USCG Safety: Master's License


3: To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.

5: Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________.

6: Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________.

7: You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter?

8: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

9: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________.

10: What is the definition of transverse metacenter?

11: A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

12: The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.

13: Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.

14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________.

15: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.

17: The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.

18: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?

19: The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a __________.

20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.

21: Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.

22: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.

23: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

24: Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the International Rules of the Road?

25: You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?

26: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?

27: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.

28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.

29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.

30: Transverse stability calculations require the use of __________.

31: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

32: Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________.

33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

34: Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?

35: Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?

36: The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________.

37: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?

38: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.

39: A flame screen __________.

40: Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to __________.

41: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.

42: The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________.

43: If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

44: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?

46: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is one __________.

47: What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?

48: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?

49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.

50: What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?

51: On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?

52: Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?

53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.

54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.

56: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is __________.

57: The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the __________.

58: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.

59: Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?

60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.

61: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gas free. Regulations say that the cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may remain open without flame screens __________.

62: The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.

63: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

64: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0001

65: The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

66: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?

67: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.

68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

69: Fire hose couplings __________.

70: What represents the center of gravity? (D001SA )

71: Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.

72: To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.

72: To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.

73: A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

74: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________.

75: If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?

76: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________.

77: Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.

78: Before CPR is started, you should __________.

79: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

80: What represents the metacentric height? (D001SA )

81: Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?

82: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

83: If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.

84: After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.

85: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

86: On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you __________.

87: Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?

88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?

89: To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________.

90: Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? (D001SA )

91: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

92: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________.

94: If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, you would send __________.

95: A spark arrestor __________.

96: A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________.

97: The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________.

99: Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of __________.

100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.

100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.

101: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

102: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

103: You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________.

104: In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance" is __________.

105: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________.

106: A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.

107: What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?

108: Antiseptics are used principally to __________.

109: Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed it's full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?

110: A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will __________.

111: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

112: Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

113: You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.

114: If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?

115: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?

117: Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.

118: A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________.

119: What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?

120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.

121: Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?

122: A negative metacentric height __________.

123: If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

125: Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

126: Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?

127: Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by __________.

128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?

129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.

131: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM. (See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book)

132: The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

133: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?

134: What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light?

135: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is FALSE?

136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?

137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the __________.

138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.

139: When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________.

140: Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?

141: Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel?

142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?

143: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?

144: The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is __________.

145: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE?

147: Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is __________.

148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.

149: A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter __________.

150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

151: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0002

152: What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?

153: If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.

154: The standard rate of signaling by flashing light is __________.

155: When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?

156: The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________.

157: On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.

158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?

160: A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.

161: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0003

162: The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to __________.

163: You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________.

165: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

166: On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?

167: One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.

168: In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________.

169: The signal T 0735 means __________.

170: In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.

171: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.

173: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.

174: If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________.

175: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the __________.

176: On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________.

177: Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source __________.

178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.

179: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 6780 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5. What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book)

180: Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?

182: Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest operating draft?

183: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

184: When signaling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be used to indicate a(n) __________.

185: Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations?

186: Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________.

187: What represents poor sanitary procedures?

188: The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.

189: The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.

190: Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?

191: Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed?

192: When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.

194: Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?

195: As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST?

196: The term "gross tonnage" refers to __________.

197: Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.

198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________.

199: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0004

200: Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?

201: Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?

202: The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________.

203: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be __________.

204: When signaling by flashing light, a correctly received repetition of a signal is acknowledged by the signal __________.

205: When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?

207: Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?

208: What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid?

209: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found __________.

210: Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.

211: The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.

212: In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) __________.

213: Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.

214: In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?

216: What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?

217: Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test?

218: A compound fracture is a fracture in which __________.

219: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.

220: Metacentric height is a measure of __________.

221: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?

222: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

223: The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

224: If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?

226: How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship?

227: The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed __________.

228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?

229: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.

230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.

231: The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of Inspection can be issued is conducted________________.

232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?

233: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.

234: What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?

236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?

238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.

239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

240: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that __________.

241: The signal L1210 means the __________.

242: You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?

244: A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. The signal means "_____."

245: Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because __________.

246: On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided?

247: During a stability test on a small passenger vessel __________.

248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?

249: Large quantities of gas in the shale shaker area may be an indication of __________.

250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?

251: Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.

252: What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

254: If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board, you would hoist the flag signal __________.

255: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens ONLY __________.

256: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?

257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.

258: In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________.

259: What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?

261: A person who willfully violates safety regulations may be fined up to $(SA)5,000 and __________.

262: Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?

264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it, the station can hoist the flag signal __________.

265: The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________.

266: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?

267: Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?

268: What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?

269: To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.

270: When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.

271: A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast Guard if it involves __________.

272: Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.

274: The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2, __________.

275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using __________.

276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is approximately __________.

277: The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.

278: What is a treatment for traumatic shock?

280: In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an "open boat" is a vessel __________.

281: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?

282: The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.

283: Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of __________.

284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.

285: The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________.

286: On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within __________.

287: The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.

288: A negative metacentric height __________.

289: You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to "head up". You should __________.

290: What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?

291: A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes __________.

292: High-velocity fog __________.

293: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?

294: If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist it should __________.

295: The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________.

296: In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds __________.

297: Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near the wheelhouse?

298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?

299: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

300: In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route is defined as one that is __________.

301: Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?

302: If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?

303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which is __________.

304: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute?

305: It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.

306: In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT __________.

307: Your ship is returning to New Orleans from a foreign voyage and carrying a bulk cargo of anhydrous ammonia. You must notify the Captain of the Port, New Orleans, __________.

308: A person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm coverings to __________.

310: A vessel's light draft displacement is 7400 tons. The center of gravity at this draft is 21.5 ft. above the keel. The following weights are loaded: (WT. #1-450 tons, VCG #1-17.4 ft.; WT. #2-220 tons, VCG #2-11.6 ft.; WT. #3-65 tons, VCG #3-7.0 ft.). The new CG above the keel is __________.

311: Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.

312: The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have __________.

313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be __________.

314: The flag hoist 1.33 would be sent as __________.

315: The maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry __________.

316: The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide(CO2) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over __________.

317: Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the United States. You are required by regulations to __________.

318: The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident is to __________.

319: Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?

320: As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.

321: A signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with __________.

322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________.

323: You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T" boat's Certificate of Inspection __________.

324: The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel __________.

325: For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________.

326: CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________.

327: The maneuvering information required to be posted in the wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?

328: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?

329: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?

330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.

331: One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam __________.

332: When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________.

333: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal flotation devices)?

335: Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold __________.

336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed __________.

338: A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a __________.

339: If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would __________.

340: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

341: The Master or other vessel representative must contact the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of a(n) __________.

342: Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to the __________.

343: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using __________.

345: A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1,1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe?

346: The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for __________.

347: The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.

348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.

349: A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over __________.

350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.

351: What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?

352: What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?

353: When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.

354: The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. This information should __________.

355: The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.

356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to __________.

357: The operator of a vessel's radiotelephone must hold at least a __________.

358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should __________.

359: A vessel is floating in saltwater at a mean draft of 14 feet. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam 50 feet, TPI 45. The BM is 16.34 feet. What is the vessel's displacement in tons?

360: The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.

361: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?

362: Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________.

363: You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974?

366: You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space?

367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________.

369: A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. What will be the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface, with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?

370: What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?

372: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0005

373: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

374: A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________.

375: Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil?

376: Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set with __________.

377: The regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the __________.

378: The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to __________.

379: Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel if it is __________.

380: You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?

381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?

382: A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________.

383: The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to __________.

385: You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board?

386: On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification Expiration Date Stickers __________.

387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?

388: A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury?

389: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank tops. The hold is 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.

391: Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.

392: What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?

393: A sea anchor is __________.

394: If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone you should __________.

395: You are operating a 1,000 GT non-ocean going tankship. It must be equipped with __________.

396: Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its designed rate of foam production for __________.

397: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.

399: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?

400: Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or alterations affecting its safety you must __________.

401: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 60 feet wide is partially filled with water?

402: To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use __________.

403: Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it back aboard is by __________.

405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________.

406: A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all __________.

407: Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.

408: If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source and then __________.

409: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons.)

410: The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon __________.

411: Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than __________.

412: To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would __________.

413: Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels must be constructed of or lined with __________.

414: A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the __________.

415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?

416: Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?

418: Treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) of __________.

419: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0006

420: The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.

421: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.

422: The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you __________.

423: When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.

424: What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?

425: If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only __________.

426: A 2,000 GT tankship is required to carry __________.

427: Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least __________.

428: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.

429: You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?

430: The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.

431: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 31'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0007

432: One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.

433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________.

434: You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?

435: If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must __________.

437: On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight passenger accommodation spaces __________.

438: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.

439: Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or __________.

440: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 3.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

441: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

442: On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is all the way forward is __________.

444: A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.

446: The number of fire axes required to be carried on a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT and on an international voyage is __________.

447: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?

448: Treatment of frostbite includes __________.

449: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement there are two slack deep tanks of palm oil (SG .86). Each tank is 40 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?

450: Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?

452: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward position, the nozzle will __________.

453: You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.

454: Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.

455: Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the __________.

456: On a vessel of 900 GT, the minimum number of fire axes required is __________.

457: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log must contain __________.

459: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose?

460: A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________.

461: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

462: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will __________.

463: When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system __________.

464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.

465: A cargo hose is marked with the __________.

466: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

467: Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?

470: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

471: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

472: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.

473: Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that __________.

474: You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.

475: The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly must be at least __________.

476: What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic acid?

477: The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of __________.

478: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.

481: How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

482: The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle should always be __________.

483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4184 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0008

484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________.

485: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than __________.

486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD28'-04", AFT 30'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0009

487: Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?

488: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.

489: An extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size __________.

490: Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

491: Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked?

492: The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.

493: Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?

494: A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?

495: No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements?

496: The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with the words __________.

497: The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.

498: An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

499: In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be __________.

500: Safety shackles are fitted with __________.

501: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0010

502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________.

503: Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Lifeboat No. 2 is located __________.

504: If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.

506: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.

507: While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on channel __________.

508: Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?

509: Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________.

510: A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________.

511: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0011

512: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0012

513: Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.

514: You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that __________.

515: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?

516: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

517: The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.

518: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

519: A vessel must have at least two fireman's outfits aboard if she __________.

520: What is the displacement of a barge which measures 85' x 46' x 13' and is floating in salt water with a draft of ten feet?

521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?

522: A spanner is a __________.

523: The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the __________.

523: The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the __________.

524: The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word __________.

525: What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker?

526: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?

527: The VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel is __________.

528: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________.

529: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

530: The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.

531: A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.

532: Fire hose should be washed with __________.

533: What is the purpose of limber holes?

534: Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with __________.

535: What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures?

536: A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a speed of at least __________.

537: What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?

538: A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should __________.

539: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

540: Of the following, the most important consideration for a tank vessel is __________.

541: The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals means "________________".

542: Before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle, you must __________. (D004SA )

543: Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.

544: In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.

545: The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain __________.

547: Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.

548: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.

549: If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.

550: The normal tendency for a loaded tanker is to __________.

551: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 20 ft. wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with saltwater below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?

552: When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, a 5-gallon can of liquid foam will last __________.

