USCG Safety: Master's License

3: To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.

5: Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________.

6: Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________.

7: You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter?

8: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

9: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________.

10: What is the definition of transverse metacenter?

11: A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

12: The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.

13: Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.

14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________.

15: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.

17: The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.

18: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?

19: The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a __________.

20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.

21: Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.

22: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.

23: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

24: Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the International Rules of the Road?

25: You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?

26: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?

27: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.

28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.

29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.

30: Transverse stability calculations require the use of __________.

31: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

32: Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________.

33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

34: Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?

35: Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?

36: The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________.

37: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?

38: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.

39: A flame screen __________.

40: Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to __________.

41: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.

42: The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________.

43: If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

44: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?

46: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is one __________.

47: What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?

48: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?

49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.

50: What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?

51: On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?

52: Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?

53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.

54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.

56: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is __________.

57: The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the __________.

58: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.

59: Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?

60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.

60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.

61: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gas free. Regulations say that the cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may remain open without flame screens __________.

62: The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.

63: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

64: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0001

65: The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

66: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?

67: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.

68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

69: Fire hose couplings __________.

70: What represents the center of gravity? (D001SA )

 71: Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.

72: To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.

73: A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

74: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________.

75: If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?

76: The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________.

77: Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.

78: Before CPR is started, you should __________.

79: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

80: What represents the metacentric height? (D001SA )

 81: Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?

82: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

83: If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.

84: After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.

85: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

86: On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you __________.

87: Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?

88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?

89: To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________.

90: Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? (D001SA )

 91: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

92: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________.

94: If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, you would send __________.

95: A spark arrestor __________.

96: A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________.

97: The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________.

99: Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of __________.

100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.

101: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

102: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

103: You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________.

104: In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance" is __________.

105: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________.

106: A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.

107: What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?

108: Antiseptics are used principally to __________.

109: Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed it's full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?

110: A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will __________.

111: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

112: Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

113: You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.

114: If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?

115: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?

117: Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.

118: A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________.

119: What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?

120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.

121: Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?

122: A negative metacentric height __________.

123: If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

125: Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

126: Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?

127: Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by __________.

128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?

129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.

131: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM. (See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book)

132: The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

133: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?

134: What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light?

135: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is FALSE?

136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?

137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the __________.

138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.

139: When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________.

140: Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?

141: Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel?

142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?

143: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?

144: The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is __________.

145: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE?

147: Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is __________.

148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.

149: A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter __________.

150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

151: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0002

152: What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?

153: If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.

154: The standard rate of signaling by flashing light is __________.

155: When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?

156: The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________.

157: On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.

158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?

160: A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.

161: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0003

162: The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to __________.

163: You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________.

165: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

166: On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?

167: One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.

168: In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________.

169: The signal T 0735 means __________.

170: In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.

171: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.

173: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.

174: If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________.

175: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the __________.

176: On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________.

177: Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source __________.

178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.

179: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 6780 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5. What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book)

180: Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?

182: Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest operating draft?

183: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

184: When signaling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be used to indicate a(n) __________.

185: Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations?

186: Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________.

187: What represents poor sanitary procedures?

188: The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.

189: The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.

190: Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?

191: Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed?

192: When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.

194: Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?

195: As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST?

196: The term "gross tonnage" refers to __________.

197: Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.

198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________.

199: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0004

200: Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?

201: Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?

202: The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________.

203: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be __________.

204: When signaling by flashing light, a correctly received repetition of a signal is acknowledged by the signal __________.

205: When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?

207: Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?

208: What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid?

209: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found __________.

210: Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.

211: The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.

212: In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) __________.

213: Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.

214: In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?

216: What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?

217: Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test?

218: A compound fracture is a fracture in which __________.

219: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.

220: Metacentric height is a measure of __________.

221: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?

222: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

223: The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

224: If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?

226: How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship?

227: The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed __________.

228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?

229: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.

230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.

231: The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of Inspection can be issued is conducted________________.

232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?

233: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.

234: What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?

236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?

238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.

239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

240: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that __________.

241: The signal L1210 means the __________.

242: You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?

244: A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. The signal means "_____."

245: Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because __________.

246: On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided?

247: During a stability test on a small passenger vessel __________.

248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?

249: Large quantities of gas in the shale shaker area may be an indication of __________.

250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?

251: Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.

252: What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

254: If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board, you would hoist the flag signal __________.

255: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens ONLY __________.

256: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?

257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.

258: In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________.

259: What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?

261: A person who willfully violates safety regulations may be fined up to $(SA)5,000 and __________.

262: Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?

264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it, the station can hoist the flag signal __________.

265: The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________.

266: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?

267: Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?

268: What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?

269: To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.

270: When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.

271: A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast Guard if it involves __________.

272: Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.

274: The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2, __________.

275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using __________.

276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is approximately __________.

277: The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.

278: What is a treatment for traumatic shock?

280: In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an "open boat" is a vessel __________.

281: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?

282: The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.

283: Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of __________.

284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.

285: The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________.

286: On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within __________.

287: The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.

288: A negative metacentric height __________.

289: You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to "head up". You should __________.

290: What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?

291: A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes __________.

292: High-velocity fog __________.

293: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?

294: If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist it should __________.

295: The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________.

296: In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds __________.

297: Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near the wheelhouse?

298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?

298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?

299: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

300: In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route is defined as one that is __________.

301: Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?

302: If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?

303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which is __________.

304: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute?

305: It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.

306: In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT __________.

307: Your ship is returning to New Orleans from a foreign voyage and carrying a bulk cargo of anhydrous ammonia. You must notify the Captain of the Port, New Orleans, __________.

308: A person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm coverings to __________.

310: A vessel's light draft displacement is 7400 tons. The center of gravity at this draft is 21.5 ft. above the keel. The following weights are loaded: (WT. #1-450 tons, VCG #1-17.4 ft.; WT. #2-220 tons, VCG #2-11.6 ft.; WT. #3-65 tons, VCG #3-7.0 ft.). The new CG above the keel is __________.

311: Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.

312: The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have __________.

313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be __________.

314: The flag hoist 1.33 would be sent as __________.

315: The maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry __________.

316: The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide(CO2) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over __________.

317: Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the United States. You are required by regulations to __________.

318: The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident is to __________.

319: Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?

320: As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.

321: A signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with __________.

322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________.

323: You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T" boat's Certificate of Inspection __________.

324: The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel __________.

325: For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________.

326: CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________.

327: The maneuvering information required to be posted in the wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?

328: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?

329: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?

330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.

331: One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam __________.

332: When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________.

333: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal flotation devices)?

335: Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold __________.

336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed __________.

338: A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a __________.

339: If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would __________.

340: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

341: The Master or other vessel representative must contact the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of a(n) __________.

342: Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to the __________.

343: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using __________.

345: A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1,1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe?

346: The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for __________.

347: The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.

348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.

349: A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over __________.

350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.

351: What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?

352: What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?

353: When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.

354: The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. This information should __________.

355: The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.

356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to __________.

357: The operator of a vessel's radiotelephone must hold at least a __________.

358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should __________.

359: A vessel is floating in saltwater at a mean draft of 14 feet. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam 50 feet, TPI 45. The BM is 16.34 feet. What is the vessel's displacement in tons?

360: The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.

360: The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.

361: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?

362: Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________.

363: You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974?

366: You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space?

367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________.

369: A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. What will be the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface, with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?

370: What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?

372: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0005

373: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

374: A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________.

375: Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil?

376: Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set with __________.

377: The regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the __________.

378: The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to __________.

379: Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel if it is __________.

380: You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?

381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?

382: A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________.

383: The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to __________.

385: You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board?

386: On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification Expiration Date Stickers __________.

387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?

388: A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury?

389: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank tops. The hold is 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.

391: Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.

392: What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?

393: A sea anchor is __________.

394: If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone you should __________.

395: You are operating a 1,000 GT non-ocean going tankship. It must be equipped with __________.

396: Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its designed rate of foam production for __________.

397: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.

399: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?

400: Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or alterations affecting its safety you must __________.

401: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 60 feet wide is partially filled with water?

402: To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use __________.

403: Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it back aboard is by __________.

405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________.

406: A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all __________.

407: Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.

408: If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source and then __________.

409: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons.)

410: The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon __________.

411: Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than __________.

412: To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would __________.

413: Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels must be constructed of or lined with __________.

414: A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the __________.

415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?

416: Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?

418: Treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) of __________.

419: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0006

420: The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.

421: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.

422: The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you __________.

423: When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.

424: What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?

425: If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only __________.

426: A 2,000 GT tankship is required to carry __________.

427: Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least __________.

427: Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least __________.

428: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.

429: You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?

430: The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.

431: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 31'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0007

432: One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.

433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________.

434: You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?

435: If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must __________.

437: On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight passenger accommodation spaces __________.

438: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.

439: Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or __________.

440: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 3.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

441: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

442: On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is all the way forward is __________.

444: A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.

446: The number of fire axes required to be carried on a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT and on an international voyage is __________.

447: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?

448: Treatment of frostbite includes __________.

449: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement there are two slack deep tanks of palm oil (SG .86). Each tank is 40 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?

450: Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?

452: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward position, the nozzle will __________.

453: You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.

454: Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.

455: Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the __________.

456: On a vessel of 900 GT, the minimum number of fire axes required is __________.

457: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log must contain __________.

459: What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose?

460: A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________.

461: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

462: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will __________.

463: When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system __________.

464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.

465: A cargo hose is marked with the __________.

466: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

467: Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?

470: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

471: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

472: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.

473: Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that __________.

474: You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.

475: The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly must be at least __________.

476: What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic acid?

477: The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of __________.

478: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.

481: How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

482: The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle should always be __________.

483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4184 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0008

484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________.

485: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than __________.

486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD28'-04", AFT 30'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0009

487: Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?

488: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.

489: An extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size __________.

490: Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

491: Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked?

492: The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.

493: Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?

494: A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?

495: No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements?

496: The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with the words __________.

497: The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.

498: An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

499: In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be __________.

500: Safety shackles are fitted with __________.

501: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0010

502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________.

503: Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Lifeboat No. 2 is located __________.

504: If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.

506: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.

507: While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on channel __________.

508: Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?

509: Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________.

510: A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________.

511: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0011

512: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0012

513: Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.

514: You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that __________.

515: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?

516: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

517: The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.

518: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

519: A vessel must have at least two fireman's outfits aboard if she __________.

520: What is the displacement of a barge which measures 85' x 46' x 13' and is floating in salt water with a draft of ten feet?

521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?

522: A spanner is a __________.

523: The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the __________.

524: The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word __________.

525: What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker?

526: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?

527: The VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel is __________.

528: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________.

529: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

530: The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.

531: A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.

532: Fire hose should be washed with __________.

533: What is the purpose of limber holes?

534: Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with __________.

535: What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures?

536: A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a speed of at least __________.

537: What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?

538: A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should __________.

539: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

540: Of the following, the most important consideration for a tank vessel is __________.

541: The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals means "________________".

542: Before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle, you must __________. (D004SA )

 543: Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.

544: In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.

545: The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain __________.

547: Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.

548: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.

549: If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.

550: The normal tendency for a loaded tanker is to __________.

551: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 20 ft. wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with saltwater below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?

552: When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, a 5-gallon can of liquid foam will last __________.

553: Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?

554: When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by the signal __________.

555: The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted __________.

556: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.

557: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or channel __________.

558: A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partially protected waters may not have a port light below the weather deck unless __________.

559: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 28'-08" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.

560: On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less than six inches above the deepest load waterline __________.

561: The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________.

562: One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.

563: Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?

564: If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, you should __________.

565: Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by __________.

566: Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?

567: On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________.

568: On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut off valve __________.

569: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 25 ft. wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with salt water below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?

569: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 25 ft. wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with salt water below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?

570: On a vessel of 5,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of acid (SG 1.8). Each tank is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?

571: To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could __________.

572: Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?

573: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led __________.

574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This indicates that __________.

575: Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a __________.

576: Each lifeboat must be lowered and maneuvered in the water at least once every __________.

577: All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?

578: When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should __________.

579: The letter R followed by one or more numbers indicates __________.

580: Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.

581: You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE?

582: Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.

583: The minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service is __________.

584: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0013

585: How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board?

586: On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration?

587: Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?

588: At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the alarm, what should the person on watch do?

589: Fires are grouped into what categories?

590: The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.

591: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0014

592: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

593: The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by __________.

595: How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers?

596: The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered at least once every __________.

597: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to __________.

598: A fire must be ventilated __________.

599: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.

600: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

602: What does "EPIRB" stand for?

603: The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.

604: To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should __________.

605: The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI containing __________.

606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.

607: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?

608: A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________.

609: Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB?

610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

611: The maximum mean draft to which a vessel may be safely loaded is called __________.

612: The service life of distress signals must be not more than __________.

613: The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

614: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.

615: The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________.

616: Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.

617: For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry __________.

618: You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?

619: A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of __________.

620: A vessel's LCG is determined by __________.

621: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface because of an emergency on board is __________.

622: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.

623: In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

624: Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested __________.

625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________.

627: Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels __________.

628: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

629: Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________.

630: Reserve buoyancy is __________.

631: You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

632: Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective on __________.

633: A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.

634: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.

635: The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?

636: What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?

637: The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.

638: You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately?

639: A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.

640: The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its __________.

641: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0015

642: As an extinguishing agent, foam __________.

643: The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.

644: The difference between the forward and aft drafts is __________.

645: A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.

647: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more than __________.

648: Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color?

649: The lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.

650: Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?

651: Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry __________.

652: How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

653: A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display warning signs. These signs must __________.

654: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

655: The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.

656: The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.

657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?

658: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

659: A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68). The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 20 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?

660: Reserve buoyancy is __________.

661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill every __________.

662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.

663: Stretchers are fitted in lifeboats to provide a __________.

664: Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.

665: Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations aboard a tankship?

668: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

669: You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?

670: Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?

671: When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, the signal __________.

672: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher is most useful in fighting a fire in __________.

673: The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located __________.

674: A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.

675: Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?

676: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

678: Fire may be spread by which means?

679: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

680: The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.

681: Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.

682: How are lifelines attached to a life float?

683: The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________.

684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is __________.

685: The operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation must keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for __________.

686: You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________.

688: Which may ignite fuel vapors?

689: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.

690: Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the __________.

692: Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?

693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.

694: What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?

695: The Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations must be signed by the __________.

696: For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.

697: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________.

698: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

699: What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel?

700: Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe __________.

701: Which statement about free surface is TRUE?

702: Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?

704: Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?

705: Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST?

706: The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.

707: If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must __________.

708: Removing which will extinguish a fire?

709: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 ft. wide and 60 ft. long is partially filled with saltwater? (The vessel's displacement is 10,000 tons.)

710: Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.

711: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.

712: Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?

713: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent __________.

714: A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.

715: Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.

716: The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage, is __________.

717: If your radiotelephone fails while underway, __________.

718: Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must __________.

719: A fire hose has a __________.

720: The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the __________.

721: Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called __________.

722: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0016

723: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is __________.

724: Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.

725: You notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel. You should FIRST __________.

726: On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with __________.

727: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment __________.

728: When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?

729: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?

730: The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as __________.

731: If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will not be able to discharge __________ anywhere at sea.

732: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?

733: Lifeboat hatchets should be __________.

734: On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________.

735: You are fueling your vessel when you notice oil in the water around your vessel. You should immediately stop fueling and __________.

736: How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?

737: When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?

738: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

739: A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of alcohol with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 30 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water, S.G. is 1.026?

740: What is NOT a motion of the vessel?

741: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

742: An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.

743: In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.

744: You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger. You should use the urgent signal __________.

745: You detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging. The FIRST thing to do is __________.

746: The quantity of fuel required to be carried in a motor lifeboat is __________.

747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?

748: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

749: Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with life floats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate __________.

750: The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.

752: Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?

753: How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?

754: "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?

755: While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST?

756: A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of __________.

757: Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?

758: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

759: Determine the free surface correction for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep, with a free surface constant of 3794. The vessel is displacing 7,000 tons in saltwater.

