mix the fuel and air
    N c. properly lubricate the engine
    N d. assist in priming the cylinders

3456: When a sea anchor for a survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.

    N a. completely stop the survival craft from drifting
    Y b. help to prevent broaching
    N c. prevent the survival craft from pitching
    N d. prevent the survival craft from rolling

3477: What is the increase in the transverse free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

    N a. 0.47 foot
    Y b. 0.32 foot
    N c. 0.27 foot
    N d. 0.13 foot

3583: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0142

    N a. 2.6 feet
    N b. 2.8 feet
    N c. 3.1 feet
    Y d. 4.3 feet

3602: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 25'-06". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    N a. Tanks: DB3, DB4
    N b. Tanks: DB5, DT6
    Y c. Tanks: DB2, DB5
    N d. Tanks: DB2, DB6, DB7

3804: All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.

    Y a. boarding and operating procedures
    N b. maintenance schedule
    N c. navigational systems
    N d. fuel consumption rates

3883: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.

    N a. A sailing vessel
    N b. A fishing vessel
    Y c. A non self-propelled vessel
    N d. A towing vessel

3973: What are the additional vertical moments created when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER sample load form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?

    N a. 2,252 foot-tons
    Y b. 9,413 foot-tons
    N c. 11,665 foot-tons
    N d. 13,917 foot-tons

4062: The owner or Master of a towing vessel that is operating within a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) area must report all of the following to VTS as soon as practicable EXCEPT ___________ .

    N a. any malfunction of propulsion machinery, steering gear, radar, gyrocompass or depth-sounder, if installed
    N b. shortage of personnel, lack of charts, maps or other required publications
    Y c. the type of license he/she holds and its serial number
    N d. any characteristics of the vessel that affect its maneuverability

4070: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?

    Y a. Compartments for the storage of canned drinking water
    N b. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
    N c. An air starter on the diesel engine
    N d. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear)

4187: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling at 60 feet draft at a corrected KG of 54.0 feet. Ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?

    N a. 1283 long tons
    N b. 817 long tons
    N c. 679 long tons
    Y d. 302 long tons

4575: What precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

    N a. Wear asbestos gloves.
    N b. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon.
    Y c. Never remove the line from the rocket.
    N d. All of the above

4625: The order to abandon a MODU should only be given by the __________.

    Y a. Offshore Installation Manager
    N b. Barge Engineer
    N c. Ballast Control Operator
    N d. Rig Safety Supervisor

4797: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new TCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    Y a. -0.23 foot
    N b. 0.00 foot
    N c. 0.23 foot
    N d. 0.54 foot

4833: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should __________.

    Y a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
    N b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air
    N c. remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors
    N d. sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes

5071: A mobile offshore drilling unit is on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf. It has a length of 220 feet and a breadth of 190 feet. Where must the obstruction lights be located?

    N a. At the top of the drill mast
    Y b. On each corner of the rig
    N c. At the bow of the rig
    N d. At the bow and stern of the rig

5233: During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated by an off-center load, a MODU suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should __________.

    N a. continue counterflooding in the same direction
    N b. continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction
    Y c. immediately stop counterflooding
    N d. deballast from the low side

5275: In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using __________.

    N a. all four ballast pumps
    Y b. both port-side ballast pumps
    N c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
    N d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps

6049: While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    N a. Resume base course and speed as your assistance is no longer required.
    N b. Acknowledge receipt and advise your course, speed, and ETA.
    N c. Relay the original distress message as no other vessel has acknowledged it.
    Y d. Monitor the radiotelephone but do not transmit.

6861: Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

    Y a. log the density of the water
    N b. secure all overboard discharges
    N c. take on fresh water ballast
    N d. clean the sides with fresh water

8311: High concentrations of H2S gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.

    N a. cause involuntary muscle contractions
    Y b. paralyze your breathing system
    N c. cause eye inflammation
    N d. cause dizziness

8317: The minimum concentration of H2S which can cause death if a person is exposed for even an instant is __________.

    N a. 200 ppm
    N b. 400 ppm
    N c. 600 ppm
    Y d. 1000 ppm

9130: When administering first aid you should avoid __________.

    N a. any conversation with the patient
    N b. instructing bystanders
    Y c. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
    N d. touching the patient before washing your hands

9291: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?

    N a. 9.00 feet port
    Y b. 0.50 foot starboard
    N c. 0.50 foot port
    N d. 1.00 foot port

9341: Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

    N a. A only
    N b. B only
    N c. B and C only
    Y d. A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher

9397: CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.

    Y a. orbiting satellites in space
    N b. commercial radio stations
    N c. private, commercial, and military aircraft
    N d. Both A & C

9591: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new draft if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    N a. 36.23 feet
    Y b. 44.27 feet
    N c. 45.73 feet
    N d. 53.77 feet

9643: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

    N a. 1,000 pounds
    N b. 750 pounds
    N c. 500 pounds
    Y d. 300 pounds