553: Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?

554: When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by the signal __________.

555: The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted __________.

556: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.

557: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or channel __________.

558: A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partially protected waters may not have a port light below the weather deck unless __________.

559: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 28'-08" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.

560: On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less than six inches above the deepest load waterline __________.

561: The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________.

562: One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.

563: Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?

564: If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, you should __________.

565: Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by __________.

566: Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?

567: On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________.

568: On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut off valve __________.

569: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 25 ft. wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with salt water below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?

570: On a vessel of 5,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of acid (SG 1.8). Each tank is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?

571: To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could __________.

572: Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?

573: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led __________.

574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that __________.

575: Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a __________.

576: Each lifeboat must be lowered and maneuvered in the water at least once every __________.

577: All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?

578: When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should __________.

579: The letter R followed by one or more numbers indicates __________.

580: Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.

581: You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE?

582: Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.

583: The minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service is __________.

584: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0013

585: How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board?

586: On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration?

587: Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?

588: At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the alarm, what should the person on watch do?

589: Fires are grouped into what categories?

590: The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.

591: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0014

592: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

593: The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by __________.

595: How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers?

596: The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered at least once every __________.

597: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to __________.

598: A fire must be ventilated __________.

599: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.

600: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

602: What does "EPIRB" stand for?

603: The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.

604: To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should __________.

605: The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI containing __________.

606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.

606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.

607: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?

608: A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________.

609: Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB?

610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

611: The maximum mean draft to which a vessel may be safely loaded is called __________.

612: The service life of distress signals must be not more than __________.

613: The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

614: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.

615: The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________.

616: Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.

617: For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry __________.

618: You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?

619: A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of __________.

620: A vessel's LCG is determined by __________.

621: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface because of an emergency on board is __________.

622: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.

623: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

624: Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested __________.

625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________.

627: Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels __________.

628: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

629: Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________.

630: Reserve buoyancy is __________.

631: You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

632: Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective on __________.

633: A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.

634: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.

635: The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?

636: What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?

637: The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.

638: You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately?

639: A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.

640: The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its __________.

641: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0015

642: As an extinguishing agent, foam __________.

643: The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.

644: The difference between the forward and aft drafts is __________.

645: A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.

647: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more than __________.

648: Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color?

649: The lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.

650: Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?

651: Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry __________.

652: How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

653: A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display warning signs. These signs must __________.

654: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

655: The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.

656: The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.

657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?

658: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

659: A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68). The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 20 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?

660: Reserve buoyancy is __________.

661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________.

662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.

663: Stretchers are fitted in lifeboats to provide a __________.

664: Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.

665: Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations aboard a tankship?

668: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

669: You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?

670: Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?

671: When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, the signal __________.

671: When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, the signal __________.

672: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher is most useful in fighting a fire in __________.

673: The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located __________.

674: A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.

675: Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?

676: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

678: Fire may be spread by which means?

679: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

680: The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.

681: Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.

682: How are lifelines attached to a life float?

683: The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________.

684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is __________.

685: The operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation must keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for __________.

686: You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________.

688: Which may ignite fuel vapors?

689: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.

690: Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the __________.

692: Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?

693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.

694: What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?

695: The Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations must be signed by the __________.

696: For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.

697: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________.

698: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

699: What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel?

700: Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe __________.

701: Which statement about free surface is TRUE?

702: Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?

704: Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?

705: Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST?

706: The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.

707: If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must __________.

708: Removing which will extinguish a fire?

709: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 ft. wide and 60 ft. long is partially filled with saltwater? (The vessel's displacement is 10,000 tons.)

710: Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.

711: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.

712: Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?

713: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent __________.

714: A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.

715: Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.

716: The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage, is __________.

717: If your radiotelephone fails while underway, __________.

718: Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must __________.

719: A fire hose has a __________.

720: The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the __________.

721: Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called __________.

722: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0016

723: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is __________.

724: Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.

725: You notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel. You should FIRST __________.

726: On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with __________.

727: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment __________.

728: When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?

729: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?

730: The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as __________.

731: If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will not be able to discharge __________ anywhere at sea.

732: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?

733: Lifeboat hatchets should be __________.

734: On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________.

735: You are fueling your vessel when you notice oil in the water around your vessel. You should immediately stop fueling and __________.

736: How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?

737: When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?

738: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

739: A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of alcohol with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 30 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water, S.G. is 1.026?

740: What is NOT a motion of the vessel?

741: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

742: An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.

743: In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.

744: You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger. You should use the urgent signal __________.

745: You detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging. The FIRST thing to do is __________.

746: The quantity of fuel required to be carried in a motor lifeboat is __________.

747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?

747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?

748: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

749: Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with life floats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate __________.

750: The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.

752: Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?

753: How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?

754: "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?

755: While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST?

756: A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of __________.

757: Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?

758: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

759: Determine the free surface correction for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep, with a free surface constant of 3794. The vessel is displacing 7,000 tons in saltwater.

760: With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________.

761: Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

762: The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________.

763: Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?

764: Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?

765: Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested and inspected at specified intervals by __________.

767: On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.

768: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

769: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

770: A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

771: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do?

772: What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel?

773: When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.

774: If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying?

775: During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure of at least __________.

776: When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical_________.

777: On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with __________.

778: An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________.

779: A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?

779: A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?

780: The change in trim of a vessel may be found by __________.

781: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

782: On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage?

783: A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.

784: While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain?

785: 33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning __________.

786: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?

787: To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should __________.

788: Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?

789: An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.

790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?

791: During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. The smoke's color will be __________.

792: What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?

793: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

794: An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?

795: The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations rests with the __________.

796: When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.

797: Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE?

798: A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?

799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.

800: The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.

801: No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when __________.

802: A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.

803: The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

804: You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code?

805: Application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted to the __________.

806: On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery must be __________.

807: The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.

808: A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class __________.

809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.

810: When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will __________.

811: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.

814: In the International Code of signals, a group of three letters indicates __________.

815: Applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted __________.

816: You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks?

817: An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________.

818: A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.

819: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea?

820: The two points that act together to trim a ship are the __________.

821: Bleeding from a vein is __________.

822: When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemicals should be __________.

823: Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.

824: You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____."

825: ABYC equipment standards are published by the __________.

827: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________.

828: A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class __________.

829: A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?

830: Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is __________.

831: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

832: Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical extinguisher?

833: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.

834: After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".

835: No person may serve as the person in charge of both the vessel and the facility during oil transfer operations unless __________.

836: What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?

837: The largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space is __________.

838: A class C fire would be burning __________.

839: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________.

840: If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?

841: Blood flowing from a cut artery appears __________.

842: As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?

843: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

844: If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?

845: Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within __________.

846: If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?

848: The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class __________.

849: You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken?

850: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

851: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________.

852: Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?

853: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.

854: If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?

855: The term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, means the __________.

856: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

857: Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly?

858: A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class __________.

860: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.

861: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0017

862: Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by __________.

863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?

864: A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain?

865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.

866: The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.

867: Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at least once __________.

868: Burning wood is which class of fire?

869: As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to __________.

870: The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Your vessel is __________.

871: The bilge pump on a fishing vessel __________.

872: The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at a temperature of __________.

873: On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled gasoline or diesel engine must be water-jacketed and cooled?

874: If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", he would be telling you __________.

875: How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling?

876: Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean service?

877: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by the __________.

878: A fire in a pile of linen is a class __________.

879: To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.

880: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.

881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________.

882: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.

883: On a vessel of 15,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 60 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

884: The single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, means __________.

885: Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?

887: Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

888: An oil fire is classified as class __________.

889: Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.

890: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT __________.

891: On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be __________.

892: While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________.

893: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, a tank 60 feet long, 50 feet wide, and 20 feet deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026) What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface?

894: Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by __________.

895: Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than 65 feet in length, carrying not more than 12 passengers if __________.

897: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

898: A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?

899: EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?

900: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT __________.

901: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

902: Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

903: On a vessel displacing 8,000 tons, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 45 feet long and 45 feet wide is partly filled with salt water?

904: If you are on the beach and are signaling to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and they should land to the left, you would __________.

905: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine coming to periscope depth is __________.

906: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.

907: An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.

908: If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?

909: Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve sudden large overpressures that exceed the capacity of the mechanical P/V valves?

910: When using a stabilogauge, unless the density correction is applied, the center of gravity of a loaded compartment is assumed to be located __________.

911: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0018

912: A "fifteen-pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because __________.

913: On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 40 feet long and 20 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

914: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

915: Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels?

917: Foam-type portable fire extinguishers are most useful in combating fires involving __________.

918: Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are class __________.

919: After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?

920: If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.

921: You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by __________.

922: An upright vessel has negative GM. GM becomes positive at the angle of loll because the __________.

923: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?

924: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

925: The center of flotation of a vessel is the geometric center of the __________.

926: Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________.

927: The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is __________.

928: A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?

929: According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________.

930: Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.

931: The major cause of shock in burn victims is the __________.

932: Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of __________.

933: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 40 feet and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?

934: The signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative" is __________.

935: If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate?

936: If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?

937: On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?

938: A magnesium fire is classified as class __________.

939: CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every __________.

940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.

941: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0019

942: A fifteen-pound CO2 extinguisher __________.

943: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 60 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?

944: The lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible" is the __________.

945: The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance is __________.

946: What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank ?

947: When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?

948: Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as class __________.

950: Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.

951: If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should __________.

952: Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable CO2 fire extinguisher needs recharging?

953: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?

954: Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"?

955: If another station sent you the signal "KG", he would be __________.

957: An engine compartment gasoline fire requires which type of extinguisher?

958: Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion?

959: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0020

960: Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.

961: Safety is increased if __________.

962: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged __________.

963: Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its full rolling period to be 21.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?

964: Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?

965: What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

967: Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed __________.

968: Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn?

969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.

970: During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. To correct the list, you should __________.

971: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

972: Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?

973: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0 foot and a beam of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?

974: On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is __________.

975: The waiting signal in code for all forms of signaling is __________.

976: Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually __________.

977: Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?

978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?

979: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

980: Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?

981: Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.

982: In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher is limited to __________.

983: Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. Your average rolling period will be __________.

984: The lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare means __________.

985: What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"?

986: According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.

987: Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?

988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?

989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.

990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.

991: Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________.

992: On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be __________.

993: If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what will be your full rolling period?

994: The signal to guide vessels in distress, which indicates, "This is the best place to land" is the __________.

995: If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, it would be referring to __________.

997: Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?

998: Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as __________.

999: A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must carry an inflatable liferaft with a __________.

1000: A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?

1001: Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

1002: How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?

1003: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?

1004: The lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here highly dangerous" is __________.

1005: Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical miles"?

1006: An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) __________.

1007: What is the BEST conductor of electricity?

1008: A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________.

1009: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0021

1010: Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?

1011: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1012: The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed __________.

1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)

1014: Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?

1015: Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109°34'West?

1016: What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?

1017: The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.

1019: You are operating 10 miles offshore with three people aboard. What kind of survival craft must you carry?

1020: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1021: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1022: When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the __________.

1023: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into the sea?

1024: The firing of a red star signal may mean __________.

1025: Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73°25'North"?

1026: A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry __________.

1027: What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?