760: With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________.

761: Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

762: The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________.

763: Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?

764: Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?

765: Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested and inspected at specified intervals by __________.

767: On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.

768: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

769: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

770: A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

770: A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

771: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do?

772: What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel?

773: When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.

774: If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying?

775: During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure of at least __________.

776: When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical_________.

777: On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with __________.

778: An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________.

779: A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?

780: The change in trim of a vessel may be found by __________.

781: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

782: On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage?

783: A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.

784: While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain?

785: 33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning __________.

786: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?

787: To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should __________.

788: Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?

789: An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.

789: An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.

790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?

791: During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. The smoke's color will be __________.

792: What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?

793: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

794: An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?

795: The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations rests with the __________.

796: When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.

797: Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE?

798: A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?

799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.

800: The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.

801: No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when __________.

802: A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.

803: The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

804: You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code?

805: Application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted to the __________.

806: On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery must be __________.

807: The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.

808: A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class __________.

809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.

810: When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will __________.

811: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.

814: In the International Code of signals, a group of three letters indicates __________.

815: Applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted __________.

816: You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks?

817: An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________.

818: A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.

819: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea?

820: The two points that act together to trim a ship are the __________.

821: Bleeding from a vein is __________.

822: When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemicals should be __________.

823: Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.

824: You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____."

825: ABYC equipment standards are published by the __________.

827: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________.

828: A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class __________.

829: A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?

830: Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is __________.

831: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

832: Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical extinguisher?

833: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.

834: After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".

835: No person may serve as the person in charge of both the vessel and the facility during oil transfer operations unless __________.

836: What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?

837: The largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space is __________.

838: A class C fire would be burning __________.

839: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________.

840: If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?

841: Blood flowing from a cut artery appears __________.

842: As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?

843: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

844: If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?

845: Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within __________.

846: If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?

848: The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class __________.

849: You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken?

850: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

851: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________.

852: Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?

853: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.

854: If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?

855: The term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, means the __________.

856: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

857: Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly?

858: A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class __________.

860: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.

861: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0017

862: Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by __________.

863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?

864: A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain?

865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.

866: The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.

867: Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at least once __________.

868: Burning wood is which class of fire?

869: As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to __________.

870: The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Your vessel is __________.

871: The bilge pump on a fishing vessel __________.

872: The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at a temperature of __________.

873: On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled gasoline or diesel engine must be water-jacketed and cooled?

874: If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", he would be telling you __________.

875: How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling?

876: Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean service?

877: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by the __________.

878: A fire in a pile of linen is a class __________.

879: To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.

880: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.

881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________.

882: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.

883: On a vessel of 15,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 60 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

884: The single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, means __________.

885: Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?

887: Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

888: An oil fire is classified as class __________.

889: Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.

890: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT __________.

891: On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be __________.

892: While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________.

893: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, a tank 60 feet long, 50 feet wide, and 20 feet deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026) What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface?

894: Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by __________.

895: Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than 65 feet in length, carrying not more than 12 passengers if __________.

897: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

898: A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?

899: EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?

900: All of the following can be determined by use of a stabilogauge EXCEPT __________.

901: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

902: Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

903: On a vessel displacing 8,000 tons, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 45 feet long and 45 feet wide is partly filled with salt water?

904: If you are on the beach and are signaling to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and they should land to the left, you would __________.

905: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine coming to periscope depth is __________.

906: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.

907: An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.

908: If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?

909: Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve sudden large overpressures that exceed the capacity of the mechanical P/V valves?

910: When using a stabilogauge, unless the density correction is applied, the center of gravity of a loaded compartment is assumed to be located __________.

911: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0018

912: A "fifteen-pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because __________.

913: On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 40 feet long and 20 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

914: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

915: Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels?

917: Foam-type portable fire extinguishers are most useful in combating fires involving __________.

918: Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are class __________.

919: After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?

920: If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.

921: You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by __________.

922: An upright vessel has negative GM. GM becomes positive at the angle of loll because the __________.

923: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?

924: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

925: The center of flotation of a vessel is the geometric center of the __________.

926: Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________.

927: The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is __________.

928: A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?

929: According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________.

930: Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.

931: The major cause of shock in burn victims is the __________.

932: Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of __________.

933: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 40 feet and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?

934: The signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative" is __________.

935: If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate?

936: If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?

937: On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?

938: A magnesium fire is classified as class __________.

939: CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every __________.

940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.

941: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0019

942: A fifteen-pound CO2 extinguisher __________.

943: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 60 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?

944: The lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible" is the __________.

945: The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance is __________.

946: What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank ?

947: When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?

948: Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as class __________.

950: Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.

951: If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should __________.

952: Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable CO2 fire extinguisher needs recharging?

953: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?

954: Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"?

955: If another station sent you the signal "KG", he would be __________.

957: An engine compartment gasoline fire requires which type of extinguisher?

958: Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion?

959: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0020

960: Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.

961: Safety is increased if __________.

962: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged __________.

963: Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its full rolling period to be 21.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?

964: Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?

965: What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

965: What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

967: Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed __________.

968: Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn?

969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.

970: During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. To correct the list, you should __________.

971: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

972: Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?

973: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0 foot and a beam of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?

974: On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is __________.

975: The waiting signal in code for all forms of signaling is __________.

976: Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually __________.

977: Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?

978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?

979: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

980: Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?

981: Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.

982: In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher is limited to __________.

983: Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. Your average rolling period will be __________.

984: The lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare means __________.

985: What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"?

986: According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.

987: Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?

988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?

989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.

990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.

991: Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________.

992: On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be __________.

993: If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what will be your full rolling period?

994: The signal to guide vessels in distress, which indicates, "This is the best place to land" is the __________.

995: If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, it would be referring to __________.

997: Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?

998: Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as __________.

999: A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must carry an inflatable liferaft with a __________.

1000: A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?

1001: Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

1002: How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?

1003: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?

1004: The lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here highly dangerous" is __________.

1005: Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical miles"?

1006: An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) __________.

1007: What is the BEST conductor of electricity?

1008: A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________.

1009: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0021

1010: Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?

1011: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1012: The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed __________.

1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)

1014: Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?

1015: Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109°34'West?

1016: What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?

1017: The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.

1019: You are operating 10 miles offshore with three people aboard. What kind of survival craft must you carry?

1020: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1021: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1022: When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the __________.

1023: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into the sea?

1024: The firing of a red star signal may mean __________.

1025: Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73°25'North"?

1026: A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry __________.

1027: What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?

1028: Symptoms of heat stroke are __________.

1029: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1030: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?

1031: What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system?

1032: When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.

1033: Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?

1034: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?

1035: The letter G, when sent with a complement, may be followed by __________.

1036: Life preservers must be marked with the __________.

1037: What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?

1038: You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. You must __________.

1039: On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding pipes of gasoline tanks must extend directly __________.

1040: General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log are that __________.

1041: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2685 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0022

1042: Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?

1043: Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?

1044: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

1045: Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm?

1046: On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent pipe must __________.

1047: The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire is that it __________.

1048: The angle of maximum righting arm corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.

1049: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0023

1050: A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate __________.

1051: The fresh air intake of the inert gas system _____,

1052: The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________.

1053: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?

1054: By day, the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land" is a __________.

1055: The signal K4 sent by any method means __________.

1056: U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew __________.

1057: The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.

1058: Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?

1059: Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water?

1060: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0024

1061: What are the symptoms of sun stroke?

1062: Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of __________.

1063: Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens __________.

1064: By day, the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicates __________.

1065: Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________.

1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.

1067: A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with __________.

1068: The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________.

1069: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.

1070: On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of __________.

1071: Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines?

1073: Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?

1074: Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?

1075: Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the __________.

1076: The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

1077: A vessel's KG is determined by __________.

1078: The explosive range of Bunker C mixed with air is __________.

1079: Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?

1080: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged?

1081: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

1082: Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?

1083: On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be __________.

1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?

1085: When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.

1086: Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________.

1087: A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.

1088: The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________.

1089: During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should __________.

1090: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0025

1091: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0026

1092: Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator?

1093: On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be fitted to a fuel line's tank connection?

1094: A small craft advisory forecasts winds of up to what speed?

1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.

1096: What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?

1097: Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

1098: Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?

1099: On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines __________.

1100: The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.

1101: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?

1102: While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will __________.

1103: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.

1104: When there is a small craft advisory winds are predicted up to __________.

1105: In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?

1106: On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines?

1107: In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.

1108: The vapor pressure of a substance __________.

1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.

1110: Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.

1111: On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________.

1112: A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.

1114: The National Weather Service differentiates between small craft, gale, whole gale, and hurricane warnings by the __________.

1115: When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released __________.

1116: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________.

1117: Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.

1118: The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.

1119: A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be __________.

1120: You will find a limit switch on a __________.

1121: In shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

 1122: A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when the __________.

1123: On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with __________.

1124: Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________.

1125: What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?

1126: Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks?

1127: Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.

1128: Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system?

1129: Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?

1130: What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?

1131: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?

1132: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine?

1133: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.

1134: On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks __________.

1135: Which statement about the bilge piping system of "T-Boats" that are more than 26 feet in length is NOT correct?

1136: The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliances is __________.

1137: One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________.

1138: What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?

1139: You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

1140: Limit switches are used on which davits?

1141: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0027

1142: While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then __________.

1143: For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least __________.

1144: Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, the minimum capacity required per bilge pump is __________.

1145: When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________.

1146: Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?

1147: In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55 foot long ferry must have a fixed power operated bilge pump capable of pumping at least __________.

1148: Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________.

1149: If the metacentric height is small, a vessel will __________.

1150: After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.

1151: Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________.

1152: Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if __________.

1153: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping materials __________.

1154: On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________.

1155: When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter should be secured __________.

1156: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?

1157: When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.

1158: Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________.

1159: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3315 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.0 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0028

1161: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?

1162: Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?

1163: Individual wires, used in systems greater than 50 volts, __________.

1164: A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at least once in every __________.

1165: When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Backwater" means to __________.

1167: A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?

1168: What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?

1169: Your vessel's draft is 24'-06" forward and aft. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold, which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag?

1170: When operating gravity davits, the __________.

1171: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0029

1172: What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?

1173: On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be __________.

1174: In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels should be __________.

1176: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.

1177: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0030

1178: The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called __________.

1179: Storage batteries on "T-Boats" must be located __________.

1181: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4145 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0031

1182: An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is __________.

1183: The engine in a covered lifeboat is fueled with __________.

1184: If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?

1185: If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", you should __________.

1187: A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.

1188: The most effective way to apply a foam stream if the fire is on deck or is a running fire, is to direct the stream __________.

1189: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0032

1190: What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?

1191: According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for providing adequate ventilation for a battery storage area is to prevent __________.

1192: Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?

1193: On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because it __________.

1194: Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?

1195: The command "Oars" means to __________.

1196: The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

1197: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire- extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

1198: Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are __________.

1199: To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels they should be located __________.

1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?

1201: While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. You should __________.

1202: Which is the most accurate instrument for measuring the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space?

1203: You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take?

1204: Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________.

1205: On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries containing an electrolyte must be set in trays constructed of __________.

1206: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.

1207: Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?

1208: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.

1209: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

1210: The tricing pendants should be released __________.

1211: A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________.

1212: Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?

1213: When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle, the __________.

1214: An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________.

1215: According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.

1216: After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by __________.

1217: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?

1218: To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should __________.

1219: 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________.

1220: Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are __________.

1221: Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits?

1222: After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.

1223: The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing vessel must safely accommodate __________.

1224: In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.

1225: If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.

1226: For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels?

1227: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

1228: When approaching a fire from leeward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.

1229: Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass?

1230: The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________.

1231: A "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious injury or more than $25,000 property damage must be reported to __________.

1232: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization?

1233: The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is __________.

1234: When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________.

1235: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?

1236: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

1237: Portable-foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on what classes of fires?

1238: When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?

1239: With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be __________.

1240: On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads is to __________.

1241: Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. The virtual rise in the center of gravity is __________.

1242: The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord __________.

1243: What is TRUE about hoisting operations?

1245: The Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading doors must ensure that the doors are closed, watertight and secured __________.

1246: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.

1248: In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________.

1249: Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?

1250: The falls on gravity davits are __________.

1251: The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is __________.

1252: When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed __________.

1253: If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that the survival craft could be dropped into the water?

1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

1256: The water pockets located on the underside of inflatable liferafts __________.

1257: Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?

1258: On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called __________.

1259: When an autopilot is being used aboard small passenger vessels, who must make or supervise the changeover from automatic to manual steering and vice versa?

1260: The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________.

1261: On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol throughout the vessel to guard against and give alarm in case of fire or other danger?

1262: Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?

1263: When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is __________.

1264: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.

1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________.

1266: A life line must be connected to the liferaft __________.

1268: Where must the draft marks be placed on a small passenger vessel?

1269: Life floats and buoyant apparatus used aboard small passenger vessels shall be marked in clearly legible letters and numbers __________.

1270: The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the __________.

1271: The primary danger in helicopter fires is __________.

1272: When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.

1273: In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?

1274: On inflatable liferafts, the operating cord should be renewed by __________.

1275: A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible exterior area of both sides of the bow and on the stern in block letters not less than __________.

1276: The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate __________.

1277: When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?

1278: An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.

1279: On a documented small passenger vessel, what information must be permanently affixed in block-type letters and/or numerals to the main beam or other clearly visible interior structural part of the hull?

1280: On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?

1281: You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?

1282: When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using __________.

1283: The liquid-filled PV breaker has acted to relieve a vacuum in a tank. What action must be taken in regards to the PV-breaker before continuing operations?

1284: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a __________.

1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

1286: The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on __________.

1287: When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a fire on deck resulting from a cargo overflow or a leaking cargo line?

1288: Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?

1289: An undocumented vessel with 10 people aboard and operating 25 miles off the seacoast must carry a survival craft of the __________.

1290: Which davit type may be operated by one man?

1291: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0033

1292: What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?

1293: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0034

1294: According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called __________.

1295: If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.

1296: Hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.

1297: A small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it __________.

1298: If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be __________.

1299: In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?

1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.

1301: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?

1302: A class B fire is most successfully fought by __________.

1303: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________.

1304: The painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.

1305: When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.

1306: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________.

1307: Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.

1308: What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?

1309: On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector?

1310: Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________.

1311: Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?

1312: The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to __________.

1313: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3224 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 29.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0035

1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________.

1317: The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable extinguisher to a fire is by __________.

1318: The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is __________.

1319: Where should muster lists be posted?

1320: Fire extinguishers on inspected vessels are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.

1321: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

1322: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

1323: How should latitude 51°48.7'S be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1324: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.

1326: All inflatable liferafts have __________.

1327: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.

1328: Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?

1329: The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.

1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

1331: A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.

1332: An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to __________.

1333: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

1334: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.

1335: What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?

1336: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.

1337: It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________.

1338: Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?

1339: The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, the danger angle for a permanent list would be about __________.

1340: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.

1341: Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to __________.

1342: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

1343: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-03". The KG is 25.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1344: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?

1345: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

1346: The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should __________.

1347: A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.

1348: Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?

1349: What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker?

1350: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0036

1351: While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram asking for medical advice from a Greek station?

1352: If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to __________.

1353: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the motor lifeboat __________.

1354: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.

1354: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.

1355: As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.

1356: What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?

1357: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9 feet and drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.9 feet.

1358: Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?

1359: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1360: When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the embarkation deck by the __________.

1361: What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length?

1362: On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.

1363: Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.

1364: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

1365: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

1366: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.

1367: Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity of the fuel oil is .85 and the ship is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026).

1368: A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using __________.

1369: A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 50 ton cargo will be 3,000 tons and the GM three feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1369: A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 50 ton cargo will be 3,000 tons and the GM three feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1372: It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________.

1373: You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is halfway between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of the number 5. What is the draft of the vessel?

1374: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.

1375: To launch a liferaft by hand you should __________.

1376: Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?

1377: On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80 ft. long, 60 ft. wide and 30 ft. deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

1378: The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is __________.

