This is an interactive test. Read each question and select the proper answer by clicking on the appropriate answer. If a "Y" appears, your choice is correct. If a "N" appears, more study may be in order.
27: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.
Y a. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit) N b. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit) N c. capable of supporting a fire once started N d. not safe for ballasting 49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.
N a. use a portable foam extinguisher N b. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose Y c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher N d. determine the cause of the fire 54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
N a. 6° N b. 12° Y c. 20° N d. 25° 355: The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.
Y a. about which the vessel lists and trims N b. which coincides with the center of buoyancy N c. which, in the absence of external forces, is always vertically aligned with the center of gravity N d. which is shown in the hydrostatic tables as VCB 688: Which may ignite fuel vapors?
N a. Static electricity N b. An open and running motor N c. Loose wiring Y d. All of the above 754: "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?
N a. Distress N b. Safety N c. All clear Y d. Urgency 794: An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?
N a. MAF Y b. MAB N c. MAA N d. MAE 886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?
Y a. Two N b. Three N c. Four N d. Five 1141: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0027
N a. 2.15 feet N b. 2.05 feet N c. 1.85 feet Y d. 1.52 feet 1145: When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________.
N a. to their final position with the winch operating at slow speed N b. to the bar stop, and then hand cranked to their final position Y c. until just before they make contact with the limit switch, and then hand cranked to their final position N d. to the embarkation deck, and then hand cranked to their final position 1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.
N a. white Y b. green N c. yellow N d. red 1278: An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.
N a. carbon dioxide N b. Halon 1301 N c. dry chemical Y d. water fog 1282: When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using __________.
N a. a straight stream of water N b. foam spray Y c. high-velocity fog N d. low-velocity fog 1389: Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE?
Y a. Boiler soot blowers should never be used when the IG system is operating. N b. The boiler will produce the best quality of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. N c. The boiler will produce the most quantity of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. N d. Flue gas with excessive oxygen content is de-oxygenated in the scrubber. 1398: The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.
N a. 1 inch Y b. 2-1/2 inches N c. 3 inches N d. 3-1/2 inches 1428: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the pressure drops below how many psi?
N a. 360 N b. 352 N c. 336 Y d. 324 1435: After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning?
N a. Scrubber Y b. Demister N c. Deck water seal N d. Final filter 1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?
N a. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire. N b. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases. N c. Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders. Y d. Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising. 1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50° on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?
N a. If you slack the mizzen sheet, the center of effort will move aft. N b. If you slack the main sheet, the lift to drag ratio of the mainsail will increase. N c. If you sheet in the mainsail without changing course, the vessel will heel farther and speed up. Y d. If you strike the mainsail, the center of effort of the whole rig will move down. 1877: Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?
N a. S-Band Radar N b. A DSC receiver Y c. X-Band Radar N d. The autoalarm 1932: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?
N a. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster and closer to the wind. N b. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster on the same course. Y c. If you steer closer to the wind, you will slow down. N d. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you must bear away from the wind. 1932: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?
N a. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster and closer to the wind. N b. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster on the same course. Y c. If you steer closer to the wind, you will slow down. N d. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you must bear away from the wind. 1963: How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?
N a. All INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for immediate action. N b. By adding the word "DISTRESS" in the first line of the message's preamble Y c. Certain INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for immediate action, while other systems provide menu-driven features. N d. By transmitting the distress message on the U.S. Coast Guard's dedicated monitoring channel. 1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.
N a. one hour Y b. two hours N c. ten hours N d. four hours 2004: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )
Y a. 60 tons N b. 100 tons N c. 180 tons N d. 240 tons 2189: Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is known as __________.
Y a. jibing N b. running before the wind N c. tacking N d. reefing 2386: What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?
N a. Two licensed GMDSS radio operators N b. Equipment carriage requirements N c. Distress alerting and response Y d. All of the above 2489: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area?
N a. CO2 N b. Dry chemical N c. Monoxide powders Y d. Foam 2563: The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the __________.
N a. personnel line Y b. whip line N c. main hoist line N d. pendant 2723: The prohibition against exceeding the load line draft may be considered temporarily not applicable when __________.
N a. column-stabilized units are operating in water depths over 600 feet N b. column-stabilized units are operating in waters outside U.S. jurisdiction Y c. bottom supported units are being raised or lowered to the sea bed N d. bottom supported units are being towed on a move of less than 12 hours 2853: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a confined space?