1028: Symptoms of heat stroke are __________.

1029: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1030: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?

1031: What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system?

1032: When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.

1033: Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?

1034: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1035: The letter G, when sent with a complement, may be followed by __________.

1036: Life preservers must be marked with the __________.

1037: What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?

1038: You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. You must __________.

1039: On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding pipes of gasoline tanks must extend directly __________.

1040: General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log are that __________.

1041: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2685 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0022

1042: Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?

1043: Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?

1044: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

1045: Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm?

1046: On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent pipe must __________.

1047: The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire is that it __________.

1048: The angle of maximum righting arm corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.

1049: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0023

1050: A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate __________.

1050: A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate __________.

1051: The fresh air intake of the inert gas system _____,

1052: The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________.

1053: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?

1054: By day, the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land" is a __________.

1055: The signal K4 sent by any method means __________.

1056: U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew __________.

1057: The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.

1058: Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?

1059: Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water?

1060: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0024

1061: What are the symptoms of sun stroke?

1062: Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of __________.

1063: Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens __________.

1064: By day, the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicates __________.

1065: Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________.

1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.

1067: A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with __________.

1068: The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________.

1069: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.

1070: On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of __________.

1071: Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines?

1073: Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?

1074: Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?

1075: Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the __________.

1076: The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

1077: A vessel's KG is determined by __________.

1078: The explosive range of Bunker C mixed with air is __________.

1079: Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?

1080: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged?

1081: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

1082: Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?

1083: On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be __________.

1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?

1085: When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.

1086: Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________.

1087: A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.

1088: The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________.

1089: During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should __________.

1090: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0025

1091: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0026

1092: Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator?

1093: On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be fitted to a fuel line's tank connection?

1094: A small craft advisory forecasts winds of up to what speed?

1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.

1096: What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?

1097: Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

1098: Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?

1099: On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines __________.

1100: The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.

1101: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?

1102: While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will __________.

1103: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.

1104: When there is a small craft advisory winds are predicted up to __________.

1105: In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?

1106: On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines?

1107: In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.

1108: The vapor pressure of a substance __________.

1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.

1110: Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.

1111: On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________.

1112: A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.

1114: The National Weather Service differentiates between small craft, gale, whole gale, and hurricane warnings by the __________.

1115: When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released __________.

1116: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________.

1117: Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.

1118: The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.

1119: A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be __________.

1120: You will find a limit switch on a __________.

1121: In shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

1122: A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when the __________.

1123: On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with __________.

1124: Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________.

1125: What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?

1126: Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks?

1127: Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.

1128: Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system?

1129: Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?

1130: What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?

1131: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?

1132: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine?

1133: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.

1134: On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks __________.

1135: Which statement about the bilge piping system of "T-Boats" that are more than 26 feet in length is NOT correct?

1136: The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliances is __________.

1137: One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________.

1138: What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?

1139: You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

1140: Limit switches are used on which davits?

1141: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0027

1142: While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then __________.

1143: For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least __________.

1144: Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, the minimum capacity required per bilge pump is __________.

1145: When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________.

1146: Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?

1147: In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55 foot long ferry must have a fixed power operated bilge pump capable of pumping at least __________.

1148: Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________.

1149: If the metacentric height is small, a vessel will __________.

1150: After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.

1151: Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________.

1152: Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if __________.

1153: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping materials __________.

1154: On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________.

1155: When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter should be secured __________.

1156: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?

1157: When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.

1158: Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________.

1159: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3315 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.0 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0028

1161: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?

1162: Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?

1163: Individual wires, used in systems greater than 50 volts, __________.

1164: A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at least once in every __________.

1165: When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Backwater" means to __________.

1167: A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?

1168: What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?

1169: Your vessel's draft is 24'-06" forward and aft. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold, which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag?

1170: When operating gravity davits, the __________.

1171: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0029

1172: What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?

1173: On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be __________.

1174: In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels should be __________.

1176: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.

1177: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0030

1178: The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called __________.

1179: Storage batteries on "T-Boats" must be located __________.

1181: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4145 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0031

1182: An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is __________.

1183: The engine in a covered lifeboat is fueled with __________.

1184: If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?

1185: If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", you should __________.

1187: A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.

1188: The most effective way to apply a foam stream if the fire is on deck or is a running fire, is to direct the stream __________.

1189: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0032

1190: What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?

1191: According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for providing adequate ventilation for a battery storage area is to prevent __________.

1192: Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?

1193: On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because it __________.

1194: Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?

1195: The command "Oars" means to __________.

1196: The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

1197: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

1198: Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are __________.

1199: To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels they should be located __________.

1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?

1201: While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. You should __________.

1202: Which is the most accurate instrument for measuring the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space?

1203: You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take?

1204: Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________.

1204: Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________.

1205: On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries containing an electrolyte must be set in trays constructed of __________.

1206: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.

1207: Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?

1208: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.

1209: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

1210: The tricing pendants should be released __________.

1211: A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________.

1212: Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?

1213: When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle, the __________.

1214: An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________.

1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.

1216: After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by __________.

1217: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?

1217: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?

1218: To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should __________.

1219: 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________.

1220: Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are __________.

1221: Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits?

1222: After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.

1223: The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing vessel must safely accommodate __________.

1224: In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.

1225: If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.

1226: For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels?

1227: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

1228: When approaching a fire from leeward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.

1229: Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass?

1230: The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________.

1231: A "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious injury or more than $25,000 property damage must be reported to __________.

1232: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization?

1233: The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is __________.

1234: When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________.

1235: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?

1236: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

1237: Portable-foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on what classes of fires?

1238: When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?

1239: With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be __________.

1240: On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads is to __________.

1241: Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. The virtual rise in the center of gravity is __________.

1242: The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord __________.

1243: What is TRUE about hoisting operations?

1245: The Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading doors must ensure that the doors are closed, watertight and secured __________.

1246: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.

1248: In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________.

1249: Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?

1250: The falls on gravity davits are __________.

1251: The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is __________.

1252: When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed __________.

1253: If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that the survival craft could be dropped into the water?

1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

1256: The water pockets located on the underside of inflatable liferafts __________.

1257: Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?

1258: On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called __________.

1259: When an autopilot is being used aboard small passenger vessels, who must make or supervise the changeover from automatic to manual steering and vice versa?

1260: The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________.

1261: On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol throughout the vessel to guard against and give alarm in case of fire or other danger?

1262: Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?

1263: When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is __________.

1264: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.

1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________.

1266: A life line must be connected to the liferaft __________.

1268: Where must the draft marks be placed on a small passenger vessel?

1269: Life floats and buoyant apparatus used aboard small passenger vessels shall be marked in clearly legible letters and numbers __________.

1270: The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the __________.

1271: The primary danger in helicopter fires is __________.

1272: When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.

1273: In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?

1274: On inflatable liferafts, the operating cord should be renewed by __________.

1275: A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible exterior area of both sides of the bow and on the stern in block letters not less than __________.

1276: The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate __________.

1277: When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?

1278: An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.

1279: On a documented small passenger vessel, what information must be permanently affixed in block-type letters and/or numerals to the main beam or other clearly visible interior structural part of the hull?

1280: On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?

1281: You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?

1282: When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using __________.

1283: The liquid-filled PV breaker has acted to relieve a vacuum in a tank. What action must be taken in regards to the PV-breaker before continuing operations?

1284: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a __________.

1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

1286: The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on __________.

1287: When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a fire on deck resulting from a cargo overflow or a leaking cargo line?

1288: Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?

1289: An undocumented vessel with 10 people aboard and operating 25 miles off the seacoast must carry a survival craft of the __________.

1290: Which davit type may be operated by one man?

1291: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0033

1292: What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?

1293: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0034

1294: According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called __________.

1295: If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.

1296: Hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.

1297: A small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it __________.

1298: If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be __________.

1299: In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?

1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.

1301: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?

1302: A class B fire is most successfully fought by __________.

1303: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________.

1304: The painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.

1305: When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.

1306: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________.

1307: Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.

1308: What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?

1309: On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector?

1310: Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________.

1311: Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?

1312: The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to __________.

1313: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3224 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 29.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0035

1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________.

1317: The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable extinguisher to a fire is by __________.

1318: The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is __________.

1319: Where should muster lists be posted?

1320: Fire extinguishers on inspected vessels are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.

1321: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

1322: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

1323: How should latitude 51°48.7'S be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1324: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.

1326: All inflatable liferafts have __________.

1326: All inflatable liferafts have __________.

1327: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.

1328: Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?

1329: The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.

1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

1331: A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.

1332: An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to __________.

1333: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

1334: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.

1335: What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?

1336: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.

1337: It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________.

1338: Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?

1339: The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, the danger angle for a permanent list would be about __________.

1340: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.

1341: Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to __________.

1342: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

1343: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-03". The KG is 25.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1344: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?

1345: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

1346: The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should __________.

1347: A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.

1348: Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?

1349: What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker?

1350: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0036

1351: While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram asking for medical advice from a Greek station?

1352: If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to __________.

1353: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the motor lifeboat __________.

1354: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.

1355: As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.

1356: What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?

1357: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9 feet and drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.9 feet.

1358: Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?

1359: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1360: When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the embarkation deck by the __________.

1361: What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length?

1362: On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.

1363: Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.

1364: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

1365: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

1366: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.

1367: Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity of the fuel oil is .85 and the ship is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026).

1368: A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using __________.

1369: A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 50 ton cargo will be 3,000 tons and the GM three feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1372: It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________.

1373: You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is halfway between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of the number 5. What is the draft of the vessel?

1374: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.

1375: To launch a liferaft by hand you should __________.

1376: Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?

1377: On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80 ft. long, 60 ft. wide and 30 ft. deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

1378: The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is __________.

1379: Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE?

1380: A cargo of 100 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 100 tons of cargo will be 10,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1381: Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.

1382: Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by __________.

1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

1384: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________.

1385: An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.

1386: If the metacentric height is large, a vessel will __________.

1387: In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?

1388: Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

1389: Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE?

1390: Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?

1391: Halon extinguishes fire primarily by __________.

1392: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

1393: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is the draft? (D032DG )

1394: In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?

1395: After you have thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the liferaft by __________.

1396: If you find an inflatable liferaft container with steel bands around the case, you should __________.

1397: To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.

1398: The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.

1399: How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1400: In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat __________.

1401: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

1402: When using carbon dioxide to fight a fire on a bulkhead, the CO2 should be applied __________.

1403: Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?

1404: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.

1405: When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.

1406: The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the____________________.

1407: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D007SA )

1408: What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

1409: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-04", AFT 16'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0037

1411: Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

1412: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

1413: Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00"(1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?

1414: What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?

1415: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the mean water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft?

1416: You will extinguish a fire when you remove __________.

1417: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.

1418: Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?

1419: Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?

1420: Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted by an inert gas system is TRUE?

1421: The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall __________.

1422: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists should __________.

1423: A weight of 250 tons is loaded on your vessel 95 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1000 ft-tons. What is the total change of trim?

1424: Halon gas will decompose and may form very hazardous toxic fumes when discharged __________.

1425: Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?

1426: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.

1427: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars as shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D007SA )

1428: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the pressure drops below how many psi?

1429: When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.

1430: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 6422 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.6 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0038

1431: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon 1301?