1379: Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE?

1380: A cargo of 100 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 100 tons of cargo will be 10,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1381: Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.

1382: Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by __________.

1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

1384: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________.

1385: An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.

1386: If the metacentric height is large, a vessel will __________.

1387: In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?

1388: Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

1389: Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE?

1390: Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?

1391: Halon extinguishes fire primarily by __________.

1392: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

1393: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is the draft? (D032DG )

 1394: In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?

1395: After you have thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the liferaft by __________.

1396: If you find an inflatable liferaft container with steel bands around the case, you should __________.

1397: To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.

1398: The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.

1399: How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1400: In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat __________.

1401: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

1402: When using carbon dioxide to fight a fire on a bulkhead, the CO2 should be applied __________.

1403: Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?

1404: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.

1405: When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.

1406: The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the____________________.

1407: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D007SA )

 1408: What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

1409: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-04", AFT 16'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0037

1411: Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

1412: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

1413: Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00"(1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?

1414: What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?

1415: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the mean water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft?

1416: You will extinguish a fire when you remove __________.

1417: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.

1418: Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?

1419: Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?

1420: Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted by an inert gas system is TRUE?

1421: The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall __________.

1422: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists should __________.

1423: A weight of 250 tons is loaded on your vessel 95 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1000 ft-tons. What is the total change of trim?

1424: Halon gas will decompose and may form very hazardous toxic fumes when discharged __________.

1425: Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?

1426: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.

1427: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars as shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D007SA )

 1428: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the pressure drops below how many psi?

1429: When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.

1430: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 6422 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.6 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0038

1431: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon 1301?

1432: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )

 1433: You should NOT use a power tool if __________.

1434: Halon fire extinguishers are NOT effective when used on which types of fires?

1435: After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning?

1436: Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons of water must be shifted from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to bring her to an even draft forward and aft?

1437: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D007SA )

 1439: Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when __________.

1440: A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a distance of 30 ft. from the centerline. A 28-foot pendulum shows a deflection of 12 inches. Displacement including weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is 27.64 feet. What is the KG?

1441: On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?

1442: If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will __________.

1444: A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against fires of class __________.

1445: When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________.

1446: A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.

1447: Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?

1448: After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, the FIRST action should be to __________.

1449: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?

1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

1451: Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to __________.

1452: First aid means __________.

1453: The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?

1454: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D005SA )

 1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?

1456: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is at the bottom of number 11. What is the draft? (D032DG )

 1457: When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use __________.

1458: Your vessel displaces 14,500 tons, with a longitudinal CG 247.5 ft. aft of the FP. If you pump 80 tons of ballast from forward to aft through a distance of 480 feet, your new CG will be __________.

1459: Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?

1460: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

1461: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter? (D005SA )

 1462: When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________.

1462: When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________.

1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

1464: What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat?

1465: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1466: You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds __________.

1467: Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?

1468: You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take first to correct the situation?

1470: If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.

1471: What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned?

1472: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water level aft is 2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )

 1473: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars as shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter? (D005SA )

 1474: In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________.

1475: You need to pull the sea anchor back aboard your liferaft. What part of the anchor do you pull on?

1476: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

1477: A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST __________.

1478: There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should __________.

1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from the __________.

1480: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0039

1481: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level is at the top of number 8. What is the draft? (D032DG )

 1483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 19'-06", AFT 21'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.7 feet.

1484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and drafts of: FWD 16'-00", AFT 18'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.6 feet.

1486: A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30 tons cargo will be 9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1487: A vessel's heavy displacement is 24,500 tons with light displacement of 13,300 tons. Fully loaded it carries 300 tons of fuel and stores. What is the vessel's deadweight?

1488: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.

1489: The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is __________.

1490: You are reading the draft marks as shown. The water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft? (D032DG )

 1491: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? (D006SA )

 1492: You have abandoned ship. There are several rafts in the water. One of the FIRST things to do is __________.

1493: A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.

1494: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1495: A weight of 350 tons is loaded on your vessel 85 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1150 foot-tons. What is the total change of trim?

1496: Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use which method?

1497: While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be included in the preamble of a radio telegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian station?

1498: The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

1499: A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be __________.

1500: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0040

1501: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by which letter? (D006SA )

 1502: A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

1503: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

1504: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What is the draft? (D032DG )

 1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?

1506: Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?

1507: A thrust block is designed to __________.

1508: Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class __________.

1509: You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?

1510: You are in enemy port and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter eight. Which statement is TRUE?

1511: Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?

1512: Where are the draft marks required to be displayed on a ship?

1513: Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.

1514: "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?

1515: You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?

1516: While operating off the coast of Portugal, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a Portuguese station?

1517: A double male coupling is one that __________.

1518: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do?

1519: All oil spills must be reported to the __________.

1520: When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.

1521: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris which is marked by what letter? (D006SA )

 1522: The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels __________.

1523: The term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations means __________.

1524: A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 __________.

1524: A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 __________.

1525: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of number "9" are visible above the waterline. What is the draft? (D032DG )

 1526: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

1527: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

1528: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

1529: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

1530: Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/78?

1531: You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is required?

1532: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be heading due north when you head for Polaris, which is indicated by which letter? (D005SA )

 1533: Which statement is TRUE?

1534: Which statement is TRUE?

1535: Limit switches __________.

1536: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?

1537: How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1538: Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________.

1539: The AMVER system requires __________.

1540: Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?

1541: Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?

1542: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 09'-10", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0041

1543: The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for __________.

1544: While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. These entries shall be made __________.

1545: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing hooks to prevent __________.

1546: What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?

1547: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.

1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.

1549: You are sailing in a strong wind and may accidentally jibe when __________.

1550: The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to __________.

1551: On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.

1552: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel must keep course and speed when __________.

1554: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 32'-04", AFT 34'-02". The KG is 31.5 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

1556: Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat?

1557: When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.

1558: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. What minimum percentage of the full pressure can be lost before the cylinder must be recharged?

1560: The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a liferaft is to __________.

1561: Which is NOT a mandatory part of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

1562: Drinking salt water will __________.

1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

1564: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

1565: What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?

1566: CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.

1567: Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels?

1568: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2464 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.3 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0042

1569: Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

1570: Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

1571: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. It must be recharged if it has lost more than what minimum percentage of its weight?

1572: Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board?

1573: The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in cycles of __________.

1575: Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?

1577: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling?

1578: You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.

1579: During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?

1580: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?

1581: When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?

1582: You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station?

1583: You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.

1584: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

1585: Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.

1586: The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.

1588: How should longitude 119°16.7'E be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1589: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3284 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0043

1591: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

1592: A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. The reduction in GM due to free surface effect is __________.

1593: When launching an open lifeboat by falls, the boathooks should be __________.

1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?

1596: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

1597: Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

1598: On board a small passenger vessel connections to electric conductors MUST be __________.

1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?

1600: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

1601: Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for __________.

1603: During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of __________.

1605: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

1607: A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line?

1608: Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________.

1609: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.

1610: An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.

1611: How should longitude 116°54.9'E be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1612: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

1613: Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________.

1615: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.

1617: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.

1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium?

1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

1620: One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.

1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?

1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?

1624: A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number, and persons aboard, should be filed with __________.

1625: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

1626: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

1627: The canvas covering of fire hose is called the __________.

1628: You are running before a rough sea and a strong wind. Your sailing vessel is yawing. If the wind should catch the mainsail on the reverse side you will __________.

1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

1630: A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?

1632: When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.

1633: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 18'-07", AFT 19'-05". The KG is 33.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1634: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?

1636: How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?

1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

1639: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

1640: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the weight drops below how many pounds of liquid?

1641: The most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

1642: The Master or person in charge on a MODU shall insure that line throwing equipment is not operated __________.

1643: On a MODU with lifeboats stowed in two different locations, if all the lifeboats are lost in one location then the remaining lifeboats must accommodate what percentage of the persons permitted on board?

1644: Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?

1645: On a MODU, each emergency generator must be tested at least once each __________.

1647: Electrical wiring on all "T-Boats" must be __________.

1649: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1650: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.

1652: An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least __________.

1653: Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. This system must include __________.

1654: You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________.

1655: Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?

1659: You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?

1660: If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?

1661: What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel?

1662: By regulation, your cargo vessel must have __________.

1663: Which tank barges require draft marks?

1664: The number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor vessel" is based on the vessel's __________.

1665: Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?

1666: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 10'-04", AFT 14'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0045

1667: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

1668: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?

1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

1672: Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation?

1673: In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________.

1674: You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?

1675: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

1676: Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.

1677: After an engine is started you should __________.

1678: Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. The coaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except an exposed forecastle deck) must be at least __________.

1679: You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board?

1680: In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.

1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in __________.

1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

1683: You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most dangerous thing to do is __________.

1684: You are sailing before the wind in heavy weather. The failure of what will affect the vessel's safety most?

1685: A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is moored. For its safety you should put __________.

1686: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower?

1687: The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of the danger due to __________.

1688: Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one immersion suit, exposure suit, or life preserver for each __________.

1689: You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from a sailboat. The final approach should be __________.

1690: The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?

1691: When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the best anchor line would be composed of __________.

1692: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast, about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.

1693: Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in certain circumstances. Which situation would most likely be dangerous?

1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________.

1695: In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?

1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

1698: To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it __________.

1699: On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to __________.

1700: How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?

1701: Movement of liquid in a tank when a vessel inclines causes an increase in __________.

1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE?

1703: With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE?

1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?

1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?

1706: The major lift-producing part of a sail is the __________.

1707: Your 40-foot auxiliary sailing vessel has just run aground on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and found none. Which is the most prudent action to take immediately?

1708: A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic __________.

1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?

1711: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

1712: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 cylinder is 80 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 60 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?

1713: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.

1715: After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, at a minimum of __________.

1717: An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________.

1718: You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. This swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals, would be described as __________.

1720: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.

1722: Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?

1723: The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters?

1725: The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.

1727: Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?

1728: What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

1729: The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________.

1730: Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of __________.

1731: Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?

1732: The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________.

1733: The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before the vessel vapor connection must be painted __________.

1734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

1735: On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________.

1736: On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8% oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the __________.

1737: In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system, there must be __________.

1739: The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must __________.

1740: Tank vessel inerting refers to __________.

1741: The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system is __________.

1742: What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?

1743: Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called __________.

1744: Each hose used for transferring vapors must __________.

1745: During loading, what is the minimum pressure required to be maintained by the inert gas system on cargo tanks?

1746: An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than __________.

1748: In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound?

1749: High pressure and low pressure alarms must be tested __________.

1750: You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than __________.

1752: Vapor recovery hoses must be tested yearly at what ratio to their maximum allowable working pressure?

1754: A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly moving flame through the piping is called a __________.

1755: When checking the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, the atmosphere must be sampled __________.

1756: Under federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on commercial vessels?

1757: You are operating a liftboat. Before starting jacking operations you should __________.

1758: A flooded leg on a liftboat would adversely affect the vessel's stability underway by __________.

1759: You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.

1760: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Your next course of action should be to __________.

1761: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. The list caused by a flooded leg means your vessel has a(n)____________.

1762: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and free of the bottom you should __________.

1763: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and a leg becomes stuck on the bottom, you should __________.

1764: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Raising the flooded leg further would adversely affect the boats stability by __________.

1764: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Raising the flooded leg further would adversely affect the boats stability by __________.

1765: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. To keep adequate stability you should __________.

1766: You are operating a liftboat. In preparation for jacking you should __________.

1767: The explosive range of Diesel Oil mixed with air is __________.

1768: The flammable limit of methyl ethyl ketone is from __________.

1770: On a survival craft VHF radio precautions shall be taken to prevent the inadvertent selection of which channel __________.

1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

1772: The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include __________.

1773: What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures?

1774: You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must first receive approval from the Federal On-Scene Coordinator (OSC) prior to __________.

1775: You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid pressure of __________.

1776: Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends?

1776: Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends?

1777: The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain __________.

1778: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

1779: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

1780: How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?

1781: Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?

1782: Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?

1783: Which statement concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is FALSE?

1784: Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?

1785: What is a GMDSS functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?

1786: Which statement concerning reserve sources of energy for GMDSS is FALSE?

1787: Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?

1788: Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?

1789: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?

1790: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?

1791: Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?

1792: For GMDSS, which statement concerning a compulsory vessel is FALSE?

1793: What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?

1794: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?

1795: Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?

1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________.

1799: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________.

1800: Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility?

1801: Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________.

1802: The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.

1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.

1804: Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx 33'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 52.8 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?

1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

1806: Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 46'L x 29'B and the weight of the water is 41 tons?

1807: Which is standing rigging?

1808: Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

1809: For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?

1810: Halon extinguishes a fire by __________.

1811: What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?

1812: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1813: On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas, recreational and hospital areas that are adjacent to or immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint locker, washroom, or toilet space must be made __________.

1814: Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons?

1815: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1816: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Except where specifically required by the rules, a sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out of the way of a __________.

1817: Offshore drilling units that carry twelve or more persons on a voyage of more than three days must have a __________.

1818: In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?

1819: Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons?

1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1821: On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is provided, each porthole or window must be fitted with __________.

1822: Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold?

1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?

1824: Most recreational sailing craft have triangular sails and are said to be __________.

1825: Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must have the tanks installed as far as practicable from the __________.

1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons?

1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.

1828: A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________.

1829: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220° relative would be __________.

1830: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

1832: For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?

1833: Batteries for VHF Survival Craft Transceivers must have sufficient capacity to operate for a minimum of __________.

1834: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1835: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50° on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?

1837: Each liferaft, which does not have an indicated maximum stowage height indicated on the liferaft, must be __________.

1838: When a sail is reefed, the sail area is _______ .

1839: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020° relative would be __________.

1840: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1842: How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?

1843: With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?

1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?

1845: What is the minimum number of hand held, rocket propelled, parachute, red flare, distress signals required on board offshore drilling units?

1846: You are under sail on a close reach, and the wind is steady. While steady on course, you reef the mainsail and your speed slows. The apparent wind __________.

1847: An offshore drilling unit must be equipped with a first aid kit approved by the __________.

1848: Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons?

1849: Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail?

1850: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

1851: When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate the signal __________.

1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1853: On offshore drilling units each fire station is identified by letters and numbers at least __________.

1854: How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?

1855: An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an operations manual approved by the __________.

1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

1857: Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?

1858: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

1859: The parts of the sail shown are correctly labeled EXCEPT the __________. (D003SL )

 1860: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

1861: On offshore drilling units, emergency lighting and each emergency power system must be tested at least once a __________.

1862: All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________.

1863: On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for emergency lighting and power systems must be tested every six months under actual connected load for a period of at least __________.

1864: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.7. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1865: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.6 feet and drafts of: FWD 13'-07", AFT 15'-01". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.4 feet.

1866: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0046

1866: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0046

1867: Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to the sea you must __________.

1868: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1869: The three corners of the main sail are called __________. (D002SL )

 1870: When should a fire be ventilated?

1871: If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.

1872: Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

1874: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.

1875: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

1876: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140° relative would be __________.

1877: Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?

1878: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 866 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?

1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________.

1881: What does a SART signal sound or look like?

1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________.

1883: On offshore drilling units, the Muster List ("Station Bill") must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.

1884: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Unless the rules require otherwise, a sailing vessel must keep out of the way of __________.

1885: In the case of an injury causing a person to be incapacitated, the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must submit a report to the __________.

1886: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1887: When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.

1888: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of the tanks being slack?

1889: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?

1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.

1891: What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?

1892: What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?

1893: Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?

1894: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in salt water (specific gravity 1.025) is 864 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

1895: How can a SART's effective range be maximized?

1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the __________. (D001SL )

 1897: Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging?

1898: Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 18'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 15.4 tons)

1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)

1900: The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries is best prevented by __________.

1901: Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?

1902: Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?

1903: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?

1904: A sailing vessel with the wind coming over the port side is said to be on a __________.

1905: What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of the mast?