N a. Flame safety lamp N b. Combustible gas indicator Y c. Oxygen indicator N d. H2S meter 2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.
Y a. the letter "E" N b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit N c. a no-smoking symbol N d. the word "DANGER" 2950: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.0 feet) and take on 600 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)
N a. 2.8 feet N b. 2.5 feet Y c. 1.9 feet N d. 1.5 feet 2967: When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.
N a. centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line Y b. righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment N c. downflooding point is below water N d. deck-edge immersion occurs 3325: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?
N a. 1.03 feet starboard of centerline N b. 0.53 foot starboard of centerline N c. 0.53 foot port of centerline Y d. 1.53 feet port of centerline 3326: The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.
Y a. in contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark N b. from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark N c. in contact with the fill opening to allow proper venting N d. None of the above 3415: A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same affect on stability as __________.
Y a. weight that is off-center to starboard N b. increasing the draft N c. reducing the freeboard N d. increasing the trim 3517: What is the lightweight of the DEEP DRILLER?
N a. 680,914 long tons Y b. 9,733 long tons N c. 5,937 long tons N d. 6,716 long tons 3537: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed __________.
N a. 4° N b. 5° N c. 7° Y d. 10° 3602: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 25'-06". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)
N a. Tanks: DB3, DB4 N b. Tanks: DB5, DT6 Y c. Tanks: DB2, DB5 N d. Tanks: DB2, DB6, DB7 3718: Treatments of heat exhaustion consist of __________.
Y a. moving to a shaded area and laying down N b. bathing with rubbing alcohol N c. placing the patient in a tub of cold water N d. All of the above 3751: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.
Y a. perform the Heimlich maneuver N b. make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the brain N c. immediately administer CPR N d. do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious 4049: The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged ___________ .
N a. on each watch, immediately before being relieved Y b. before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours N c. daily, at 1200 local zone time N d. weekly, before 0000 Sunday 4198: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?
N a. 270 N b. 278 N c. 291 Y d. 318 4535: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this mud?
N a. 896 ft-kips N b. 913 ft-kips Y c. 1139 ft-kips N d. 1161 ft-kips 4537: What is the weight in long tons of 180 barrels of 15 pound per gallon drilling mud?
N a. 522.67 long tons Y b. 50.63 long tons N c. 34.84 long tons N d. 3.38 long tons 5193: The DEEP DRILLER is being towed at a 20 foot draft. Vessel motions are within acceptable limits, but the waves begin to hit the horizontal braces. You should __________.
N a. continue on course at the same draft N b. ballast to a 60 foot draft and continue on course Y c. change course to reduce the wave impact N d. shorten the tow wire for a smoother ride 5275: In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using __________.
N a. all four ballast pumps Y b. both port-side ballast pumps N c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps N d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps 5475: The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the __________.
N a. stud link is more economical Y b. stud keeps the chain from kinking N c. stud link chain is the lightest night design N d. stud link improves the anchor's holding power 5518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0180
N a. 1.15 feet N b. 1.25 feet N c. 1.31 feet Y d. 1.48 feet 5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed __________.
Y a. at the anchor end of the line N b. at the wildcat end of the line N c. midway between the anchor and the wildcat N d. through the anchor buoy 5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed __________.
Y a. at the anchor end of the line N b. at the wildcat end of the line N c. midway between the anchor and the wildcat N d. through the anchor buoy 6007: On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.
Y a. 12 months N b. 24 months N c. 36 months N d. 48 months 6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.
Y a. the name of the person conducting the test N b. the weight of the charge N c. recommendations for the next test N d. All of the above 7335: When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?
Y a. Low power N b. Medium power N c. High power N d. Extra high power 9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.
N a. indication of broken bones Y b. breathing and heartbeat N c. symptoms of concussion N d. bleeding injuries 9567: The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
N a. transverse free surface correction for the vessel N b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel Y c. sum of the transverse free surface moments of the vessel N d. transverse baseline of the vessel 9614: The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.
N a. 0°F at 50 PSI N b. 70°F at 150 PSI Y c. 0°F at 300 PSI N d. 70°Fat 500 PSI 9621: You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?
N a. Protect the adjacent spaces on the same deck as the laundry room. Y b. Locate and use the nearest portable extinguisher, if conditions permit. N c. Protect the compartment directly above the laundry room. N d. Go to the nearest fire station and break out the hose. 9651: In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.
Y a. 2 N b. 3 N c. 4 N d. 6