1432: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )

1433: You should NOT use a power tool if __________.

1434: Halon fire extinguishers are NOT effective when used on which types of fires?

1435: After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning?

1436: Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons of water must be shifted from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to bring her to an even draft forward and aft?

1437: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D007SA )

1439: Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when __________.

1440: A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a distance of 30 ft. from the centerline. A 28-foot pendulum shows a deflection of 12 inches. Displacement including weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is 27.64 feet. What is the KG?

1441: On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?

1442: If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will __________.

1444: A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against fires of class __________.

1445: When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________.

1446: A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.

1447: Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?

1448: After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, the FIRST action should be to __________.

1449: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?

1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

1451: Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to __________.

1452: First aid means __________.

1453: The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?

1454: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D005SA )

1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?

1456: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is at the bottom of number 11. What is the draft? (D032DG )

1457: When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use __________.

1458: Your vessel displaces 14,500 tons, with a longitudinal CG 247.5 ft. aft of the FP. If you pump 80 tons of ballast from forward to aft through a distance of 480 feet, your new CG will be __________.

1459: Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?

1460: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

1461: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D005SA )

1462: When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________.

1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

1464: What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat?

1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1466: You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds __________.

1467: Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?

1468: You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take first to correct the situation?

1470: If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.

1471: What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned?

1472: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water level aft is 2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )

1473: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars as shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D005SA )

1474: In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________.

1475: You need to pull the sea anchor back aboard your liferaft. What part of the anchor do you pull on?

1476: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

1477: A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST __________.

1478: There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should __________.

1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the __________.

1480: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0039

1481: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level is at the top of number 8. What is the draft? (D032DG )

1483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 19'-06", AFT 21'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.7 feet.

1484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 16'-00", AFT 18'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.6 feet.

1486: A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30 tons cargo will be 9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1487: A vessel's heavy displacement is 24,500 tons with light displacement of 13,300 tons. Fully loaded it carries 300 tons of fuel and stores. What is the vessel's deadweight?

1488: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.

1489: The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is __________.

1490: You are reading the draft marks as shown. The water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )

1491: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? (D006SA )

1492: You have abandoned ship. There are several rafts in the water. One of the FIRST things to do is __________.

1493: A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.

1494: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1495: A weight of 350 tons is loaded on your vessel 85 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1150 foot-tons. What is the total change of trim?

1496: Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use which method?

1497: While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be included in the preamble of a radio telegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian station?

1498: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

1499: A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1500: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0040

1501: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by which letter? (D006SA )

1502: A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

1503: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

1504: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What is the draft? (D032DG )

1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?

1506: Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?

1507: A thrust block is designed to __________.

1508: Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class __________.

1509: You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?

1510: You are in enemy port and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter eight. Which statement is TRUE?

1511: Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?

1512: Where are the draft marks required to be displayed on a ship?

1513: Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.

1514: "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?

1515: You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?

1516: While operating off the coast of Portugal, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a Portuguese station?

1517: A double male coupling is one that __________.

1518: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do?

1519: All oil spills must be reported to the __________.

1520: When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.

1521: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? (D006SA )

1522: The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels __________.

1523: The term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations means __________.

1524: A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 __________.

1525: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of number "9" are visible above the waterline. What is the draft? (D032DG )

1526: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

1527: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

1528: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

1529: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

1530: Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/78?

1531: You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is required?

1532: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris, which is indicated by which letter? (D005SA )

1533: Which statement is TRUE?

1534: Which statement is TRUE?

1535: Limit switches __________.

1536: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?

1537: How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1538: Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________.

1539: The AMVER system requires __________.

1540: Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?

1541: Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?

1542: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-10", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0041

1543: The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for __________.

1544: While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. These entries shall be made __________.

1545: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing hooks to prevent __________.

1546: What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?

1547: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.

1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.

1549: You are sailing in a strong wind and may accidentally jibe when __________.

1550: The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to __________.

1551: On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.

1552: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel must keep course and speed when __________.

1554: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 32'-04", AFT 34'-02". The KG is 31.5 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

1556: Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat?

1557: When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.

1558: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. What minimum percentage of the full pressure can be lost before the cylinder must be recharged?

1560: The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a liferaft is to __________.

1561: Which is NOT a mandatory part of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

1562: Drinking salt water will __________.

1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

1564: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

1565: What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?

1566: CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.

1567: Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels?

1568: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2464 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.3 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0042

1569: Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

1570: Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

1571: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. It must be recharged if it has lost more than what minimum percentage of its weight?

1572: Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board?

1573: The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in cycles of __________.

1575: Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?

1577: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling?

1578: You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.

1579: During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?

1580: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?

1581: When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?

1582: You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station?

1583: You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.

1584: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1585: Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.

1586: The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.

1588: How should longitude 119°16.7'E be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1589: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3284 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0043

1591: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

1592: A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. The reduction in GM due to free surface effect is __________.

1593: When launching an open lifeboat by falls, the boathooks should be __________.

1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?

1596: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

1597: Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

1598: On board a small passenger vessel connections to electric conductors MUST be __________.

1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?

1600: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

1601: Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for __________.

1603: During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of __________.

1605: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

1607: A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line?

1608: Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________.

1609: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.

1610: An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.

1611: How should longitude 116°54.9'E be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1612: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

1613: Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________.

1615: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.

1617: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.

1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium?

1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

1620: One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.

1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?

1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?

1624: A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number, and persons aboard, should be filed with __________.

1625: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

1626: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

1627: The canvas covering of fire hose is called the __________.

1628: You are running before a rough sea and a strong wind. Your sailing vessel is yawing. If the wind should catch the mainsail on the reverse side you will __________.

1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

1630: A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?

1632: When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.

1633: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 18'-07", AFT 19'-05". The KG is 33.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1634: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?

1636: How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

1639: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

1640: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the weight drops below how many pounds of liquid?

1641: The most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

1642: The Master or person in charge on a MODU shall insure that line throwing equipment is not operated __________.

1643: On a MODU with lifeboats stowed in two different locations, if all the lifeboats are lost in one location then the remaining lifeboats must accommodate what percentage of the persons permitted on board?

1644: Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?

1645: On a MODU, each emergency generator must be tested at least once each __________.

1647: Electrical wiring on all "T-Boats" must be __________.

1649: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1650: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.

1652: An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least __________.

1653: Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. This system must include __________.

1654: You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________.

1655: Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?

1659: You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?

1660: If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?

1661: What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel?

1662: By regulation, your cargo vessel must have __________.

1663: Which tank barges require draft marks?

1664: The number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor vessel" is based on the vessel's __________.

1665: Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?

1666: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 10'-04", AFT 14'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0045

1667: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

1668: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?

1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

1672: Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation?

1673: In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________.

1674: You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?

1675: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

1676: Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.

1677: After an engine is started you should __________.

1678: Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. The coaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except an exposed forecastle deck) must be at least __________.

1679: You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board?

1680: In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.

1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in __________.

1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

1683: You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most dangerous thing to do is __________.

1684: You are sailing before the wind in heavy weather. The failure of what will affect the vessel's safety most?

1685: A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is moored. For its safety you should put __________.

1686: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower?

1687: The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of the danger due to __________.

1688: Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one immersion suit, exposure suit, or life preserver for each __________.

1689: You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from a sailboat. The final approach should be __________.

1690: The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?

1691: When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the best anchor line would be composed of __________.

1692: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast, about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.

1693: Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in certain circumstances. Which situation would most likely be dangerous?

1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________.

1695: In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?

1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

1698: To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it __________.

1699: On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to __________.

1700: How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?

1701: Movement of liquid in a tank when a vessel inclines causes an increase in __________.

1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE?

1703: With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE?

1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?

1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?

1706: The major lift-producing part of a sail is the __________.

1707: Your 40-foot auxiliary sailing vessel has just run aground on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and found none. Which is the most prudent action to take immediately?

1708: A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic __________.

1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?

1711: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

1712: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 cylinder is 80 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 60 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?

1713: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.

1715: After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, at a minimum of __________.

1717: An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________.

1718: You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. This swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals, would be described as __________.

1720: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.

1722: Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?

1723: The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters?

1725: The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.

1727: Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?

1728: What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

1729: The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________.

1730: Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of __________.

1731: Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?

1732: The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________.

1733: The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before the vessel vapor connection must be painted __________.

1734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

1735: On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________.

1736: On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8% oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the __________.

1737: In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system, there must be __________.

1739: The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must __________.

1740: Tank vessel inerting refers to __________.

1741: The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system is __________.

1742: What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?

1743: Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called __________.

1744: Each hose used for transferring vapors must __________.

1745: During loading, what is the minimum pressure required to be maintained by the inert gas system on cargo tanks?

1746: An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than __________.

1748: In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound?

1749: High pressure and low pressure alarms must be tested __________.

1750: You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than __________.

1752: Vapor recovery hoses must be tested yearly at what ratio to their maximum allowable working pressure?

1754: A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly moving flame through the piping is called a __________.

1755: When checking the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, the atmosphere must be sampled __________.

1756: Under federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on commercial vessels?

1757: You are operating a liftboat. Before starting jacking operations you should __________.

1758: A flooded leg on a liftboat would adversely affect the vessel's stability underway by __________.

1759: You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.

1760: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Your next course of action should be to __________.

1761: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. The list caused by a flooded leg means your vessel has a(n)____________.

1762: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and free of the bottom you should __________.

1763: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and a leg becomes stuck on the bottom, you should __________.

1764: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Raising the flooded leg further would adversely affect the boats stability by __________.

1765: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. To keep adequate stability you should __________.

1766: You are operating a liftboat. In preparation for jacking you should __________.

1767: The explosive range of Diesel Oil mixed with air is __________.

1768: The flammable limit of methyl ethyl ketone is from __________.

1770: On a survival craft VHF radio precautions shall be taken to prevent the inadvertent selection of which channel __________.

1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

1772: The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include __________.

1773: What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures?

1774: You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must first receive approval from the Federal On-Scene Coordinator (OSC) prior to __________.

1775: You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid pressure of __________.

1776: Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends?

1777: The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain __________.

1778: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

1779: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

1780: How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?

1781: Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?

1782: Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?

1783: Which statement concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is FALSE?

1784: Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?

1785: What is a GMDSS functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?

1786: Which statement concerning reserve sources of energy for GMDSS is FALSE?

1787: Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?

1788: Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?

1789: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?

1790: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?

1791: Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?

1792: For GMDSS, which statement concerning a compulsory vessel is FALSE?

1793: What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?

1794: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?

1795: Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?

1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________.

1799: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________.

1800: Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility?

1801: Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________.

1802: The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.

1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.

1804: Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx 33'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 52.8 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?

1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

1806: Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 46'L x 29'B and the weight of the water is 41 tons?

1807: Which is standing rigging?

1808: Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

1809: For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?

1810: Halon extinguishes a fire by __________.

1811: What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?

1812: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1813: On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas, recreational and hospital areas that are adjacent to or immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint locker, washroom, or toilet space must be made __________.

1814: Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons?

1815: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1816: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Except where specifically required by the rules, a sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out of the way of a __________.

1817: Offshore drilling units that carry twelve or more persons on a voyage of more than three days must have a __________.