1906: Your vessel displaces 930 tons and measures 156'L by 38'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (46'L by 28'B by 8'D) is filled with 1.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 36.8 tons)

1908: Your vessel displaces 750 tons and measures 151'L by 35'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (60'L by 31'B by 10'D) is filled with 3.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 53.1 tons)

1909: On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on __________.

1910: Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?

1911: A ketch is a sailing vessel with __________.

1912: Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

1913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 8'-04", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0047

1914: Your vessel displaces 728 tons and measures 138'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (36'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 3.6 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 29.8 tons)

1915: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

1916: What is part of a vessel's standing rigging?

1917: How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?

1918: Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?

1919: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050° relative would be __________.

1920: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?

1921: Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are issued for a period of __________.

1922: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of a __________.

1923: Except as provided by approved special examinations, each offshore drilling unit must be dry-docked at least once during every __________.

1924: Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by 8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3 tons)

1925: A construction portfolio prepared for each new offshore drilling unit must be approved by the __________.

1926: A "reaching" course is one in which the wind __________.

1927: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of inclined ladders which must be fitted between each weather deck is __________.

1928: Your vessel displaces 740 tons and measures 141'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (41'L by 30'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 35.1 tons)

1929: Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?

1930: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.

1931: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 17'-03", AFT 19'-03". The KG is 23.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

1932: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

1933: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

1934: Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?

1935: Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are effective until the __________.

1936: Your vessel displaces 696 tons and measures 135'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)

1937: On offshore drilling units, a fire drill must be conducted at least once a __________.

1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________.

1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________.

1939: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

 1940: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.

1941: On offshore drilling units, boat drills must be conducted at least __________.

1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?

1943: Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?

1944: You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (see illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

 1945: What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B call?

1946: You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (Refer to trim and stability letter for M.V. Surveyor.) (D037DG )

 1947: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is under sail at night displaying sidelights, stern light, and a red light over a green light at the masthead. If you start the auxiliary engine and engage the propeller, you must_______.

1948: You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

 1949: What is meant by "CES"?

1950: The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be __________.

1951: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.

1952: Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

1953: Which fitting is used to connect the boom to the mast?

1955: How often must the emergency generator be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

1956: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

 1957: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?

1958: You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

 1958: You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

 1959: You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)

1961: Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?

1962: You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

 1963: How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?

1964: When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) __________.

1965: Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUE?

1966: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090° relative would be __________.

1967: Define the acronym MSI.

1968: Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?

1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________.

1970: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

1971: Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?

1972: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

1973: To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?

1974: When experiencing heavy winds, you should reef sails to __________.

1975: On a commercial fishing vessel, a wearable personal flotation device must be marked with the name of the __________.

1976: A capsized small sail vessel is best righted when what part of the vessel is downwind?

1977: A stay is __________.

1978: How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel?

1979: A documented oceangoing fishing vessel is required to have emergency instructions posted if it __________.

1980: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

1981: On a mobile offshore drilling unit it is required to __________.

1982: Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?

1983: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

1984: You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

 1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.

1986: Which statement is TRUE?

1987: When a fire drill is conducted on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the designated person in charge must ensure that __________.

1988: You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

 1989: What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat?

1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

1991: It is the responsibility of the person in charge to __________.

1992: A deep keel on a sailing vessel increases the_____________.

1993: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that __________.

1994: Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?

1995: Who is responsible for insuring that each survival craft on a mobile offshore drilling unit is cleaned and inspected once a year?

1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

 1997: Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________.

1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?

1999: Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?

2000: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

2001: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that __________.

2002: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See the trim and stability letter for M.V. Hudson, illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

 2003: Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2004: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2005: If there is unsafe machinery on a mobile offshore drilling unit, who is responsible for reporting the existence of the unsafe condition to the Coast Guard?

2006: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2007: The bottom of the mast rests on the __________.

2008: Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2009: Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2010: Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?

2012: What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?

2012: What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?

2013: What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons?

2014: Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2015: A shroud is __________.

2016: Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2017: A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of __________.

2018: When can routine communications be resumed on a frequency or channel on which radio silence has been imposed?

2019: You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

 2020: Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.

2021: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

2023: If you were to jibe in a strong wind, the part of the rigging most likely to fail would be the __________.

2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?

2025: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged on a 15 meter sail vessel. Which statement is TRUE?

2026: Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck?

2027: Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?

2028: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 2029: A yawl is a sailing vessel with __________.

2030: You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2031: Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn?

2032: What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?

2033: How is "radio silence" imposed?

2034: You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

 2035: What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?

2036: Which system provides maximum communications range?

2037: Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?

2038: Which system is least likely to be subject to fading or static interference?

2039: You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons)

2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2041: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

2042: Which line would be used to hoist a sail?

2043: How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?

2044: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail making 5 knots. The apparent wind is broad on the port beam at 10 knots. You see another sailing vessel dead ahead on a meeting course. What action is correct?

2045: How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?

2046: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 2047: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0048

2048: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-08". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 2049: The bottom of the mast rests on a part of the keel called the mast __________.

2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2051: You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew boat calls you on VHF channel 16. When you reply with your vessel name and call letters, you should request the crew boat to switch to an intership channel such as channel __________.

2052: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

2053: What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs?

2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

2055: What agency issues the Ship Station license for the VHF marine radio on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2056: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2057: You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed by the __________.

2058: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2059: What standing rigging supports the mast in the fore-and-aft and athwartships directions?

2060: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2061: Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig?

2062: You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from accidentally jibing by using a(n) __________.

2063: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

2064: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail and overtaking a tug and tow. Which action is correct?

2065: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2066: A boom vang __________.

2067: You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?

2069: The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay are called_________.

2070: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2071: The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights. Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your predicament?

2072: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

2073: If your rig is equipped with a SSB radio, what frequency would you use to initiate a distress call?

2074: You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

 2075: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 28'-06", AFT 29'-10". The KG is 27.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

2076: A cargo tank that is initially gas freed, can be inerted by introducing inert gas by a process known as __________.

2077: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are proceeding under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged. Which statement is TRUE?

2078: A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________.

2079: Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck?

2080: You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2081: On offshore drilling units, each inflatable liferaft must be serviced every __________.

2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than __________.

2083: On offshore drilling units each inflatable liferaft that is not intended for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be __________.

2084: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured __________.

2085: An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable liferafts to accommodate at least what percentage of the persons allowed?

2086: A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

2087: The davit aboard a MODU is used to __________.

2088: If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once every __________.

2089: On a vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present shall NOT be segregated from cargo tanks by __________. (vessel constructed after 1970)

2090: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See the stability letter for the M.V. Hudson illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

 2091: To inflate a davit launched liferaft you __________.

2092: According to regulations, cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade A, B, C, or D liquid cargo, shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________. (vessel constructed 1970)

2093: The davit launched liferaft can be boarded __________.

2094: Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?

2095: Sails may be wing and wing when __________.

2096: Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least __________.

2097: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

2098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0049

2099: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least __________.

2100: You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2101: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration located 10 nautical miles from nearest land MAY discharge __________.

2102: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close-hauled the __________.

2103: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.

2104: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2105: If a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should __________.

2106: In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, provided that the only cargo carried through such piping is(are) __________.

2107: What is NOT running rigging?

2108: Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?

2109: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

2110: You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2111: The hinge fitting used to attach the boom to the mast is the __________.

2112: You are sailing the navigable waters of the United States. You must have a currently corrected copy (or extract) of the __________.

2113: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2865 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0050

2114: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?

2116: You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

 2118: You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

 2119: Your vessel displaces 475 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.6 feet above the deck and weighs 22 tons. If you load 16 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 8 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2120: You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2121: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

2122: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 2123: Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal?

2124: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02", AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2125: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

2126: Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?

2127: On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________.

2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

2130: You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2131: When a person is in shock, their skin will be __________.

2132: On which vessels is GMDSS required?

2133: If a vessel is sagging, which kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?

2134: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registers 55 on the instrument. What is the concentration of gases?

2135: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0051

2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships.

2137: Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?

2139: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 28'-01", AFT 28'-06"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2140: You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

 2141: How often is a drill on the use of the line throwing appliance required to be held on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2142: What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?

2146: Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________.

2146: Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________.

2147: Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is intended while he or she is __________.

2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft.

2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft.

2149: On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?

2150: You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)

2151: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0052

2152: You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

 2153: On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's __________.

2154: What is the basic concept of GMDSS?

2155: When sailing with the wind aft, a vessel may carry sails on both sides at the same time. The sails are __________.

2156: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases?

2157: On offshore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once every __________.

2158: You have approximately 15 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 300 tons)

2159: Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2160: You have approximately 29 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 5 feet? (total displacement is 483 tons)

2161: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

2162: Which tank barges require draft marks?

2163: You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?

2164: Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?

2165: A schooner is a fore-and-aft rigged vessel with __________.

2168: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?

2169: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

2170: You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)

2171: The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________.

2172: Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2173: Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?

2174: You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

2175: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

2176: According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a complete change of air in not more than __________.

2177: What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?

2178: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trim? (D037DG )

 2180: You have approximately 16 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 640 tons)

2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

2182: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 2183: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.

2184: Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?

2185: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.

2186: Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges?

2186: Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges?

2187: What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?

2188: You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

 2189: Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is known as __________.

2190: You have approximately 24 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 540 tons)

2191: A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's outfit, must have all of the following in the outfit except a __________.

2192: Your vessel displaces 689 tons and measures 123'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 65'Lx 31'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 62 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?

2193: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats' fuel tanks must be emptied and the fuel changed at least once every __________.

2194: Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?

2195: Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and(or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

2196: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are on a sailing vessel with the wind on the starboard side and are approaching another sailing vessel that has the wind on the port side. Which action should you take?

2197: A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.

2198: Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel with the sails properly trimmed?

2199: Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

2200: To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is __________.

2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________.

2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?

2203: Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?

2204: Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?

2205: You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?

2206: Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack?

2207: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

2208: Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

2209: What are the health hazard ratings for a product of triethylbenzene?

2210: To check stability, a weight of 10 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom whose head is 45 ft. from the ship's centerline. The clinometer show's a list of 5.0° with weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 9,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

2211: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

2212: In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach, the sails should be __________.

2213: When abandoning a MODU, after launching the survival craft you should __________.

2214: Which statement concerning maintenance requirements is FALSE?

2215: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a survival craft, you should __________.

2216: Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?

2217: Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

2218: The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

2219: Each buoyant work vest must be __________.

2220: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0053

2221: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.

2222: Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

2223: Knowing the compass heading that is 90° to the side of a MODU will enable the operator of a survival craft to initially steer __________.

2224: Your vessel is drifting with the wind broad on the port beam. The marconi sail is set and flapping free. As you sheet in the maximum drive is attained when the sail __________.

2225: Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

2226: You are sailing on a close reach when a strong wind suddenly heels the vessel hard over. To reduce the heeling and yet maintain speed, you should __________.

2227: When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air they are used for __________.

2228: Your sails are properly trimmed while on a reaching course. Changing to a close hauled course will __________.

2229: To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that __________.

2230: To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

2232: Your vessel is sailing on a port tack when a sudden gust of wind heels the vessel sharply to starboard. Which action will reduce the heeling of the vessel?

2233: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

2234: As a vessel falls off the wind from close-hauled to a beam reach, the tendency for the vessel to move sideways through the water will __________.

2235: You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.

2236: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 25'-11". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 23'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2237: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.

2238: Which system has the least effective radius of operation?

2239: You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________.

2240: What is classified as a combustible liquid?

2241: If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________.

2242: An example of a grade B product is __________.

2243: Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________.

2244: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is __________.

2245: The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________.

2246: What would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product?

2247: When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.

2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

2249: A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?

2250: Which cargo is considered volatile?

2251: What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?

2252: According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic?

2253: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.

2254: According to the Chemical Data Guide, 1,3 - pentadiene possesses which characteristic?

2255: The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant __________.

2256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0054

2257: The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________.

2258: According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong?

2259: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-00"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2260: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed?

2261: If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________.

2262: What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46 °C?

2264: Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a __________.

2265: A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to __________.

2266: Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine?

2267: During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to __________.

2268: To what chemical family does chlorallylene belong?

2269: To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong?

2270: When a vessel is inclined at a small angle the center of buoyancy will __________.

2271: When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.

2272: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a characteristic of allyl chloride?

2273: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.

2274: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

2275: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is propelled by sail and power. What action is required when the engine is stopped?

2276: What is the Reid vapor pressure of allyl chloride?

2277: What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?

2278: A cargo of 75 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 6,000 tons and GM is 6 feet. The list of the ship with the cargo suspended from the boom will be __________.

2279: According to the Chemical Data Guide, when burning, the grade B flammable liquid, carbon disulfide produces __________.

2280: A vessel displaces 140,000 cubic feet of saltwater in a light condition. After loading 7500 tons of cargo and 200 tons of fuel, water and stores, she is "full and down". The vessel's light displacement is __________.

2281: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.

2283: Sails may be wing and wing when_____________.

2284: The flammable limits for crude oil are __________.

2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.

2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.

2286: What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide?

2287: The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.

2287: The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.

2288: A major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine is that it______.

2289: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tert-butylamine?

2290: In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by __________.

2291: The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to __________.

2292: Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________.

2294: Which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a cyclohexane fire?

2295: All MODU personnel should be familiar with the survival craft's __________.

2296: Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________.

2297: Each fire pump on a tankship must have a pressure gauge located at __________.

2298: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3684 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 28.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0055

2299: The first treatment given to a person overcome by benzene vapor should be to __________.

2301: If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

2302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0056

2303: The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with __________.

2304: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck?

2305: With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from a __________.

2306: Which flash point would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?

2307: Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?

2309: Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft; KG is 20.5 ft. The angle of list when the weight is lifted will be __________.

2310: A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.

2311: What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump?

2312: Which statement is TRUE concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene?

2313: A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.

2314: Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo?

2315: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?

2316: The flammable limits for motor gasoline are __________.

2317: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0057

2318: A vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is pumped 116 feet forward.

2319: What is NOT generally a characteristic of inhaling light naphtha?

2320: You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near?

2322: What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade D or E cargo ONLY?

2323: Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs?

2324: How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?

2325: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0058

2326: In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required?

2327: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower?

2328: Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?

2329: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0059

2330: What is the purpose of a centerboard when sailing on a tack?

2331: What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing?

2332: The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by __________.

2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

2334: Which flash point would indicate a grade E combustible liquid?

2335: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

2336: While loading bulk oil in a barge, you notice oil on the water alongside. What should you do FIRST?

2337: Sideways movement of the mast is resisted by the __________.

2338: In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of 5°. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time?

2339: Sixty tons of cargo are raised with a boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 16,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°. KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

2339: Sixty tons of cargo are raised with a boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 16,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°. KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

2341: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0060

2342: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 11'-09". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2343: A marker pole, with a horseshoe buoy and a sea anchor attached, should be used to __________.

2344: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 23'-01"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2345: During an annual FCC inspection __________.

2346: Grade E liquids are those having a flash point of __________.

2347: Which references should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?

2348: Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951)

2349: What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?

2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?

2351: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower?

2352: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2353: Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

2354: Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

2355: What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?

2355: What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?

2356: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 21'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 300 tons are loaded 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 225 tons are loaded 150 feet aft of amidships; and 122 tons of fuel are pumped 72 feet aft.

2357: When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?

2357: When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?

2358: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships.

2359: An example of a grade D product is __________.

2360: According to regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded at a temperature below __________.

2361: What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port?

2361: What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port?

2362: A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be punished federally by __________.

2363: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 22.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2364: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 27'-06". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 26'-00". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2365: The space around a pipe in a wellbore, the outer wall of which may be the wall of either the borehole or the casing, is the __________.

2366: What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?

2367: The person or company, either proprietor or lessee, actually operating an oil well or lease is the __________.

2368: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0061

2370: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flammable limits of ethylene oxide are __________.

2371: What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump?

2372: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 23.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2373: An uncontrolled flow of gas, oil, or other well fluids into the atmosphere is called a __________.