1818: In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?

1819: Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons?

1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1821: On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is provided, each porthole or window must be fitted with __________.

1822: Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold?

1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?

1824: Most recreational sailing craft have triangular sails and are said to be __________.

1825: Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must have the tanks installed as far as practicable from the __________.

1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons?

1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.

1828: A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________.

1829: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220° relative would be __________.

1830: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

1832: For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?

1833: Batteries for VHF Survival Craft Transceivers must have sufficient capacity to operate for a minimum of __________.

1834: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1835: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50° on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?

1837: Each liferaft, which does not have an indicated maximum stowage height indicated on the liferaft, must be __________.

1838: When a sail is reefed, the sail area is _______ .

1839: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020° relative would be __________.

1840: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1842: How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?

1843: With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?

1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?

1845: What is the minimum number of hand held, rocket propelled, parachute, red flare, distress signals required on board offshore drilling units?

1846: You are under sail on a close reach, and the wind is steady. While steady on course, you reef the mainsail and your speed slows. The apparent wind __________.

1847: An offshore drilling unit must be equipped with a first aid kit approved by the __________.

1848: Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons?

1849: Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail?

1850: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1851: When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate the signal __________.

1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1853: On offshore drilling units each fire station is identified by letters and numbers at least __________.

1854: How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?

1855: An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an operations manual approved by the __________.

1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

1857: Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?

1858: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

1859: The parts of the sail shown are correctly labeled EXCEPT the __________. (D003SL )

1860: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

1861: On offshore drilling units, emergency lighting and each emergency power system must be tested at least once a __________.

1862: All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________.

1863: On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for emergency lighting and power systems must be tested every six months under actual connected load for a period of at least __________.

1864: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.7. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1865: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.6 feet and drafts of: FWD 13'-07", AFT 15'-01". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.4 feet.

1866: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0046

1867: Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to the sea you must __________.

1868: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1869: The three corners of the main sail are called __________. (D002SL )

1870: When should a fire be ventilated?

1871: If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.

1872: Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

1874: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.

1875: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

1876: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140° relative would be __________.

1877: Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?

1878: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 866 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?

1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________.

1881: What does a SART signal sound or look like?

1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________.

1883: On offshore drilling units, the Muster List ("Station Bill") must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.

1884: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Unless the rules require otherwise, a sailing vessel must keep out of the way of __________.

1885: In the case of an injury causing a person to be incapacitated, the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must submit a report to the __________.

1886: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1887: When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.

1888: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of the tanks being slack?

1889: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?

1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.

1891: What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?

1892: What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?

1893: Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?

1894: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in salt water (specific gravity 1.025) is 864 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1895: How can a SART's effective range be maximized?

1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the __________. (D001SL )

1897: Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging?

1898: Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 18'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 15.4 tons)

1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)

1900: The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries is best prevented by __________.

1901: Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?

1902: Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?

1903: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?

1904: A sailing vessel with the wind coming over the port side is said to be on a __________.

1905: What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of the mast?

1906: Your vessel displaces 930 tons and measures 156'L by 38'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (46'L by 28'B by 8'D) is filled with 1.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 36.8 tons)

1908: Your vessel displaces 750 tons and measures 151'L by 35'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (60'L by 31'B by 10'D) is filled with 3.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 53.1 tons)

1909: On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on __________.

1910: Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?

1911: A ketch is a sailing vessel with __________.

1912: Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

1913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 8'-04", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0047

1914: Your vessel displaces 728 tons and measures 138'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (36'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 3.6 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 29.8 tons)

1915: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1916: What is part of a vessel's standing rigging?

1917: How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?

1918: Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?

1919: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050° relative would be __________.

1920: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?

1921: Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are issued for a period of __________.

1922: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of a __________.

1923: Except as provided by approved special examinations, each offshore drilling unit must be dry-docked at least once during every __________.

1924: Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by 8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3 tons)

1925: A construction portfolio prepared for each new offshore drilling unit must be approved by the __________.

1926: A "reaching" course is one in which the wind __________.

1927: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of inclined ladders which must be fitted between each weather deck is __________.

1928: Your vessel displaces 740 tons and measures 141'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (41'L by 30'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 35.1 tons)

1929: Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?

1930: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.

1931: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 17'-03", AFT 19'-03". The KG is 23.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1932: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

1933: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

1934: Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?

1935: Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are effective until the __________.

1936: Your vessel displaces 696 tons and measures 135'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)

1937: On offshore drilling units, a fire drill must be conducted at least once a __________.

1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________.

1939: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

1940: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.

1941: On offshore drilling units, boat drills must be conducted at least __________.

1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?

1943: Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?

1944: You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (see illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

1945: What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B call?

1946: You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (Refer to trim and stability letter for M.V. Surveyor.) (D037DG )

1947: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is under sail at night displaying sidelights, stern light, and a red light over a green light at the masthead. If you start the auxiliary engine and engage the propeller, you must_______.

1948: You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

1949: What is meant by "CES"?

1950: The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be __________.

1951: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.

1952: Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

1953: Which fitting is used to connect the boom to the mast?

1955: How often must the emergency generator be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

1956: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

1957: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?

1958: You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

1959: You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)

1961: Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?

1962: You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

1963: How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?

1964: When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) __________.

1965: Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUE?

1966: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090° relative would be __________.

1967: Define the acronym MSI.

1968: Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?

1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________.

1970: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

1971: Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?

1972: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

1973: To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?

1974: When experiencing heavy winds, you should reef sails to __________.

1975: On a commercial fishing vessel, a wearable personal flotation device must be marked with the name of the __________.

1976: A capsized small sail vessel is best righted when what part of the vessel is downwind?

1977: A stay is __________.

1978: How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel?

1979: A documented oceangoing fishing vessel is required to have emergency instructions posted if it __________.

1980: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

1981: On a mobile offshore drilling unit it is required to __________.

1982: Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?

1983: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

1984: You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.

1986: Which statement is TRUE?

1987: When a fire drill is conducted on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the designated person in charge must ensure that __________.

1988: You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

1989: What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat?

1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

1991: It is the responsibility of the person in charge to __________.

1992: A deep keel on a sailing vessel increases the_____________.

1993: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that __________.

1994: Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?

1995: Who is responsible for insuring that each survival craft on a mobile offshore drilling unit is cleaned and inspected once a year?

1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

1997: Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________.

1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?

1999: Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?

2000: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

2001: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that __________.

2002: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See the trim and stability letter for M.V. Hudson, illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

2003: Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2004: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2005: If there is unsafe machinery on a mobile offshore drilling unit, who is responsible for reporting the existence of the unsafe condition to the Coast Guard?

2006: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2007: The bottom of the mast rests on the __________.

2008: Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2009: Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2010: Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?

2012: What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?

2013: What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons?

2014: Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2015: A shroud is __________.

2016: Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2017: A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of __________.

2018: When can routine communications be resumed on a frequency or channel on which radio silence has been imposed?

2019: You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

2020: Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.

2021: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

2023: If you were to jibe in a strong wind, the part of the rigging most likely to fail would be the __________.

2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?

2025: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged on a 15 meter sail vessel. Which statement is TRUE?

2026: Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck?

2027: Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?

2028: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2029: A yawl is a sailing vessel with __________.

2030: You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2031: Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn?

2031: Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn?

2032: What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?

2033: How is "radio silence" imposed?

2034: You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

2035: What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?

2036: Which system provides maximum communications range?

2037: Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?

2038: Which system is least likely to be subject to fading or static interference?

2038: Which system is least likely to be subject to fading or static interference?

2039: You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons)

2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2041: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

2042: Which line would be used to hoist a sail?

2043: How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?

2044: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail making 5 knots. The apparent wind is broad on the port beam at 10 knots. You see another sailing vessel dead ahead on a meeting course. What action is correct?

2045: How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?

2046: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2047: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0048

2048: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-08". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2049: The bottom of the mast rests on a part of the keel called the mast __________.

2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2051: You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew boat calls you on VHF channel 16. When you reply with your vessel name and call letters, you should request the crew boat to switch to an intership channel such as channel __________.

2052: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

2053: What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs?

2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2055: What agency issues the Ship Station license for the VHF marine radio on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2056: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2057: You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed by the __________.

2058: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2059: What standing rigging supports the mast in the fore-and-aft and athwartships directions?

2060: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2061: Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig?

2062: You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from accidentally jibing by using a(n) __________.

2063: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

2064: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail and overtaking a tug and tow. Which action is correct?

2065: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2066: A boom vang __________.

2067: You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?

2069: The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay are called_________.

2070: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2071: The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights. Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your predicament?

2072: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2073: If your rig is equipped with a SSB radio, what frequency would you use to initiate a distress call?

2074: You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

2075: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 28'-06", AFT 29'-10". The KG is 27.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

2076: A cargo tank that is initially gas freed, can be inerted by introducing inert gas by a process known as __________.

2077: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are proceeding under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged. Which statement is TRUE?

2078: A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________.

2079: Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck?

2080: You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2081: On offshore drilling units, each inflatable liferaft must be serviced every __________.

2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than __________.

2083: On offshore drilling units each inflatable liferaft that is not intended for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be __________.

2084: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured __________.

2085: An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable liferafts to accommodate at least what percentage of the persons allowed?

2086: A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

2087: The davit aboard a MODU is used to __________.

2088: If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once every __________.

2089: On a vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present shall NOT be segregated from cargo tanks by __________. (vessel constructed after 1970)

2090: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See the stability letter for the M.V. Hudson illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

2091: To inflate a davit launched liferaft you __________.

2092: According to regulations, cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade A, B, C, or D liquid cargo, shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________. (vessel constructed 1970)

2093: The davit launched liferaft can be boarded __________.

2094: Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?

2095: Sails may be wing and wing when __________.

2096: Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least __________.

2097: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

2098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0049

2099: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least __________.

2100: You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2101: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration located 10 nautical miles from nearest land MAY discharge __________.

2102: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close-hauled the __________.

2103: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.

2104: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2105: If a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should __________.

2106: In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, provided that the only cargo carried through such piping is(are) __________.

2107: What is NOT running rigging?

2108: Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?

2109: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

2110: You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2111: The hinge fitting used to attach the boom to the mast is the __________.

2112: You are sailing the navigable waters of the United States. You must have a currently corrected copy (or extract) of the __________.

2113: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2865 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0050

2114: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?

2116: You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

2118: You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

2119: Your vessel displaces 475 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.6 feet above the deck and weighs 22 tons. If you load 16 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 8 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2120: You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2121: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

2122: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2122: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2122: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2123: Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal?

2124: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02", AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2125: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

2126: Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?

2127: On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________.

2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

2130: You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2131: When a person is in shock, their skin will be __________.

2132: On which vessels is GMDSS required?

2133: If a vessel is sagging, which kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?

2134: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registers 55 on the instrument. What is the concentration of gases?

2135: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0051

2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships.

2137: Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?

2139: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 28'-01", AFT 28'-06"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2140: You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

2141: How often is a drill on the use of the line throwing appliance required to be held on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2142: What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?

2146: Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________.

2147: Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is intended while he or she is __________.

2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft.

2149: On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?

2150: You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)

2151: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0052

2152: You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

2153: On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's __________.

2154: What is the basic concept of GMDSS?

2155: When sailing with the wind aft, a vessel may carry sails on both sides at the same time. The sails are __________.

2156: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases?

2157: On offshore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once every __________.

2158: You have approximately 15 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 300 tons)

2159: Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2160: You have approximately 29 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 5 feet? (total displacement is 483 tons)

2161: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

2162: Which tank barges require draft marks?

2163: You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?

2164: Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?

2165: A schooner is a fore-and-aft rigged vessel with __________.

2168: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?

2169: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

2170: You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)

2171: The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________.

2172: Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2173: Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?

2174: You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

2175: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

2176: According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a complete change of air in not more than __________.

2177: What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?

2178: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trim? (D037DG )

2180: You have approximately 16 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 640 tons)

2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

2182: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

2183: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.

2184: Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?

2185: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.

2186: Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges?

2187: What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?

2188: You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

2189: Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is known as __________.

2190: You have approximately 24 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 540 tons)

2191: A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's outfit, must have all of the following in the outfit except a __________.

2192: Your vessel displaces 689 tons and measures 123'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 65'Lx 31'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 62 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?

2193: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats' fuel tanks must be emptied and the fuel changed at least once every __________.

2194: Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?

2195: Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and(or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2196: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are on a sailing vessel with the wind on the starboard side and are approaching another sailing vessel that has the wind on the port side. Which action should you take?

2197: A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.

2198: Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel with the sails properly trimmed?

2199: Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2200: To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is __________.

2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________.

2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?

2203: Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?

2204: Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?

2205: You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?

2206: Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack?

2207: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

2208: Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

2209: What are the health hazard ratings for a product of triethylbenzene?

2210: To check stability, a weight of 10 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom whose head is 45 ft. from the ship's centerline. The clinometer show's a list of 5.0° with weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 9,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

2211: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

2212: In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach, the sails should be __________.

2213: When abandoning a MODU, after launching the survival craft you should __________.

2214: Which statement concerning maintenance requirements is FALSE?

2215: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a survival craft, you should __________.

2216: Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?

2217: Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

2218: The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

2219: Each buoyant work vest must be __________.

2220: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0053

2221: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.

2222: Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

2223: Knowing the compass heading that is 90° to the side of a MODU will enable the operator of a survival craft to initially steer __________.

2224: Your vessel is drifting with the wind broad on the port beam. The marconi sail is set and flapping free. As you sheet in the maximum drive is attained when the sail __________.

2225: Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

2226: You are sailing on a close reach when a strong wind suddenly heels the vessel hard over. To reduce the heeling and yet maintain speed, you should __________.

2227: When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air they are used for __________.

2228: Your sails are properly trimmed while on a reaching course. Changing to a close hauled course will __________.

2229: To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that __________.

2230: To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

2232: Your vessel is sailing on a port tack when a sudden gust of wind heels the vessel sharply to starboard. Which action will reduce the heeling of the vessel?

2233: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

2234: As a vessel falls off the wind from close-hauled to a beam reach, the tendency for the vessel to move sideways through the water will __________.

2235: You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.

2236: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 25'-11". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 23'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2237: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.

2238: Which system has the least effective radius of operation?

2239: You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________.

2240: What is classified as a combustible liquid?

2241: If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________.

2242: An example of a grade B product is __________.

2243: Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________.

2244: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is __________.

2245: The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________.

2246: What would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product?

2247: When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.

2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

2249: A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?

2250: Which cargo is considered volatile?

2251: What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?

2252: According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic?

2253: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.

2254: According to the Chemical Data Guide, 1,3 - pentadiene possesses which characteristic?

2255: The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant __________.

2256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0054

2257: The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________.

2258: According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong?

2259: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-00"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2260: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed?

2261: If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________.

2262: What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46 °C?

2264: Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a __________.

2265: A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to __________.

2266: Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine?

2267: During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to __________.

2268: To what chemical family does chlorallylene belong?

2269: To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong?

2270: When a vessel is inclined at a small angle the center of buoyancy will __________.

2271: When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.

2271: When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.

2272: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a characteristic of allyl chloride?

2273: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.

2274: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

2275: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is propelled by sail and power. What action is required when the engine is stopped?

2276: What is the Reid vapor pressure of allyl chloride?

2277: What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?

2278: A cargo of 75 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 6,000 tons and GM is 6 feet. The list of the ship with the cargo suspended from the boom will be __________.

2279: According to the Chemical Data Guide, when burning, the grade B flammable liquid, carbon disulfide produces __________.

2280: A vessel displaces 140,000 cubic feet of saltwater in a light condition. After loading 7500 tons of cargo and 200 tons of fuel, water and stores, she is "full and down". The vessel's light displacement is __________.

2281: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.

2283: Sails may be wing and wing when_____________.

2284: The flammable limits for crude oil are __________.

2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.

2286: What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide?

2287: The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.

2288: A major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine is that it______.

2289: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tert-butylamine?

2290: In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by __________.

2291: The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to __________.

2292: Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________.

2294: Which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a cyclohexane fire?

2295: All MODU personnel should be familiar with the survival craft's __________.

2296: Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________.

2297: Each fire pump on a tankship must have a pressure gauge located at __________.

2298: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3684 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 28.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0055

2299: The first treatment given to a person overcome by benzene vapor should be to __________.

2301: If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

2302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0056

2303: The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with __________.

2304: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck?

2305: With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from a __________.

2306: Which flash point would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?

2307: Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?

2309: Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft; KG is 20.5 ft. The angle of list when the weight is lifted will be __________.

2310: A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.

2311: What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump?

2312: Which statement is TRUE concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene?

2313: A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.

2314: Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo?

2315: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?

2316: The flammable limits for motor gasoline are __________.

2317: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0057

2318: A vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is pumped 116 feet forward.

2319: What is NOT generally a characteristic of inhaling light naphtha?

2320: You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near?

2322: What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade D or E cargo ONLY?

2323: Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs?

2324: How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?

2325: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0058

2326: In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required?

2327: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower?

2328: Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?

2329: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0059

2330: What is the purpose of a centerboard when sailing on a tack?

2331: What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing?

2332: The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by __________.

2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

2334: Which flash point would indicate a grade E combustible liquid?

2335: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

2336: While loading bulk oil in a barge, you notice oil on the water alongside. What should you do FIRST?

2337: Sideways movement of the mast is resisted by the __________.

2338: In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of 5°. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time?

2339: Sixty tons of cargo are raised with a boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 16,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°. KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

2341: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0060

2342: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 11'-09". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2343: A marker pole, with a horseshoe buoy and a sea anchor attached, should be used to __________.

2344: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 23'-01"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2345: During an annual FCC inspection __________.

2346: Grade E liquids are those having a flash point of __________.

2347: Which references should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?

2348: Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951)

2349: What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?

2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?

2351: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower?

2352: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2353: Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

2354: Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

2355: What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?

2356: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 21'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 300 tons are loaded 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 225 tons are loaded 150 feet aft of amidships; and 122 tons of fuel are pumped 72 feet aft.

2357: When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?

2358: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships.

2359: An example of a grade D product is __________.

2360: According to regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded at a temperature below __________.

2361: What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port?

2362: A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be punished federally by __________.

2363: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 22.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2364: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 27'-06". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 26'-00". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2365: The space around a pipe in a wellbore, the outer wall of which may be the wall of either the borehole or the casing, is the __________.

2366: What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?

2367: The person or company, either proprietor or lessee, actually operating an oil well or lease is the __________.

2368: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0061

2370: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flammable limits of ethylene oxide are __________.

2371: What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump?

2372: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 23.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2373: An uncontrolled flow of gas, oil, or other well fluids into the atmosphere is called a __________.

2374: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

2375: An entry of water, gas, oil, or other formation fluid into the wellbore is called a __________.

2376: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 24'-06". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2377: The operation of hoisting the drill stem out of and returning it to the wellbore is called a __________.

2378: A vessel's drafts are FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 142 tons are discharged 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 321 tons are loaded 82 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 74 tons are discharged 62 feet aft of amidships.

2379: Regulations require that access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo, shall be __________.

2380: Access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes shall be __________.

2381: Beyond the area of state ownership in the U.S. outer continental shelf, the right to drill is controlled by the __________.

2382: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2383: What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Operator?

2384: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-04", AFT 24'-05"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2385: When drilling from a MODU, the conductor casing is landed with its top extending to just __________.

2386: What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?

2387: A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees?

2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.

2389: The best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal is to __________.

2390: According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard?

2391: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting services, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.

2392: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2393: An integral part of a blowout preventer that serves as the closing element on an open hole, and whose ends do not fit around the drill pipe but seal against each other and shut off the space below completely is the __________.

2394: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 122 tons are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships, 128 tons are discharged 54 feet forward of amidships, and 68 tons of fuel is pumped 48 feet aft.

2395: A negative metacentric height __________.

2396: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 25.6 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2397: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

2398: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

2399: Sixty (60) tons of cargo are raised with a heavy lift boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 18,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°, KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

2400: You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. The Chemical Data Guide indicates that the solubility of ethyl chloride in water will be __________.

2401: A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

2402: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

2403: A frame with two, or sometimes four, arms through which are threaded the guidelines and which is used to keep the drill stem and bit in line with the center opening in the temporary guide base is the __________.

2404: Regulations require that cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges be vented with __________.

2405: The heavy three-, four-, or six-sided length of pipe suspended from the swivel through the rotary table and connected to the topmost joint of drill pipe to turn the drill stem as the rotary table turns is called the __________.

2406: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 22'-10", AFT 23'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2408: If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

2409: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-02"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.0 foot off the centerline.

2410: Grade A flammable liquids are those with a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

2411: The storage device for nitrogen-pressurized hydraulic fluid, which is used in closing the blowout preventers is called the __________.

2412: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 5 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2413: Signaling by flag hoist is completed by the vessel hoisting the __________.

2414: The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F?

2415: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0062

2416: Which statement is TRUE?

2417: Which statement is TRUE?

2418: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2419: Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship?

2420: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

2421: How many degrees are there on a compass card?

2422: What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE?

2423: A large valve, usually installed above the ram preventers, that forms a seal in the annular space between the pipe and wellbore or, if no pipe is present, on the wellbore itself is called the __________.

2424: Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?

2425: Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report the injury to the Master, individual in charge, or other agent of the employer __________.

2426: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2427: What is the female section of a tool joint called?

2428: What is the flash point of iso - Hexane?

2429: A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.

2430: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

2431: A device used to enlarge the size of an existing bore hole, having teeth arranged on its outside circumference to cut the formation as it rotates is a(n) __________.

2432: You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be __________.

2433: The pipe and special fittings used on floating offshore drilling rigs to establish a connection between the top of the wellbore, which is on the ocean floor, and the drilling equipment, located above the surface of the water, is called a __________.

2434: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2435: The joint of the riser in a marine riser system that compensates for heave, the up-and-down motion of a floater, is the __________.

2436: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 320 tons are loaded 47 feet forward of amidships; (2) 82 tons are discharged 110 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 50 tons of fuel are pumped 60 feet forward.

2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.

2438: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 95 tons of cargo are loaded 76 feet forward of amidships.