2374: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

2375: An entry of water, gas, oil, or other formation fluid into the wellbore is called a __________.

2376: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 24'-06". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2377: The operation of hoisting the drill stem out of and returning it to the wellbore is called a __________.

2378: A vessel's drafts are FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 142 tons are discharged 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 321 tons are loaded 82 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 74 tons are discharged 62 feet aft of amidships.

2379: Regulations require that access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo, shall be __________.

2380: Access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes shall be __________.

2381: Beyond the area of state ownership in the U.S. outer continental shelf, the right to drill is controlled by the __________.

2382: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2383: What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Operator?

2384: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-04", AFT 24'-05"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

2385: When drilling from a MODU, the conductor casing is landed with its top extending to just __________.

2386: What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?

2387: A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees?

2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.

2389: The best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal is to __________.

2390: According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard?

2391: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting services, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.

2392: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2393: An integral part of a blowout preventer that serves as the closing element on an open hole, and whose ends do not fit around the drill pipe but seal against each other and shut off the space below completely is the __________.

2394: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 122 tons are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships, 128 tons are discharged 54 feet forward of amidships, and 68 tons of fuel is pumped 48 feet aft.

2395: A negative metacentric height __________.

2396: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 25.6 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2397: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

2398: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

2399: Sixty (60) tons of cargo are raised with a heavy lift boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 18,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°, KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

2400: You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. The Chemical Data Guide indicates that the solubility of ethyl chloride in water will be __________.

2401: A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

2402: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

2403: A frame with two, or sometimes four, arms through which are threaded the guidelines and which is used to keep the drill stem and bit in line with the center opening in the temporary guide base is the __________.

2404: Regulations require that cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges be vented with __________.

2405: The heavy three-, four-, or six-sided length of pipe suspended from the swivel through the rotary table and connected to the topmost joint of drill pipe to turn the drill stem as the rotary table turns is called the __________.

2406: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 22'-10", AFT 23'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2408: If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

2409: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-02"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.0 foot off the centerline.

2410: Grade A flammable liquids are those with a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

2411: The storage device for nitrogen-pressurized hydraulic fluid, which is used in closing the blowout preventers is called the __________.

2412: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 5 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2413: Signaling by flag hoist is completed by the vessel hoisting the __________.

2414: The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F?

2415: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0062

2416: Which statement is TRUE?

2417: Which statement is TRUE?

2418: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2419: Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship?

2420: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

2421: How many degrees are there on a compass card?

2422: What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE?

2423: A large valve, usually installed above the ram preventers, that forms a seal in the annular space between the pipe and wellbore or, if no pipe is present, on the wellbore itself is called the __________.

2424: Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?

2425: Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report the injury to the Master, individual in charge, or other agent of the employer __________.

2426: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2427: What is the female section of a tool joint called?

2428: What is the flash point of iso - Hexane?

2429: A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.

2430: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

2431: A device used to enlarge the size of an existing bore hole, having teeth arranged on its outside circumference to cut the formation as it rotates is a(n) __________.

2432: You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be __________.

2433: The pipe and special fittings used on floating offshore drilling rigs to establish a connection between the top of the wellbore, which is on the ocean floor, and the drilling equipment, located above the surface of the water, is called a __________.

2434: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2435: The joint of the riser in a marine riser system that compensates for heave, the up-and-down motion of a floater, is the __________.

2436: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 320 tons are loaded 47 feet forward of amidships; (2) 82 tons are discharged 110 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 50 tons of fuel are pumped 60 feet forward.

2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.

2438: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 95 tons of cargo are loaded 76 feet forward of amidships.

2439: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take FIRST?

2440: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited?

2441: A set of clamps that are latched onto the drill pipe to allow the driller to raise or lower the drill string out of or into the hole are the __________.

2442: The international shore connection __________.

2443: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0063

2444: When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.

2445: What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?

2446: If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?

2447: The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90 feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a __________.

2448: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.

2449: You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________.

2450: During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the ethyl chloride will boil off if the water temperature is above __________.

2451: The end of the joint with the exterior threads is called the __________.

2452: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2453: A tool consisting of a handle and releasable chain used for turning pipe or fittings of a diameter larger than that which a pipe wrench would fit is called __________.

2454: In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

2455: The element used to keep weight on the bit at a constant value in spite of up-and-down movement of a MODU during floating drilling operations is the heave or drill string __________.

2456: According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) __________.

2457: What is a grooved pulley?

2458: To find the product Valeral in the Chemical Data Guide, you would have to look up the product __________.

2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

2460: During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the correct procedure would be to __________.

2461: A special device that, when fitted into the rotary table, transmits torque to the kelly and simultaneously permits vertical movement of the kelly to make the hole is called a __________.

2462: If a leak occurred while loading diethylenetriamine, the chemical data guide indicates you would smell an odor similar to __________.

2463: A heavy, thick-walled tube, usually steel, used between the drill pipe and the bit in the drill stem to weight the bit in order to improve its performance is called a __________.

2464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0064

2465: The element that supports the weight of the drill stem, allows the drill stem to rotate, and provides a pressure-tight seal and passageway for the drilling mud to be pumped down the inside of the drill stem is called the __________.

2466: According to regulations, access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo shall be __________.

2467: To prevent the riser system from buckling under its own weight, upward tension is provided by the __________.

2468: What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid?

2469: According to the regulations, cargo pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1965) handling grade C liquid cargo shall have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.

2470: According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The last digit "2" of the rating means __________.

2471: The device that allows a floating MODU to sway without bending the marine riser system is the __________.

2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.

2474: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of cargo are loaded 86 feet forward of amidships.

2475: Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n) __________.

2476: Which tank barges require draft marks?

2478: Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E?

2479: Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan to be reviewed __________.

2480: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire?

2481: Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?

2482: If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.

2483: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products?

2485: A drilling bit which is doughnut shaped to permit recovery of the center portion of the hole drilled is called a __________.

2486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0065

2487: The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the __________.

2488: If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should IMMEDIATELY __________.

2489: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area?

2490: Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?

2491: The platform that supports the derrickman when tripping pipe is called the __________.

2492: At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?

2493: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0066

2494: An example of a grade C product is __________.

2495: A series of trays with sieves that vibrate to remove cuttings from the circulating fluid in rotary drilling operations is called the __________.

2496: What type of vent system would a barge of acrylonitrile have?

2497: In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means __________.

2498: Which product is volatile?

2499: What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid?

2500: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire?

2501: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 20'-06", AFT 24'-00". The KG is 29.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

2502: The international shore connection __________.

2504: A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?

2505: The helicopter deck of a MODU must be marked with the units identification, appropriate aiming circles, and a continuous line on the perimeter which is __________.

2506: Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of __________.

2507: When using a crane for transferring personnel in a basket, the load hook must be equipped with a __________.

2508: What is the TLV of cyclohexanol?

2509: How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own?

2510: Camphor oil is classified as a __________.

2511: When lowering a personnel net to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel basket should be __________.

2512: Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E?

2513: The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is __________.

2514: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2515: Before personnel are lifted from a vessel in a personnel basket, the vessel should be ________________________

2516: When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly toxic fumes of __________.

2517: When may a personnel net be used to bring heavy equipment aboard an offshore drilling unit?

2518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0067

2519: What are the venting requirements for a barge with a cargo of adiponitrile?

2520: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)?

2521: To enable tying down a helicopter on the landing area of a MODU, the landing deck must be fitted with __________.

2522: What best describes benzene?

2523: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?

2524: What characteristic determines when a grade "C" product will start to vaporize?

2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068

2526: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0069

2527: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0070

2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF?

2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF?

2529: What is a grade B flammable liquid?

2530: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.

2531: What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?

2532: The appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and __________ .

2533: An obstruction on a helodeck is any object that might present a hazard to the __________.

2534: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene?

2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.

2536: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

2537: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to?

2538: According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees F) of __________.

2539: If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you should be aware that it is __________.

2540: The MINIMUM ventilation requirements for pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1960) carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the freeboard deck specify __________.

2541: When lifting loads from a boat in heavy weather, the load should be taken when the boat __________.

2542: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 15 inches? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2543: The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to __________.

2544: Triethylene glycol fires may be extinguished by __________.

2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the __________.

2546: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 24.0 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2547: On a MODU crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of boom length and __________.

2548: According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

2549: Vessels "A" and "B" are identical; however, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.

2550: According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids?

2551: The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.

2552: When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed?

2553: What is meant by the term "radio silence"?

2554: How is "radio silence" imposed?

2555: When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator must assure that __________.

2556: Regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with __________.

2557: When transferring personnel with a MODU crane, the weight of the loaded personnel carrier must not exceed __________.

2558: Grade C liquids are those having a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

2559: What is NOT a grade B flammable liquid?

2560: Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following?

2561: The weight of the loaded personnel carrier, when transferring personnel from a MODU with a crane, must not exceed __________.

2562: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower?

2563: The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the __________.

2564: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 1 and 2 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2565: Annual inspection of MODU cranes shall be conducted by __________.

2566: LFG tank and pipeline maintenance should include __________.

2567: A MODU crane which has been idle for a period of over six months shall be inspected to the same standards as a __________.

2568: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

2569: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2570: What is NOT a requirement of the reinspection for a tank barge with a certificate of inspection valid for two years?

2571: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?

2572: The radiotelephone urgency signal is __________.

2573: Medical treatment aboard a MODU should not go beyond examination and emergency care without first consulting __________.

2574: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 60° inclination.

2575: The "urgent" priority should be used for messages __________.

2576: When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.

2577: The radiotelephone safety signal is __________.

2578: Your vessel displaces 9,000 tons and has a KG of 21.2 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 2.6 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2579: What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

2580: If your JP-5 barge has operated in saltwater for less than 1 month in the 12 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

2581: A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.

2582: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.

2583: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?

2584: The grade C flammable liquid phenylethane is found in the Chemical Data Guide under the chemical name __________.

2585: Vertical partitions which provide strength and compartmentalization on a MODU are called __________.

2586: To which group of hydrocarbons do Benzene and Toluene belong?

2587: Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________.

2588: Which extinguishing agent is recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a carbon disulfide fire?

2590: Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by __________.

2591: Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually __________.

2592: Which signal is detected as originating from a SART?

2593: Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand __________.

2594: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 3 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2595: How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity?

2596: Drinking salt water will __________.

2597: Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.

2598: A vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.8 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 60° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2599: Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.

2600: If your Bunker-C barge has operated in salt water for more than 12 months in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

2601: In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in __________.

2602: In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

2603: Where is the keel generally located on a MODU?

2604: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2605: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft of amidships.

2606: Which device provides the main means in the GMDSS for locating ships in distress or their survival craft?

2607: The tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize is indicated by its __________.

2608: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0071

2609: Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?

2610: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-06.5", AFT 23'-05.4". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0072

2611: The central longitudinal structural hull strength member of the lower hulls of semisubmersible MODU's is called the __________.

2612: What is NOT listed as a synonym for crude oil in the Chemical Data Guide?

2613: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

2614: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

2615: On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member of the lower hull form in which direction?

2616: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for motor gasoline is __________.

2617: Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?

2618: What would NOT be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?

2618: What would NOT be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?

2619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0073

2620: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use on a retinol fire?

2621: The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called __________.

2621: The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called __________.

2622: Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how many pounds?

2623: Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by __________.

2624: The primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling LFG is(are) __________.

2625: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

2626: Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?

2627: Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run __________.

2628: What normally helps in detecting escaping gas?

2629: Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a __________.

2630: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire?

2631: In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam to a __________.

2632: What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?

2633: A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.

2634: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 4 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2635: In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to __________.

2636: When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the MOST important symptom to check for is __________.

2637: The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.

2638: Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?

2639: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2640: What is NOT a grade E product?

2641: The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily by deck longitudinals and deck __________.

2642: When properly set and drawing, a fore-and-aft sail has a cross-section that __________.

2643: Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the __________.

2644: When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________.

2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.

2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.

2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower?

2647: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?

2648: Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________.

2649: Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________.

2650: Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin?

2651: Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.

2652: Which vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2653: The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the __________.

2654: Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration.

2655: Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.

2656: How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?

2657: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-2", AFT 6'-8". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? ( D037DG )

 2658: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

2659: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0074

2660: A synonym for chloroform is __________.

2661: When the longitudinal strength members of a MODU are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.

2662: A vessel with a large GM will __________.

2663: Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.

2664: Gasoline fumes tend to __________.

2665: You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side?

2666: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

2667: Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________.

2668: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

2669: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline?

2671: To meet the regulations governing manning requirements outside U.S. jurisdiction, a person holding a foreign license can serve in any of the following positions EXCEPT __________.

2672: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-08", AFT 17'-06"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.7 feet off the centerline.

2673: A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.

2674: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 2 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2675: The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.

2676: A safe fuel system must __________.

2677: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0075

2678: What happens to the pulling power of a winch when retrieving wire rope?

2679: The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is __________.

2680: You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the cleanup procedure?

2681: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

2682: The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

2683: On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.

2684: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and holds 4 and 5 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2685: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is determined by the __________.

2686: Which tank barges require draft marks?

2687: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

2688: The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure necessary to keep it in a(n) __________.

2689: A vessel with a large GM will __________.

2690: Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________.

2691: Two individuals authorized to serve as a lifeboatman must be assigned to any lifeboat that has a capacity of more than __________.

2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45° inclination.

2693: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0076

2694: The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?

2695: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.

2696: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-09", AFT 28'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.6 feet off the centerline.

2697: In order to withstand fluid head pressure on a MODU, stiffeners are often attached to the bulkhead __________.

2698: Using a sea anchor will __________.

2699: Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 45° if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2700: According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?

2701: Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a MODU is usually __________.

2702: Your vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2703: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.

2704: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

2705: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0077

2706: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline.

2707: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0078

2708: Upon release to the atmosphere, LFG readily __________.

2709: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-08"; and the KG is 22.9 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 50° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off center.

2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?

2711: The number of able seamen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.

2712: A vessel with a small GM will __________.

2713: On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of void spaces above the waterline in the __________.

2714: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

2715: The certificate of inspection of a MODU will specify the __________.

2716: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

2717: Horizontal subdivision decks forming watertight compartments in the columns of a semisubmersible MODU increase the unit's __________.

2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2720: To determine the pressure and temperature limitations under which LFG is required to be transported on a barge, you should look at the __________.

2721: You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

2722: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2723: The prohibition against exceeding the load line draft may be considered temporarily not applicable when __________.

2724: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 18'-09"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.4 feet off the centerline.

2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.

2726: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is loaded 116 feet forward of amidships.

2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.

2728: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-00", AFT 14'-08"; and the KG is 25.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.5 feet off the centerline.

2729: You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?

2730: According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG tanks are located __________.

2731: The document that certifies the correctness of the load line marks on a MODU is called the __________.

2732: According to the regulations, to prevent excessive pressure buildup in cargo tanks containing LFG, they are fitted with __________.

2733: Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jack-up MODU during jacking operations can cause __________.

2734: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 24.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

2735: A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and __________.

2736: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 19° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.3 feet off center.

2737: During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide __________.

2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________.

2739: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2740: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-06.6", AFT 20'-05.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference book to determine the final drafts. ST-0079

2741: A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the __________.

2742: A vessel with a small GM will __________.

2743: Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the __________.

2744: Radar reflectors are required for __________.

2745: The construction portfolio may be included as part of the MODU __________.

2746: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

2747: Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding __________.

2748: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.

2749: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2750: According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of __________.

2751: The requirements for special welding procedures on a MODU must be contained in the __________.

2753: For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain __________.

2754: Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?

2755: What repair or modification to a MODU would most likely require consulting the construction portfolio?

2756: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 26° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.0 foot off center.

2757: A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the __________.

2758: A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?

2759: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2760: According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene?

2761: In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must also include the __________.

2762: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination.

2763: A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used on a MODU would be recorded in the __________.

2764: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will __________.