2439: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take FIRST?

2440: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited?

2441: A set of clamps that are latched onto the drill pipe to allow the driller to raise or lower the drill string out of or into the hole are the __________.

2442: The international shore connection __________.

2443: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0063

2444: When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.

2445: What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?

2446: If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?

2447: The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90 feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a __________.

2448: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.

2449: You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________.

2450: During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the ethyl chloride will boil off if the water temperature is above __________.

2451: The end of the joint with the exterior threads is called the __________.

2452: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2453: A tool consisting of a handle and releasable chain used for turning pipe or fittings of a diameter larger than that which a pipe wrench would fit is called __________.

2454: In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

2455: The element used to keep weight on the bit at a constant value in spite of up-and-down movement of a MODU during floating drilling operations is the heave or drill string __________.

2456: According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) __________.

2457: What is a grooved pulley?

2458: To find the product Valeral in the Chemical Data Guide, you would have to look up the product __________.

2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

2460: During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the correct procedure would be to __________.

2461: A special device that, when fitted into the rotary table, transmits torque to the kelly and simultaneously permits vertical movement of the kelly to make the hole is called a __________.

2462: If a leak occurred while loading diethylenetriamine, the chemical data guide indicates you would smell an odor similar to __________.

2463: A heavy, thick-walled tube, usually steel, used between the drill pipe and the bit in the drill stem to weight the bit in order to improve its performance is called a __________.

2464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0064

2465: The element that supports the weight of the drill stem, allows the drill stem to rotate, and provides a pressure-tight seal and passageway for the drilling mud to be pumped down the inside of the drill stem is called the __________.

2466: According to regulations, access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo shall be __________.

2467: To prevent the riser system from buckling under its own weight, upward tension is provided by the __________.

2468: What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid?

2469: According to the regulations, cargo pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1965) handling grade C liquid cargo shall have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.

2470: According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The last digit "2" of the rating means __________.

2471: The device that allows a floating MODU to sway without bending the marine riser system is the __________.

2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.

2474: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of cargo are loaded 86 feet forward of amidships.

2475: Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n) __________.

2476: Which tank barges require draft marks?

2478: Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E?

2479: Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan to be reviewed __________.

2479: Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan to be reviewed __________.

2480: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire?

2481: Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?

2482: If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.

2483: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

2483: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products?

2485: A drilling bit which is doughnut shaped to permit recovery of the center portion of the hole drilled is called a __________.

2486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0065

2487: The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the __________.

2488: If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should IMMEDIATELY __________.

2489: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area?

2490: Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?

2491: The platform that supports the derrickman when tripping pipe is called the __________.

2492: At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?

2493: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0066

2494: An example of a grade C product is __________.

2495: A series of trays with sieves that vibrate to remove cuttings from the circulating fluid in rotary drilling operations is called the __________.

2496: What type of vent system would a barge of acrylonitrile have?

2497: In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means __________.

2498: Which product is volatile?

2499: What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid?

2500: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire?

2501: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 20'-06", AFT 24'-00". The KG is 29.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

2502: The international shore connection __________.

2504: A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?

2505: The helicopter deck of a MODU must be marked with the units identification, appropriate aiming circles, and a continuous line on the perimeter which is __________.

2506: Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of __________.

2507: When using a crane for transferring personnel in a basket, the load hook must be equipped with a __________.

2508: What is the TLV of cyclohexanol?

2509: How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own?

2510: Camphor oil is classified as a __________.

2511: When lowering a personnel net to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel basket should be __________.

2512: Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E?

2513: The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is __________.

2514: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2515: Before personnel are lifted from a vessel in a personnel basket, the vessel should be ________________________

2516: When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly toxic fumes of __________.

2516: When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly toxic fumes of __________.

2517: When may a personnel net be used to bring heavy equipment aboard an offshore drilling unit?

2518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0067

2519: What are the venting requirements for a barge with a cargo of adiponitrile?

2520: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)?

2521: To enable tying down a helicopter on the landing area of a MODU, the landing deck must be fitted with __________.

2522: What best describes benzene?

2523: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?

2524: What characteristic determines when a grade "C" product will start to vaporize?

2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068

2526: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0069

2527: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0070

2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF?

2529: What is a grade B flammable liquid?

2530: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.

2531: What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?

2532: The appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and __________ .

2533: An obstruction on a helodeck is any object that might present a hazard to the __________.

2534: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene?

2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.

2536: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

2537: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to?

2538: According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees F) of __________.

2539: If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you should be aware that it is __________.

2540: The MINIMUM ventilation requirements for pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1960) carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the freeboard deck specify __________.

2541: When lifting loads from a boat in heavy weather, the load should be taken when the boat __________.

2542: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 15 inches? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2543: The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to __________.

2544: Triethylene glycol fires may be extinguished by __________.

2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the __________.

2546: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 24.0 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2547: On a MODU crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of boom length and __________.

2548: According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

2549: Vessels "A" and "B" are identical; however, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.

2550: According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids?

2551: The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.

2552: When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed?

2553: What is meant by the term "radio silence"?

2554: How is "radio silence" imposed?

2555: When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator must assure that __________.

2556: Regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with __________.

2557: When transferring personnel with a MODU crane, the weight of the loaded personnel carrier must not exceed __________.

2558: Grade C liquids are those having a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

2559: What is NOT a grade B flammable liquid?

2560: Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following?

2561: The weight of the loaded personnel carrier, when transferring personnel from a MODU with a crane, must not exceed __________.

2562: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower?

2563: The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the __________.

2564: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 1 and 2 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2565: Annual inspection of MODU cranes shall be conducted by __________.

2566: LFG tank and pipeline maintenance should include __________.

2567: A MODU crane which has been idle for a period of over six months shall be inspected to the same standards as a __________.

2568: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

2569: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2570: What is NOT a requirement of the reinspection for a tank barge with a certificate of inspection valid for two years?

2571: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?

2572: The radiotelephone urgency signal is __________.

2573: Medical treatment aboard a MODU should not go beyond examination and emergency care without first consulting __________.

2574: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 60° inclination.

2575: The "urgent" priority should be used for messages __________.

2576: When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.

2577: The radiotelephone safety signal is __________.

2578: Your vessel displaces 9,000 tons and has a KG of 21.2 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 2.6 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2579: What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

2580: If your JP-5 barge has operated in saltwater for less than 1 month in the 12 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

2581: A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.

2582: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.

2583: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?

2584: The grade C flammable liquid phenylethane is found in the Chemical Data Guide under the chemical name __________.

2585: Vertical partitions which provide strength and compartmentalization on a MODU are called __________.

2586: To which group of hydrocarbons do Benzene and Toluene belong?

2587: Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________.

2588: Which extinguishing agent is recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a carbon disulfide fire?

2590: Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by __________.

2591: Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually __________.

2592: Which signal is detected as originating from a SART?

2593: Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand __________.

2594: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 3 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2595: How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity?

2596: Drinking salt water will __________.

2597: Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.

2598: A vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.8 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 60° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2599: Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.

2600: If your Bunker-C barge has operated in salt water for more than 12 months in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

2601: In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in __________.

2602: In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

2603: Where is the keel generally located on a MODU?

2604: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2605: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft of amidships.

2606: Which device provides the main means in the GMDSS for locating ships in distress or their survival craft?

2607: The tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize is indicated by its __________.

2608: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0071

2609: Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?

2610: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-06.5", AFT 23'-05.4". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0072

2611: The central longitudinal structural hull strength member of the lower hulls of semisubmersible MODU's is called the __________.

2612: What is NOT listed as a synonym for crude oil in the Chemical Data Guide?

2613: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

2614: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

2615: On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member of the lower hull form in which direction?

2616: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for motor gasoline is __________.

2617: Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?

2618: What would NOT be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?

2619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0073

2620: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use on a retinol fire?

2621: The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called __________.

2622: Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how many pounds?

2623: Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by __________.

2624: The primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling LFG is(are) __________.

2625: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

2626: Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?

2627: Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run __________.

2628: What normally helps in detecting escaping gas?

2629: Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a __________.

2630: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire?

2631: In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam to a __________.

2632: What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?

2633: A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.

2634: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 4 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2635: In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to __________.

2636: When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the MOST important symptom to check for is __________.

2637: The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.

2638: Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?

2639: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2640: What is NOT a grade E product?

2641: The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily by deck longitudinals and deck __________.

2642: When properly set and drawing, a fore-and-aft sail has a cross-section that __________.

2643: Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the __________.

2644: When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________.

2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.

2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower?

2647: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?

2648: Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________.

2649: Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________.

2650: Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin?

2651: Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.

2651: Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.

2652: Which vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2653: The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the __________.

2654: Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration.

2655: Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.

2656: How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?

2657: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-2", AFT 6'-8". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? ( D037DG )

2658: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

2659: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0074

2660: A synonym for chloroform is __________.

2661: When the longitudinal strength members of a MODU are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.

2662: A vessel with a large GM will __________.

2663: Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.

2664: Gasoline fumes tend to __________.

2665: You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side?

2666: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

2667: Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________.

2668: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

2669: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline?

2671: To meet the regulations governing manning requirements outside U.S. jurisdiction, a person holding a foreign license can serve in any of the following positions EXCEPT __________.

2672: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-08", AFT 17'-06"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.7 feet off the centerline.

2673: A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.

2674: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 2 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2675: The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.

2676: A safe fuel system must __________.

2677: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0075

2678: What happens to the pulling power of a winch when retrieving wire rope?

2679: The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is __________.

2680: You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the cleanup procedure?

2681: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

2682: The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

2683: On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.

2684: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and holds 4 and 5 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2685: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is determined by the __________.

2686: Which tank barges require draft marks?

2687: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

2688: The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure necessary to keep it in a(n) __________.

2689: A vessel with a large GM will __________.

2690: Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________.

2691: Two individuals authorized to serve as a lifeboatman must be assigned to any lifeboat that has a capacity of more than __________.

2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45° inclination.

2693: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0076

2694: The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?

2695: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.

2696: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-09", AFT 28'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.6 feet off the centerline.

2697: In order to withstand fluid head pressure on a MODU, stiffeners are often attached to the bulkhead __________.

2698: Using a sea anchor will __________.

2699: Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 45° if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2700: According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?

2701: Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a MODU is usually __________.

2702: Your vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2703: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.

2704: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

2705: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0077

2706: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline.

2707: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0078

2708: Upon release to the atmosphere, LFG readily __________.

2709: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-08"; and the KG is 22.9 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 50° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off center.

2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?

2711: The number of able seamen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.

2712: A vessel with a small GM will __________.

2713: On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of void spaces above the waterline in the __________.

2714: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2715: The certificate of inspection of a MODU will specify the __________.

2716: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

2717: Horizontal subdivision decks forming watertight compartments in the columns of a semisubmersible MODU increase the unit's __________.

2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2720: To determine the pressure and temperature limitations under which LFG is required to be transported on a barge, you should look at the __________.

2721: You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

2722: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2722: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2723: The prohibition against exceeding the load line draft may be considered temporarily not applicable when __________.

2724: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 18'-09"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.4 feet off the centerline.

2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.

2726: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is loaded 116 feet forward of amidships.

2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.

2728: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-00", AFT 14'-08"; and the KG is 25.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.5 feet off the centerline.

2729: You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?

2730: According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG tanks are located __________.

2731: The document that certifies the correctness of the load line marks on a MODU is called the __________.

2732: According to the regulations, to prevent excessive pressure buildup in cargo tanks containing LFG, they are fitted with __________.

2733: Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jack-up MODU during jacking operations can cause __________.

2734: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 24.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

2735: A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and __________.

2736: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 19° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.3 feet off center.

2737: During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide __________.

2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________.

2739: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2740: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-06.6", AFT 20'-05.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference book to determine the final drafts. ST-0079

2740: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-06.6", AFT 20'-05.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference book to determine the final drafts. ST-0079

2741: A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the __________.

2742: A vessel with a small GM will __________.

2743: Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the __________.

2744: Radar reflectors are required for __________.

2745: The construction portfolio may be included as part of the MODU __________.

2746: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

2747: Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding __________.

2748: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.

2749: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2749: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2750: According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of __________.

2751: The requirements for special welding procedures on a MODU must be contained in the __________.

2753: For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain __________.

2754: Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?

2755: What repair or modification to a MODU would most likely require consulting the construction portfolio?

2756: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 26° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.0 foot off center.

2757: A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the __________.

2758: A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?

2759: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2760: According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene?

2761: In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must also include the __________.

2762: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination.

2763: A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used on a MODU would be recorded in the __________.

2764: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will __________.

2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.

2766: How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2767: Forces within a drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is __________.

2768: Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2769: Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2770: Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________.

2771: The angle to which a floating MODU, with a negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of __________.

2772: Tour vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-09", AFT 23'-07"; and the KG is 24.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 18° inclination.

2773: The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be stowed in __________.

2774: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0080

2775: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-08", AFT 29'-05'. Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0081

2776: The lubber's line of a magnetic compass __________.

2777: The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________.

2778: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 17.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 75° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.5 feet off the centerline.

2779: Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by __________.

2780: The carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154 must be approved by the __________.

2781: For a floating MODU, the center of flotation is the point in the waterplane __________.

2782: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 22.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 20° inclination.

2783: The angle of loll is a stability term which applies to a floating MODU with __________.

2784: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.

2785: The intact volume above the waterline of a floating MODU is __________.

2786: Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. This includes __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2787: You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached?

2788: Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG?

2789: As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2790: The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is __________.

2791: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

2792: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-01"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 35° inclination.

2793: The mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.

2794: Which would influence a magnetic compass?

2795: The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.

2796: On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________.

2797: A semisubmersible with a positive GM, and TCG located starboard of the centerline, inclines to an angle of __________.

2797: A semisubmersible with a positive GM, and TCG located starboard of the centerline, inclines to an angle of __________.

2798: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.9 foot off the centerline.

2799: One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas is __________.

2800: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 8° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2801: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?

2802: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 15'-09"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2.0 feet off the centerline.

2803: When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________.

2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline.

2805: A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.

2806: A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.

2807: A vessel heading SSW is on a course of __________.

2810: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 6° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-05". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2811: A vessel heading SW is on a course of __________.

2812: What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT?

2813: A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.

2814: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-08"; and the KG is 20.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 45° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.2 feet off the centerline.

2815: A vessel heading WNW is on a course of __________.

2816: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2817: A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.

2818: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 10° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 15'-11", AFT 16'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2819: Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation)

2820: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0082

2821: A vessel heading SE is on a course of __________.

2822: Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water must __________.

2823: A vessel heading ESE is on a course of __________.

2824: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-05"; and the KG is 22.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.9 feet off the centerline.

2826: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

2827: For a floating MODU, true mean draft is always the __________.

2828: On board small passenger vessels, how often shall the Master test the steering gear?

2829: Aboard small passenger vessels the steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and communication system shall be tested by the Master __________.

2830: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 14° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 13'-01", AFT 13'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2831: A vessel heading ENE is on a course of __________.

2832: Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2833: A vessel heading NE is on a course of __________.

2834: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.4 feet off the centerline.

2835: A vessel heading NNE is on a course of __________.

2836: The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system should be __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2837: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0083

2837: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0083

2838: How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2839: What type of cooking equipment may NOT be used aboard vessels subject to The Rules and Regulations for Small Passenger Vessels?

2840: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.2 feet on 9000 tons of displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2841: The distance from the still water level (corrected for tides and storm surge) to the bottom of the hull of a MODU is the __________.

2842: No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard __________.

2843: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

2844: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center.

2845: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0084

2846: A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________.

2847: The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be __________.

2849: A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

2850: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 9000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2851: Kevlar sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.

2852: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.

2853: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a confined space?

2854: The sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-08", AFT 15'-06" and the GM is 4.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 40° inclination.

2855: Deficient oxygen content inside a confined space can be detected with __________.

2856: Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board?

2858: A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least __________.

2859: For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise, or Great Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry in a portable watertight container at or near the operating station __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2860: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2861: What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot towing vessel having a fixed fire system on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2862: A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats.(small passenger vessel regulations)

2863: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hot work before sailing. Which statement is TRUE?

2864: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-08", AFT 23'-04" and the GM is 4.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 20° inclination.

2865: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

2866: If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2867: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for amidships is __________.

2868: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-06", AFT 17'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0085

2869: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.

2870: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.4 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2871: As shown, the symbol 3 represents __________. (D041DG )

2872: A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is the correct location of the shutdown station?

2873: As shown, the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made is __________. (D041DG )

2874: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 22° inclination.

2875: The symbol 5 as shown represents __________. (D041DG )

2876: The minimum number of portable B-II fire extinguishers required in the machinery space of a 199 GT motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P. is __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2877: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars is __________.

2878: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

2879: While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to __________.

2880: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1150 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.0 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2881: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected towing vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2882: Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, the person in charge of the vessel, the owner or the agent should report this to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2883: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.

2884: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-02", AFT 24'-06" and the GM is 2.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available righting arm at 30° inclination.

2885: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts.

2886: A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at least once every __________.

2887: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

2889: Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations)

2890: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 17'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.5 feet) and 475 tons in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2891: The maximum angle at which the intact stability curves are valid for MODU's is the angle for __________.

2892: Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)

2893: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the maximum angle at which __________.

2894: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 25'-02" and the GM is 5.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 18° inclination.

2895: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the minimum angle at which __________.

2896: Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2897: If the result of loading a vessel is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.

2898: Painters on life floats shall be not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2899: All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2900: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 17'-00", AFT 17'-04". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 500 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2901: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

2902: Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2903: Life jackets should be marked with the __________.

2904: The sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-03", AFT 25'-03" and the GM is 5.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 30° inclination.

2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.

2906: Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2907: The number of kips necessary to change the true mean draft of a MODU one inch is known as __________.

2908: How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard license be renewed without retaking the complete exam?

2909: Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________.

2910: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.5 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2911: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

2912: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0086

2913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-09.5", AFT 22'-09.5". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0087

2914: The sailing drafts are: FWD 25'-03", AFT 26'-03" and the GM is 3.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 25° inclination.

2915: A MODU lists and trims about the __________.

2916: What is the minimum number of B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required on board a 105 GT towboat with a 7500 B.H.P. plant (including the machinery space)? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2917: For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.

2918: Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100°F? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2919: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

2920: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

2922: Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2922: Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2923: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0088

2924: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09".

2925: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.

2926: The sailing drafts are: FWD 16'-06", AFT 17'-04" and the GM is 2.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 15° inclination.

2927: If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU will __________.

2928: It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2930: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 16'-08". If you then load 1225 tons of cargo in the lower hold (VCG 12 feet) and 875 tons of cargo in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.

2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2933: Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.

2934: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-04".

2935: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?

2936: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-03", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2 feet off the centerline.

2937: A tank of a MODU with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with sea water weighing 64 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?

2938: What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2939: How many distress flares and smoke signals are small passenger vessels on oceans, coastwise or Great Lakes routes required to carry?

2940: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2941: The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

2942: Vessels in ocean service shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2943: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.

2944: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08".

2945: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.

2946: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.5 feet off the centerline.

2947: A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.

2948: Licenses are issued for __________.

2949: Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2950: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.0 feet) and take on 600 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2951: A jack-up displacing 350,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.

2952: Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil?

2953: When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.

2954: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank (capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.

2956: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-10.6", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0089

2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.

2958: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.

2959: Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?

2961: The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2962: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0090

2963: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

2964: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03".

2965: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

2966: Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2967: When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.

2968: Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2969: All inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline shall have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2970: An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________.

2972: Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2974: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-07".

2975: A quick and rapid motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.

2976: Aboard small passenger vessels the number of childrens' life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard?

2977: A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

2978: Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2979: Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2981: The center of gravity of a freely swinging load suspended from a pedestal crane acts as if it were located at the __________.

2982: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0091

2983: The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the __________.

2984: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-10" and the GM is 4.6 feet. What will be the angle of list if #6 starboard double bottom (capacity 95 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 21 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2985: For a MODU with list, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.

2986: What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?

2987: For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.

2988: No person whose license has been revoked shall be issued another license except upon __________.

2989: When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2990: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 30'-08". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0092

2992: A 98 GT uninspected towing vessel with a 1500 B.H.P. engine capability would be required to carry how many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2993: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

2994: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity 201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0093

2998: The minimum amount of lifesaving equipment required aboard an 85-foot uninspected towing vessel consists of __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2999: The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless __________.

3000: A rigid lifesaving device ONLY designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is known as a __________.

3001: Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?

3002: A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3003: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

3004: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 23.7 feet and the drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 28'-06".

3005: All vessels having a Certificate of Inspection and operating exclusively in salt water shall be dry-docked or hauled out __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0094

3007: A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.

3008: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0095

3009: Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3010: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0096

3011: A semisubmersible which will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard is likely to have __________.

3012: You are on the cargo vessel represented in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book. Your present KG is 22.3 feet and the drafts are FWD 21'-07", AFT 22'-05". The following cargo must be loaded: (1) 1120 tons, KG 33 feet; (2) 990 tons, KG 25 feet. How many tons of deck cargo with a KG of 47 feet may be loaded if the ship is to sail with a GM of not less than 2.1 feet and not exceed the freeboard draft?

3013: Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.

3014: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 19'-05", AFT 20'-01".

3015: An inclined semisubmersible with a very short rolling period about a constant angle of list is likely to have __________.

3016: Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months?

3017: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft trim angles is likely to have __________.

3018: Each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3019: All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3021: A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have __________.

3022: Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3023: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to have __________.

3024: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-05" and the GM is 3.4 feet. What will be the angle of list if #4 port double bottom (capacity 140 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 26 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3025: A semisubmersible with a negative GM flops to an angle of __________.

3026: Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3027: If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.

3028: While serving as Master on board your vessel, your license must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3030: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0097

3031: The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when __________.

3032: Controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system shall be mounted __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

3034: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0 feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity 195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3035: The external inflation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

3036: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0098

3037: An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.

3038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0099

3039: What is a requirement for remote manual shutdown stations for internal combustion engine driven cargo pumps on tank barges?

3040: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-10". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3041: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

3042: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0100

3043: Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?