2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.

2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.

2766: How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2766: How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2767: Forces within a drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is __________.

2768: Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2769: Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2770: Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________.

2770: Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________.

2771: The angle to which a floating MODU, with a negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of __________.

2772: Tour vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-09", AFT 23'-07"; and the KG is 24.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 18° inclination.

2773: The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be stowed in __________.

2774: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0080

2775: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-08", AFT 29'-05'. Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0081

2776: The lubber's line of a magnetic compass __________.

2777: The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________.

2778: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 17.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 75° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.5 feet off the centerline.

2779: Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by __________.

2780: The carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154 must be approved by the __________.

2781: For a floating MODU, the center of flotation is the point in the waterplane __________.

2782: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 22.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 20° inclination.

2783: The angle of loll is a stability term which applies to a floating MODU with __________.

2784: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.

2785: The intact volume above the waterline of a floating MODU is __________.

2786: Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. This includes __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2787: You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached?

2788: Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG?

2789: As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2790: The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is __________.

2791: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

2792: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-01"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 35° inclination.

2793: The mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.

2794: Which would influence a magnetic compass?

2795: The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.

2796: On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________.

2797: A semisubmersible with a positive GM, and TCG located starboard of the centerline, inclines to an angle of __________.

2798: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.9 foot off the centerline.

2799: One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas is __________.

2800: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 8° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2801: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?

2802: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 15'-09"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2.0 feet off the centerline.

2803: When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________.

2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline.

2805: A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.

2806: A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.

2807: A vessel heading SSW is on a course of __________.

2810: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 6° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-05". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2811: A vessel heading SW is on a course of __________.

2812: What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT?

2813: A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.

2814: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-08"; and the KG is 20.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 45° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.2 feet off the centerline.

2815: A vessel heading WNW is on a course of __________.

2816: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2817: A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.

2818: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 10° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 15'-11", AFT 16'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2819: Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation)

2820: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0082

2821: A vessel heading SE is on a course of __________.

2822: Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water must __________.

2823: A vessel heading ESE is on a course of __________.

2824: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-05"; and the KG is 22.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.9 feet off the centerline.

2826: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

2827: For a floating MODU, true mean draft is always the __________.

2828: On board small passenger vessels, how often shall the Master test the steering gear?

2829: Aboard small passenger vessels the steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and communication system shall be tested by the Master __________.

2830: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 14° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 13'-01", AFT 13'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

2831: A vessel heading ENE is on a course of __________.

2832: Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2833: A vessel heading NE is on a course of __________.

2834: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.4 feet off the centerline.

2835: A vessel heading NNE is on a course of __________.

2836: The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system should be __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2837: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0083

2838: How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2839: What type of cooking equipment may NOT be used aboard vessels subject to The Rules and Regulations for Small Passenger Vessels?

2840: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.2 feet on 9000 tons of displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2841: The distance from the still water level (corrected for tides and storm surge) to the bottom of the hull of a MODU is the __________.

2842: No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard __________.

2843: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

2844: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center.

2845: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0084

2846: A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________.

2847: The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be __________.

2849: A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

2850: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 9000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2851: Kevlar sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.

2852: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.

2853: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a confined space?

2854: The sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-08", AFT 15'-06" and the GM is 4.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 40° inclination.

2855: Deficient oxygen content inside a confined space can be detected with __________.

2856: Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board?

2858: A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least __________.

2859: For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise, or Great Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry in a portable watertight container at or near the operating station __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2860: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2861: What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot towing vessel having a fixed fire system on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2862: A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats.(small passenger vessel regulations)

2863: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hot work before sailing. Which statement is TRUE?

2864: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-08", AFT 23'-04" and the GM is 4.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 20° inclination.

2865: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

2866: If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2867: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for amidships is __________.

2868: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-06", AFT 17'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0085

2869: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.

2870: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.4 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2871: As shown, the symbol 3 represents __________. (D041DG )

 2872: A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is the correct location of the shutdown station?

2873: As shown, the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made is __________. (D041DG )

 2874: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 22° inclination.

2875: The symbol 5 as shown represents __________. (D041DG )

 2876: The minimum number of portable B-II fire extinguishers required in the machinery space of a 199 GT motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P. is __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2877: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars is __________.

2878: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

2879: While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to __________.

2880: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1150 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.0 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2881: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected towing vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2882: Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, the person in charge of the vessel, the owner or the agent should report this to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2883: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.

2884: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-02", AFT 24'-06" and the GM is 2.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available righting arm at 30° inclination.

2885: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts.

2886: A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at least once every __________.

2887: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

2889: Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations)

2890: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 17'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.5 feet) and 475 tons in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2891: The maximum angle at which the intact stability curves are valid for MODU's is the angle for __________.

2892: Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)

2893: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the maximum angle at which __________.

2894: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 25'-02" and the GM is 5.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 18° inclination.

2895: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the minimum angle at which __________.

2896: Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2896: Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2897: If the result of loading a vessel is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.

2898: Painters on life floats shall be not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2899: All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2900: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 17'-00", AFT 17'-04". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 500 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2901: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

2902: Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2903: Life jackets should be marked with the __________.

2904: The sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-03", AFT 25'-03" and the GM is 5.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 30° inclination.

2904: The sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-03", AFT 25'-03" and the GM is 5.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 30° inclination.

2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.

2906: Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2907: The number of kips necessary to change the true mean draft of a MODU one inch is known as __________.

2908: How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard license be renewed without retaking the complete exam?

2909: Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________.

2910: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.5 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2911: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

2912: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0086

2913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-09.5", AFT 22'-09.5". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0087

2914: The sailing drafts are: FWD 25'-03", AFT 26'-03" and the GM is 3.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 25° inclination.

2915: A MODU lists and trims about the __________.

2916: What is the minimum number of B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required on board a 105 GT towboat with a 7500 B.H.P. plant (including the machinery space)? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2917: For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.

2918: Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100°F? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2919: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

2920: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

2922: Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2923: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0088

2924: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09".

2925: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.

2926: The sailing drafts are: FWD 16'-06", AFT 17'-04" and the GM is 2.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 15° inclination.

2927: If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU will __________.

2928: It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2930: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 16'-08". If you then load 1225 tons of cargo in the lower hold (VCG 12 feet) and 875 tons of cargo in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.

2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2933: Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.

2934: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-04".

2935: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?

2936: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-03", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2 feet off the centerline.

2937: A tank of a MODU with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with sea water weighing 64 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?

2938: What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2939: How many distress flares and smoke signals are small passenger vessels on oceans, coastwise or Great Lakes routes required to carry?

2940: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2941: The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

2942: Vessels in ocean service shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2943: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.

2944: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08".

2945: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.

2946: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.5 feet off the centerline.

2947: A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.

2948: Licenses are issued for __________.

2949: Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2950: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.0 feet) and take on 600 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2951: A jack-up displacing 350,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.

2952: Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil?

2953: When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.

2954: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank (capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.

2956: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-10.6", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0089

2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.

2958: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.

2959: Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?

2961: The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2962: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0090

2963: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

2964: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03".

2965: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

2966: Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2967: When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.

2968: Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2969: All inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline shall have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2970: An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________.

2972: Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

2974: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-07".

2975: A quick and rapid motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.

2976: Aboard small passenger vessels the number of childrens' life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard?

2977: A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

2978: Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2979: Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2981: The center of gravity of a freely swinging load suspended from a pedestal crane acts as if it were located at the __________.

2982: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0091

2983: The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the __________.

2984: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-10" and the GM is 4.6 feet. What will be the angle of list if #6 starboard double bottom (capacity 95 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 21 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2985: For a MODU with list, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.

2986: What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?

2987: For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.

2988: No person whose license has been revoked shall be issued another license except upon __________.

2989: When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations)

2990: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 30'-08". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0092

2992: A 98 GT uninspected towing vessel with a 1500 B.H.P. engine capability would be required to carry how many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2993: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

2994: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity 201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

2996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0093

2998: The minimum amount of lifesaving equipment required aboard an 85-foot uninspected towing vessel consists of __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

2999: The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless __________.

3000: A rigid lifesaving device ONLY designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is known as a __________.

3001: Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?

3002: A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3003: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

3004: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 23.7 feet and the drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 28'-06".

3005: All vessels having a Certificate of Inspection and operating exclusively in salt water shall be dry-docked or hauled out __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0094

3007: A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.

3008: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0095

3009: Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3010: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0096

3011: A semisubmersible which will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard is likely to have __________.

3012: You are on the cargo vessel represented in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book. Your present KG is 22.3 feet and the drafts are FWD 21'-07", AFT 22'-05". The following cargo must be loaded: (1) 1120 tons, KG 33 feet; (2) 990 tons, KG 25 feet. How many tons of deck cargo with a KG of 47 feet may be loaded if the ship is to sail with a GM of not less than 2.1 feet and not exceed the freeboard draft?

3013: Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.

3014: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 19'-05", AFT 20'-01".

3015: An inclined semisubmersible with a very short rolling period about a constant angle of list is likely to have __________.

3016: Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months?

3017: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft trim angles is likely to have __________.

3018: Each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3019: All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3021: A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have __________.

3022: Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3023: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to have __________.

3024: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-05" and the GM is 3.4 feet. What will be the angle of list if #4 port double bottom (capacity 140 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 26 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3025: A semisubmersible with a negative GM flops to an angle of __________.

3026: Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3027: If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.

3028: While serving as Master on board your vessel, your license must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3030: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0097

3031: The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when __________.

3032: Controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system shall be mounted __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

3034: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0 feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity 195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3035: The external inflation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

3036: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0098

3037: An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.

3038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0099

3039: What is a requirement for remote manual shutdown stations for internal combustion engine driven cargo pumps on tank barges?

3040: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-10". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3041: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

3042: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0100

3043: Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?

3044: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-00".

3045: You are testing the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken?

3046: How long is the Certificate of Inspection issued to a 50 gross ton, passenger carrying vessel which is 60 feet (18 meters) in length valid? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3047: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

3048: What is required for a dry exhaust pipe? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3050: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3051: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

3052: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger vessel?

3053: On an OSV, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life jacket?

3054: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom (capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3055: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?

3056: The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to a period of __________.

3057: Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be __________.

3058: Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3059: How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry?

3060: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3061: When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should __________.

3062: The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3063: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?

3064: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 19'-07" and the GM is 4.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if #2 starboard double bottom (capacity 78 tons, VCG 2.7 feet, and 24.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3065: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

3066: Prior to getting underway for the day's operations, every small passenger vessel shall have it's steering gear tested by __________.

3067: The canopy of your liferaft should __________.

3069: Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" applied to a vessel's equipment, means approved by the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3070: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 12'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3071: The free surface effects of a partially-full tank in a floating MODU increase with the __________.

3072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0101

3073: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0102

3074: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom (capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

3075: Although KG for a MODU in lightweight is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________.

3076: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0103

3077: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a MODU is to determine the __________.

3078: If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.

3080: When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required?

3081: A person who observes an individual fall overboard from an OSV should __________.

3082: On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be __________.

3083: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0104

3084: All life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be clearly and legibly marked or painted with the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3085: The vertical distance between G and M of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.

3086: Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the pilothouse?

3088: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.

3089: What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge?

3090: Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?

3091: When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?

3092: Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges?

3093: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 150 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.

3094: A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of __________.

3095: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.

3096: The shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank space __________.

3097: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.

3098: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN).

3099: Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank barge?

3100: Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge __________.

3101: Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.

3102: Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.

3104: An emergency check-off list is required on vessels carrying six or fewer passengers for hire. The list must contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3105: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.

3106: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0105

3107: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects from the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a MODU yields __________.

3108: A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.

3109: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0106

3110: When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.

3112: An 85 foot uninspected towing vessel with a crew of ten (10) persons on board must carry at LEAST __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3113: For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.

3115: For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes __________.

3116: According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.

3117: For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an increase in GML causes __________.

3118: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.72 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0107

3119: Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a height of not more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3120: Before issuing an initial Certificate of Inspection, the construction arrangement and equipment of a vessel must be acceptable to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3121: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

3122: All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3123: You are monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your vessel, TEXAS PRIDE. What is the proper way to answer this call?

3124: On a life float or buoyant apparatus, the life line is __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3125: The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.

3126: A cargo information card does NOT contain __________.

3127: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.

3128: You are Master of a 20-ton ketch. You wish to heave-to on the starboard tack in 35 knots of wind. Which action would be appropriate?

3129: If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

3130: What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3131: Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.

3132: If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

3133: The stability which exists after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called __________.

3134: Which is a B-II fire extinguisher? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3135: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

3136: Where should the tops of vents from gasoline tanks terminate?

3137: With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the preservation of __________.

3138: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

3139: Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________.

3140: Hatches on small passenger vessels operating on exposed waters and exposed to the weather __________.

3141: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0108

3142: In the machinery space of all uninspected motor vessels, there must be one type B-II hand portable fire extinguisher for every __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3143: The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________.

3144: On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the releasing lever releases __________.

3145: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

3146: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6048 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.89 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0109

3147: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

3148: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 29'-06", AFT 29'-02". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0110

3149: To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should __________.

3150: Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3151: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

3152: U. S. Coast Guard approved work vests may be substituted life jackets __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3153: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the port aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

3154: How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3155: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.

3156: Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include __________.

3157: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.

3158: Electric generators can be protected against overload __________.

3159: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

3160: Fixed ballast, if used, may be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3161: The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.

3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3163: A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.

3164: When discharging cargo from a tank barge, in which case may the cargo pass through or over the towing vessel?

3165: The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank of a MODU should be removed in case it is decided to __________.

3166: You are underway with a tow consisting of six barges containing hazardous chemicals. Which statement is FALSE concerning a cargo information card?

3167: Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers __________.

3168: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6080 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0111

3169: Which license or document enable a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge which is transferring cargo?

3170: What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3171: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

3172: Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________.

3173: What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?

3174: What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?

3175: The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?

3176: The tops of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate __________.

3177: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0112

3178: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

3179: What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank barges?

3181: Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________.

3182: What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot motorboat having a fixed fire system on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3183: The order of importance in addressing damage control on a MODU is __________.

3184: The center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.

3185: Control of flooding on a MODU should be addressed __________.

3186: Using a sea anchor will __________.

3187: Repair of vital machinery and services on a MODU should be accomplished __________.

3188: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.

3189: If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.

3191: To assess the potential for progressive flooding aboard a damaged MODU, you must know the __________.

3192: Which statement is FALSE concerning the use of approved buoyant work vests on board uninspected towboats? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3193: Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.

3194: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?

3195: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0113

3196: What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?

3197: The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.

3198: Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted as high above the bilges as possible to __________.

3199: You are towing a 1,000 GT gasoline tank barge which is not gas free. By regulation, cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may __________.

3200: Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3201: The stamped full weight of a 100-lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged?

3202: Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3203: The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on __________.

3204: In accordance with SOLAS, the batteries that power interior lighting in inflatable liferafts can be made to last longer by __________.

3205: On a sailing vessel, it is best to approach a person in the water by placing them on your __________.

3206: Your tow contains a barge carrying carbon tetrachloride. What is NOT required?

3207: The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft operate __________.

3208: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________.

3209: In the illustration shown, the floating sheath knife is indicated as item number __________. (D014SA )

 3210: On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump shall have a minimum pumping capacity of __________.

3211: What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?

3212: Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that __________.

3213: A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is __________.

3214: What does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3215: The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

3216: Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate __________.

3217: Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?

3218: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 3 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

3219: The final inspection responsibility for seeing that a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo rests with the __________.

3220: All vessels not required to have a power driven fire pump shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3221: A MODU with a displacement of 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. A load of 300 kips is shifted from a VCG of 100 feet to a VCG of 10 feet. How far does the KG move?

3223: After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________.

3225: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-05", AFT 20'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0114

3226: The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer reads __________.

3227: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 18,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 80 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

3228: A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to __________.

3229: The engine head, block, and exhaust manifold shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3230: Which statement is TRUE concerning a power driven fire pump on board a small passenger vessel?

3231: A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft __________.

3232: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests aboard a vessel? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3234: The abandon ship signal is __________.

3235: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.

3236: While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.

3237: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.

3238: During fueling, all doors, hatches, and ports __________.

3239: Your tow includes a loaded chlorine barge. After inspecting the tow, the mate reports that he hears a hissing sound coming from the safety valves. Where will you find information on emergency procedures concerning the uncontrolled release of cargo?

3240: When a vessel is required to have a power-driven fire pump, the pump may also be used for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3241: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 45 feet and total vertical moments of 981,567 ft-long tons, floods 2068.7 long tons of sea water through the overboard discharge into tanks 3 and 8 on both sides. The VCG of the added ballast is 7.22 feet. The shift in the height of the center of gravity is __________.

3242: A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3243: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

3244: A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge?

3245: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0115

3246: A loaded hopper barge with independent tanks has a placard, with alternating red and white quadrants, on each side and end. Which statement concerning this barge is TRUE?

3247: A semisubmersible with displacement of 19,700 long tons and KG of 50.96 feet loads 300 long tons of barite into P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?

3249: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0116

3250: Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel?

3251: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.

3252: Before any machinery is put in operation, you should __________.

3253: A semisubmersible displacing 17,600 long tons has an LCG 3.2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded into P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

3254: All uninspected motor vessels constructed after 25 April 1940, which use fuel with a flash point of 110°F (43°C) or less, shall have at least what number of ventilator ducts for the removal of explosive or flammable gases from every engine and fuel tank compartment? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3255: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is added at a VCG of 10 feet. What is the change in KG?

3256: Gasoline vapor tends to collect __________.

3257: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is discharged from a height of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?

3258: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 24'-10"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

3259: Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?

3260: A length of fire hose shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3261: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. What is the change in KG?

3263: What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?

3264: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

3265: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. Ballast added to maintain draft has a VCG of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?

3266: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0117

3267: A MODU displacing 30,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?

3268: Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because __________.

3269: What is the purpose of the liferaft's hydrostatic release?

3270: Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel?

3271: A MODU displacing 29,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?

3272: Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)

3273: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 long tons and a KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?

3274: Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are __________.

3275: Your present displacement is 15,000 short tons. The KG at this displacement is 60 feet. 100 short tons of casing are added at a VCG of 75 feet for an ocean tow. What is the new KG?

3276: While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.

3277: When starting a long ocean tow at a displacement of 18,000 short tons and a KG of 70 feet, you dump 100 short tons of water which had a VCG of 88 feet. What is the new KG?

3278: Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.

3279: You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that __________.

3280: Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3281: Preparing to move on a location, you find that you must remove 450 tons of drill water, with a VCG of 8 feet, to enable you to meet the draft limitations. You started with a displacement of 17,000 tons and a KG of 69 feet. What is the KG after pumping out the drill water?

3282: What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry grade B petroleum products?

3283: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

3284: Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3285: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0118

3286: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0119

3287: A vessel displacing 18,000 tons has a KG of 50 feet. A crane is used to lift cargo weighing 20 long tons from a supply vessel. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 150 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?

3289: A warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship by hoisting __________.

3290: On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3291: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 18,117.7 long tons and a KG of 52.0 feet discharges 200 long tons from a KG of 130 feet. To remain at draft, ballast is added at a height of 10 feet. What is the change in KG?

3292: Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to __________.

3293: Your sailing vessel is docked during a storm and is in continuous motion. If a mooring line parts due to vessel motion, it will most likely do so __________.

3294: What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release?

3295: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 20,000 long tons. She has vertical moments of 1,000,000 foot-long tons. What is the new KG if 300 long tons are added at a VCG of 50 feet?

3296: Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?

3297: A floating MODU displacing 20,000 long tons with a VCG of 50 feet loads 100 long tons at 100 feet above the baseline and 200 long tons at 130 feet above the baseline. What is the new KG?

3298: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 2, 6, & 10, while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)

3299: Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo?

3300: How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel?

3301: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

3302: What is the minimum number of Type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required to be aboard a 3,000 BHP, 99 GT harbor tug? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3303: Your fireman's outfit includes a(n) __________.

3304: If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________.

3305: The height of the transverse metacenter for a MODU is 62.44 feet. The height of the center of gravity is 56.10 feet, and the transverse free surface correction is 1.21 feet. What is the value of the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?

3306: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0120

3307: You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure this?

3308: The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open is to __________.

3309: The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.

3310: Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash point of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3311: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0121

3312: By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3313: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to __________.

3314: Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3315: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0122

3316: When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?

3317: You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

3318: You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. You should FIRST __________.

3319: If you have a liquefied flammable gas barge in tow, which is NOT required of you with respect to the barge and its cargo?

3320: If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3321: A semisubmersible displacing 18,000 long tons has an LCG 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

3322: If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3323: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 foot to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded in P-tanks located 50 feet starboard to the centerline. What is the new TCG?

3324: How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free?

3325: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

3326: The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.

3327: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 20,000 long tons. LCB is 3.0 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 40 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

3328: A barge displaying a 2' X 3' white sign with the word "WARNING" followed by "DANGEROUS CARGO" in black letters __________.

3329: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

3330: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3331: The stability which remains after a compartment is flooded is called __________.

3332: When fueling has been completed __________.

3333: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-06", AFT 21'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0123

3334: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

3335: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.

3336: Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?

3337: Aboard a MODU, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.

3338: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

3339: What is acceptable flame screening?

3341: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.

3342: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected motor vessel with 1,400 BHP? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3343: The righting moment created by a MODU that displaces 15,000 tons with a righting arm (GZ) of 0.02 foot is __________.

3345: When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.

3346: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. Which action occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

3347: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of the righting moment?

3348: Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber is ignited by __________.

3349: Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine?

3350: Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations)

3351: In good weather, you should deploy the sea anchor from the liferaft to __________.

3352: Which personal lifesaving device(s) is(are) approved for use on a towboat 150 feet in length? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3353: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

3354: Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.

3355: The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.

3356: The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement?

3357: What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?

3358: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.

3359: You are making tow. A loaded, open-hopper barge with independent tanks has placards, with alternating red and white quadrants, located at each side and end. You inspect the barge and find slight traces of water in the wing voids due to condensation. What should you do?

3360: The premixed foam agent in fixed and semiportable fire extinguishing systems should be replaced __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3361: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.

3363: What must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?

3364: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0124

3365: What is the correct procedure to follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an OSV?

3366: An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container, attached to the ship by its painter, as the ship is sinking rapidly. Which action should be taken with respect to the liferaft container?

3367: After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.

3368: Your tow includes a barge carrying chlorine. Which special requirements must be observed?

3369: Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046°T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications?

3370: The carbon dioxide cylinders of all fixed fire extinguishing systems shall be retested and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3371: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

3372: Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?

3373: The DEEP DRILLER at survival draft loads 2,068.1 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

3374: What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3375: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet discharges 1,792.44 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

3376: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are _____________,

3377: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet loads 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

3378: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 1 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)

3379: Where should a tank barge's Certificate of Inspection be kept?

3380: At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

3381: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?

3382: A 6,000 BHP, 199 GT tug operating on the Great Lakes is required to carry how many B-II extinguishers? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

3383: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 45 feet, has a three-foot trim by the stern and a two-foot list to port. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?

3384: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4236 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.2 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0125

3385: A jack-up, 180 feet in length, has the center of flotation at 110 feet aft of frame zero. The draft at the bow is 11.0 feet and the draft at the stern is 13.0 feet. What is the true mean draft?

3386: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

3387: A semisubmersible records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the mean draft?

3388: A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________.

3389: The draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 23'-06" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.

3390: Non-required lifesaving equipment carried as additional equipment aboard small passenger vessels __________.

3391: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-9"; Port Aft 68'-9"; Starboard Forward 59'-9"; and Starboard Aft 63'-9". What is the true mean draft?

3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0126

3393: A semisubmersible with a TPI of 11.25 long tons per inch discharges 270 long tons from amidships. What is the new mean draft if the original drafts were: Port Forward 69.5 feet; Port Aft 68.5 feet; Starboard Forward 71.5 feet; Starboard Aft 70.5 feet?

3394: The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.

3395: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the mean draft?

3396: On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________.

3397: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the true mean draft (draft at the center of flotation)?

3398: Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?

3399: Which sizes of fire extinguishers are considered to be semi-portable? (Uninspected vessel regulations)

3400: How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3401: While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea?

3402: A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. You should __________.

3403: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The draft at the center of flotation is __________.

3404: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

3405: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. If the draft at the forward draft marks is 8.0 feet, the draft at the after draft marks is __________.

3406: After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, the liferaft is inflated by __________.

3407: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

3408: As shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

 3409: To launch a liferaft by hand, you should __________.

3410: How should the letter "I" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3411: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0127

3412: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch.

3413: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 61.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG?

3414: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________.

3415: A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same affect on stability as __________.

3416: The instructions for the launching of lifeboats and liferafts must be approved by the __________.

3417: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

3418: Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for __________.

3419: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 35 lbs.

3420: How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3421: In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.

3423: What is the trim of a jack-up with forward draft of 11 feet and aft draft of 13.75 feet?

3424: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0128

3425: What is the trim of a jack-up with a forward draft of 12 feet and an after draft of 13 feet?

3426: In illustration D011SA, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

 3427: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim?

3428: Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently displayed?

3429: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 37.6 lbs.

3430: How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3431: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet?

3432: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0129

3433: An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard ship by using __________.

3434: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4260 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0130

3435: Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________.

3436: After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by __________.

3437: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the trim by the stern?

3438: Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship, you would use the __________.

3439: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.

3440: How should the number "7" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3441: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the trim?

3442: When hanging off drill pipe in emergency situations aboard a MODU, the preferred location of the drill bit is __________.

3443: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGT of 57.11 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port. What is the list angle?

3444: The nautical term "lee shore" refers to the __________.

3445: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 55 feet, has a KGT of 53.05 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to starboard. What is the list angle?

3446: To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.

3447: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the list?

3448: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3485 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 24.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0131

3449: How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?

3450: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?

3451: As shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

 3452: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 29'-05", AFT 30'-07". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 540 long tons are loaded in No. 18 hatch.

3453: Your rescue craft is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

3454: A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes?

3455: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the list?

3456: When a sea anchor for a survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.

3457: Using a sea anchor will __________.

3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.

3459: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs.

3460: How should the letter "T" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3461: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface correction is __________.

3462: A rigid lifesaving device only designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is known as a __________.

3463: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

3464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3175 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0132

3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.

3466: A sea anchor is __________.

3467: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using __________.

3468: Handholds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.

3469: The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

3470: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?

3471: Every fishing vessel required to have a general alarm system must test it __________.

3472: If you find an inflatable liferaft container with the steel bands still in place around its case, you should __________.

3473: In each inflatable rescue boat, what piece of equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a large hole in a raft?

3475: What is the increase in the longitudinal free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

3477: What is the increase in the transverse free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

3478: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.

3479: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.

3480: How should the number "6" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3481: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 Drill Water Tanks are discharged, what is the new longitudinal free surface correction?

3482: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0133

3483: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 Drill Water Tanks are discharged, what is the new transverse free surface correction?

3484: Your 80-ton schooner is hove to on the starboard tack under storm trysail and fore-staysail in 45 knots of wind. Your heading is averaging about 000° true and the wind is from the northeast. There is a dangerous shoal bearing 270° true, range 5 miles. Which action would be appropriate?

3485: In the event the motion of the DEEP DRILLER is such that critical motion limits are exceeded, you should __________.

3487: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?

3488: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

3489: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.

3490: According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?

3491: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2S and 3S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

3492: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-03", AFT 18'-09". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the new draft if 450 long tons are loaded in No. 16 hatch.

3493: The longitudinal distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

3494: A passenger vessel in river service which operates in fresh water at least 6 out of every 12 months since the last dry dock examination must be dry-docked at intervals not to exceed __________.

3495: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-06". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0134

3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?

3497: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?

3498: Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys required for the vessel is __________.

3500: How should the letter "Z" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3501: The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum water depth of __________.

3502: How many self-contained breathing apparati are required aboard a 500 ton passenger vessel in river service with 75 passenger staterooms?

3503: The transverse distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

3504: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 6280 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0135

3505: The lightweight vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

3506: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.2'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

3507: The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

3508: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

3509: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 30'-01" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.

3510: When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure?

3511: The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

3512: You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should you do?

3513: The lightweight transverse free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

3514: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0136

3515: The lightweight longitudinal free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

3516: Drinking salt water will __________.

3517: What is the lightweight of the DEEP DRILLER?

3518: The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?

3519: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the ending, and the __________.

3520: How should the number "5" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3521: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

3522: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 23'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.8'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

3523: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

3524: Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.

3525: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the __________.

3527: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

3528: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0137

3529: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0138

3531: The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is __________.

3532: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch.

3533: If the maximum amount of weight is stored in the pipe racks of the DEEP DRILLER, what is the weight per square foot?

3534: When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT required to show information on the __________.

3535: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the ball joint angle will exceed 10° or the mooring line tensions will exceed __________.

3536: There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________.

3537: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed __________.

3538: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 100.7 tons of seawater.

3539: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.

3540: How should the letter "R" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3541: The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum drilling depth of __________.

3542: An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board. Which signal should you make?

3543: The DEEP DRILLER's lightweight is the condition prior to loading __________.

3544: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the text, and the __________.

3545: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and center of gravity locations for the changes to lightweight shown in the permanent record for the Deep Driller are treated as __________.

3546: According to the regulations for passenger vessels, a "motor vessel" is one which is propelled by machinery other than steam and is more than __________.

3547: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0139

3548: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 26'-06", AFT 28'-02". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 2.7' to 2.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

3549: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-10", AFT 18'-06". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0140

3551: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

3552: You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?

3553: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG while drilling?

3554: You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?

3555: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are greater than 70 knots?

3556: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.

3557: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are less than 70 knots?

3558: Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________.

3559: The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a __________.

3560: How should the number "4" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3561: The DEEP DRILLER is operating with KGL at the maximum allowable value (70 knots) at a 60 feet draft. What is the value of GML?

3562: The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________.

3563: Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGL is 1.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GML?

3564: The sea painter of a rescue boat should be led __________.

3565: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are less than 70 knots?

3566: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.

3567: What are the maximum vertical moments including free surface moments permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are greater than 70 knots?

3569: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should __________.

3570: How many means of escape must be provided from passenger areas on a passenger vessel of 500 GT?

3571: The DEEP DRILLER is anchoring in 600 feet of water. In the absence of environmental forces, the mooring lines should be adjusted to __________.

3572: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 25'-04", AFT 24'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 634 long tons are discharged from NO. 19 hatch.

3573: The DEEP DRILLER in transit is level at 23.0 feet draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determines that the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. What is the value of the wind heeling moment?

3574: How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes?

3575: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 65.00 feet. What is the GML?

3576: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0141

3577: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude rolls of 10° with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________.

3578: The "call" part of a signal by flashing light is made by the general call or by __________.

3579: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs.

3580: How should the letter "V" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3581: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 58 feet, has VM of 900,000 ft-tons, and FSMT of 20,000 ft-tons. What is the KGT?

3582: You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take?

3583: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0142

3585: When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach with the wind __________.

3586: A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make____________________.

3587: A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make____________________.

3588: For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched with their assigned crew __________.

3590: The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n) __________.

3591: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the starboard drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the port drafts is 61.0 feet. KGT is 52.84 feet. What is the value of TCG?

3592: When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning an OSV?

3593: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of LCG?

3594: After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should __________.

3595: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of TCG?

3596: The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.

3597: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 52.90 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. List is 2.0 feet to port. What is the value of TCG?

3598: If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to __________.

3599: What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if you are in a lifeboat during storm conditions?

3600: How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3601: For the DEEP DRILLER, the maximum permissible offset which can be tolerated while drilling is __________.

3602: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 25'-06". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

3603: While anchored in 600 feet water depth, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #8. Tension on that line is 220 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?

3604: You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?

3605: While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4. Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?

3606: Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?

3607: With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is __________.

3608: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

3609: General arrangement plans shall be permanently exhibited on all passenger vessels of at least __________.

3610: A passenger vessel is underway. When may passengers visit the pilothouse?

3611: Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.

3612: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch.

3613: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

3614: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

3615: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #3 is 200 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?

3616: Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?

3617: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The average line tension is 190 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?

3618: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 81.05 tons of seawater.

3620: How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3621: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The average tension on the mooring lines is 200 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?

3622: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0143

3623: You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.

3624: What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light?

3625: The DEEP DRILLER is on location during a storm. Windward anchor tensions begin to exceed the test tensions. To reduce tensions while minimizing offset over the well, you should __________.

3626: When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________.

3627: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling on location at a 60 foot draft. Waves are approaching within 2 feet of the underside of the spider deck. You should __________.

3628: Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.

3628: Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.

3629: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a rescue boat, the other individuals in the boat should __________.

3630: A passenger vessel is required to have a supervised patrol when __________.

3631: During an ice storm on board the DEEP DRILLER, the rig is uniformly covered with 414 tons of ice. At the beginning of the storm the rig was at 45 foot draft. After the storm the rig was at a 48 foot draft. Assume a KG of 127 feet for the new ice and an original KG of 58 feet. What is the new KG of the DEEP DRILLER?

3632: When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should activate the signal __________.

3633: The KG of the DEEP DRILLER increases from 57 feet to 59 feet while drilling at a 60 foot draft during an ice storm. What action should be taken?

3634: You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?

3635: For the DEEP DRILLER, in deballasting to survival draft when threatened with heavy weather from 100 knot winds, a load form should be calculated to determine that __________.

3636: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0144

3637: In anticipation of heavy weather, it is decided to deballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft. The marine riser should be disconnected, pulled, and laid down. After doing so, the riser tension will be __________.

3638: When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should activate the signal __________.

3639: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?

3640: How should the number "2" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3641: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

3642: When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?

3643: Under extremely heavy weather on the DEEP DRILLER, when operating conditions are too severe to permit the drill string from being tripped out of the hole and laid down in the pipe racks, it may be __________.

3644: When should distress flares and rockets be used?

3645: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.

3646: One of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention is a/an __________.

3647: A distress signal __________.

3648: All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT __________.

3649: A man aboard a vessel, signaling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side, is indicating __________.

3650: If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least once __________.

3651: Distress signals may be __________.

3652: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-04", AFT 18'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 765 long tons are discharged from No. 7 hatch.

3653: When a vessel signals her distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at intervals of approximately __________.

3654: You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?

3655: You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by __________.

3657: For planning purposes, the time required to place the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft from the drilling mode to counter heavy weather is __________.

3658: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0145

3659: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 43 lbs.

3660: How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

3661: Under ideal conditions, the DEEP DRILLER can pick up and place pipe in the rack at a rate of about __________.

3662: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-00", AFT 25'-08". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.1'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

3663: Before deballasting to survival draft in the event of predicted heavy weather, the DEEP DRILLER Operations Manual recommends that the mooring lines be slacked __________.

3664: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101.6 tons of seawater.

3665: The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened with heavy weather, while under tow, is about __________.

3665: The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened with heavy weather, while under tow, is about __________.

3666: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.

3667: The principal action in changing from transit to survival draft in the event heavy weather threatens is __________.

3668: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0146

3669: The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.

3670: On a passenger vessel with stateroom accommodations, which space would NOT be required to be checked by the patrol between 10 pm and 6 am?

3671: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

3672: Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?

3673: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

3674: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?

3675: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2P and 3P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

3676: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

3677: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 8S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

3678: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?

3679: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

3680: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.

3681: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 8P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

3682: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?

3683: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. What might have caused the inclination?

3684: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.

3685: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

3686: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.

3687: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

3688: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?

3689: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.

3690: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

3691: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

3692: Before CPR is started, you should __________.

3693: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

3694: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.

3695: In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be __________.

3696: The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________.

3697: In storm conditions, when slacking the leeward mooring lines of the DEEP DRILLER, maintain in the chain locker at least __________.

3698: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?

3700: Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________.

3701: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the rise in the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

3702: You may have to give artificial respiration after an accidental __________.

3703: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

3704: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.

3705: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the margin on maximum allowable KG?

3706: You are in charge of a fishing vessel with 18 individuals on board. You are required to conduct drills and give safety instruction at least once __________.

3707: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new draft?

3708: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.

3709: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.

3710: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

3710: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

3711: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.

3712: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth to mouth ventilation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.

3713: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface corrections is __________.

3714: If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should __________.

3715: The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's __________.

3716: In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim, __________.

3717: During the passage of a severe storm, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determined that, although the unit is level, the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. The value of the wind heeling moment is __________.

3718: Treatments of heat exhaustion consist of __________.

3719: Symptoms of heat stroke are __________.

3723: A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be __________.

3724: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.

3725: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.

3726: Treatment of frostbite includes __________.

3727: The DEEP DRILLER is engaged in wire line logging. You have 10,000 feet of drill pipe and bottom hole assembly in the set back. Marine weather forecasts are predicting weather with winds in excess of 70 knots. Your first step to prepare for the storm should be to __________.

3728: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?

3729: A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________.

3730: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.

3731: If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to __________.

3732: Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________.

3733: In the event of damage to the DEEP DRILLER which results in flooding to one of the lower-hull tanks, pump from __________.

3734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

3735: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

3736: The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.

3737: The most important consideration in the event the Deep Driller suffers damage is __________.

3738: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

3739: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?

3740: The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is __________.

3741: Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGT is 3.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GMT?

3742: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.

3743: An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

3744: Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?

3745: In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?

3746: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

3747: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

3748: A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should __________.

3749: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________.

3750: While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.

3751: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.

3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

3753: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

3754: First aid means __________.

3755: To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.

3756: Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________.

3757: What are the symptoms of sun stroke?

3758: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.

3759: Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

3760: Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.

3761: Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.

3762: The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.

3763: What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?

3764: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

3765: When administering first aid you should avoid __________.

3766: The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

3767: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.

3768: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

3769: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.

3770: The abandon ship signal is __________.

3771: What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P?

3772: The abandon ship signal sounded by the vessel's whistle is __________.

3773: What is the ullage in P-Tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the weight is 75.24 long tons?

3774: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

3775: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this amount of fuel?

3776: If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it will __________.

3777: What is the weight of cement in P-tank #1 of the Deep Driller if the ullage is 3.4 feet?

3777: What is the weight of cement in P-tank #1 of the Deep Driller if the ullage is 3.4 feet?

3778: When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________.

3779: If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, __________.

3780: One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.

3781: What is the weight of barite in P-tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 3.4 feet?

3782: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure should be used during a prolonged period in a liferaft?

3783: What is the weight of bulk in P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

3785: What are the vertical moments for P-Tank #1 on the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 3.0 feet?

3786: When using the rainwater collection tubes of a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be __________.

3787: What is the VCG for the cement in P-Tank #1 on the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 6.4 feet?

3788: When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells, you __________.

3789: The signal for a fire emergency on an OSV is __________.

3790: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm bell bells" is the signal for __________.

3791: What is the VCG of the additional load if P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled ?

3792: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0147

3793: When the ullage is 6.4 feet in P-Tank #5 for the Deep Driller, what is the value of the longitudinal moment?

3794: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.

3795: When the ullage is 5.7 feet in P-Tank #6 for the Deep Driller, the transverse moment for P-Tank #6 is __________.

3796: Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?

3797: What are the longitudinal moments for the contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

3799: With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the correct posture should include __________.

3800: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

3801: What are the vertical moments for the cement contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

3803: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the transverse moments for a sounding of 5 feet in tank C3P?

3804: All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.

3805: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the longitudinal moments for a sounding of 15 feet in tank C3P?

3806: A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

3807: For the DEEP DRILLER, What are the vertical moments for a sounding of 10 feet in tank C3P?

3809: Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?

3810: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival craft, you should __________.

3811: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this amount of fuel?

3812: If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________.

3813: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the vertical moments for this quantity of ballast?

3814: If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________.

3815: Among the valves to open when deballasting using tanks 1P and 10P of the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

3816: When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should __________.

3817: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?

3818: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no rescue craft is in sight, they should __________.

3819: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.

3820: Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include __________.

3821: What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?

3822: In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________.

3823: What is the change in vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?

3824: After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.

3825: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

3826: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or survival craft. How much water per day should you permit each person to have after the first 24 hours?

3827: What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

3829: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.

3830: Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U. S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________.

3831: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.

3832: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0148

3833: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.

3835: What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1P on the DEEP DRILLER, using the Port #1 ballast pump?

3837: What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10P on the DEEP DRILLER using the Port #1 ballast pump?

3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

3840: The painter of the inflatable liferaft has a length of __________.

3841: What is the change in the vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 3P to an empty ballast tank 10P?

3842: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.

3843: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this quantity of ballast?

3845: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 1S to Tank 10P using the #1 ballast pump is valve __________.

3847: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10S to Tank 1P using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.

3848: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replacement power source must be replaced __________.

3849: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.

3850: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.

3851: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.

3852: The light on a personal flotation device on an OSV must be replaced __________.

3853: Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________.

3854: According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________.

3855: Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?

3856: The immersion suit requirements for OSV apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean __________.

3857: Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?

3858: Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be __________.

3859: When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?

3860: Lifejackets should be stowed in __________.

3861: Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________.

3862: In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.

3863: On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?

3864: Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV, how many must be equipped with a waterlight?

3865: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean service?

3866: Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

3867: Each OSV must carry __________.

3868: The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.

3870: Each EPIRB required on an OSV shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

3871: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the port-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2P is valve __________.

3872: For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________.

3873: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 8S is valve __________.

3875: The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliances is __________.

3876: What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel?

3877: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.

3879: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

3880: The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on an OSV vessel must be stowed __________.

3881: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.

3883: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.

3885: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when flooding through the overboard discharge into ballast tank 1S is valve __________.

3886: Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going OSV carry?

3887: The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.

3888: CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.

3891: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a survival craft?

3892: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

3893: When filling fuel-oil tank 4S on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.

3894: A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry __________.

3895: When filling fuel-oil tank 6P on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.

3896: Life preservers must be marked with the __________.

3897: What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?

3900: The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

3901: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.

3902: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0149

3903: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is __________.

3904: The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.

3905: On the DEEP DRILLER, when using the starboard #2 ballast pump to provide water to the main deck from the sea, it is necessary to open valves __________.

3906: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________.

3907: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________.

3909: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?

3910: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.

3911: For the DEEP DRILLER, it is recommended that the number of lower-hull ballast tanks with free surfaces be less than __________.

3912: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.

3913: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 50,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally?

3914: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.

3915: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 35,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally?

3916: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.

3917: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 3,765 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 1S to level the unit in list?

3917: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 3,765 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 1S to level the unit in list?

3918: If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should FIRST __________.

3920: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

3921: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has -3,600 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 10P and 10S to level the unit in list?

3922: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

3923: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the #1 bilge pump is valve __________.

3924: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.

3925: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve __________.

3926: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

3927: What pump may be used to supplement the bilge pump on the DEEP DRILLER?

3928: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.

3929: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?

3930: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.

3931: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 26 and __________.

3932: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?

3933: On the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to supplement the bilge pumps. Its normal pumping rate is __________.

3934: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0150

3935: To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using the #2 bilge pump, open port-side valve __________.

3936: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

3937: On the DEEP DRILLER, to pump bilge water out of the starboard pump room using both bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves __________.

3938: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?

3939: You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?

3940: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.

3941: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and __________.

3942: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?

3943: On the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 28 and __________.

3944: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

3945: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the bilge pumps take suction from the pump rooms, cofferdam, void area, access trunk, and __________.

3946: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

3947: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

3948: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.

3949: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

3950: You are picking up a conscious person that has fallen overboard. Recovery is easier if you approach with the __________.

3951: All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.

3952: If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

3953: To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down, you should pull on the __________.

3954: The float free link attached to a sea painter on an inflatable liferaft has a breaking strength of __________.

3955: The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________.

3956: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

3957: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed from 8 to 6 feet?

3958: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

3960: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________.

3961: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown is Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the change in vertical moments for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank 5P are transferred to Drill Water Tank 5S?

3962: When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a liferaft?

3963: Salt water ballast tank 2P on the DEEP DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of ballast. It is decided to fill the tank. What is the VCG of the added liquid?

3964: Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.

3965: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse and longitudinal free surface moments for entry into the daily load form are obtained __________.

3966: In the illustration shown, the righting strap is shown as item number __________. (D014SA )

 3967: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. It is decided to fill tank 1P by flooding through the sea chest. What are the vertical moments for the added ballast?

3969: The sea anchor shown as item number 14 will NOT __________. (D014SA )

 3971: What weight is added when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?

3972: The external recognition light can be seem up to two miles and is shown as item number __________. (D014SA )

 3973: What are the additional vertical moments created when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER sample load form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?

3974: In the illustration, the sea anchor is shown as item number_____. (D014SA )

 3975: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new uncorrected KG?

3976: In the illustration, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags? (D014SA )

 3977: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal free surface correction?

3979: In the illustration shown, where would you find the knife? (D014SA )

 3980: In the illustration shown, the pressure relief valve is indicated as item number __________. (D014SA )

 3981: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy?

3982: In the illustration shown, the external lifelines are shown as item number __________. (D014SA )

 3983: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

3984: As shown in the illustration, item #8 would be a(n)______________. (D014SA )

 3985: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity?

3986: A fire is discovered in the bow of your vessel while making way. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

3987: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal metacentric height?

3988: In the illustration shown, the weak link is item number __________. (D015SA )

 3989: Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry at least __________.

3990: What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?

3991: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?

3992: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3300 brake horsepower?

3993: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?

3994: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface due to an emergency condition within the submarine is __________.

3995: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the Stores & Supplies if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?

3996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0151

3997: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?

3999: Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel?

4000: On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________.

4001: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?

4002: A combustible gas indicator will NOT operate correctly when the __________.

4003: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?

4004: To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must __________.

4005: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S?

4006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0152

4007: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S?

4008: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.

4009: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.

4010: A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.

4011: If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you may be imprisoned up to __________.

4012: The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to __________.

4013: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

4014: Towing vessel fire protection regulations apply to vessels operated __________.

4015: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for transverse free surface effects?

4016: Fire protection regulations apply to those towing vessels __________.

4017: Towing vessel fire protection regulations define a "fixed fire-extinguishing system" to include all of the following EXCEPT a _____________ .

4018: Towing vessel fire protection regulations distinguish between "new" and "existing" towing vessels. A "new" towing vessel is one that was __________.

4019: The regulations for a general alarm system on a towing vessel require all of the following EXCEPT that it ___________ .

4020: The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT _____________ .

4021: A towing vessel's fire detection system may be certified to comply with the Coast Guard's towing vessel fire protection regulations by _________ .

4022: Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station?

4023: Which devices may be used as part of an internal communication system on a towing vessel?

4024: In the towing vessel fire protection regulations, all of the following are fire detection requirements, EXCEPT that _____________ .

4025: When is direct voice communication allowed in place of an internal communication system on a towing vessel?

4026: When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to carry portable fuel systems on board?

4027: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM =3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

4028: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow all of these types of fuel piping, EXCEPT ____________ .

4029: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow you to use a nonmetallic flexible hose in fuel line installations under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when ___________ .

4030: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require any fuel line subject to internal head pressure from fuel in the tank to ___________ .

4030: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require any fuel line subject to internal head pressure from fuel in the tank to ___________ .

4031: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?

4032: Towing vessel fire protection regulations require that all fuel tank vent pipes comply with all of the following provisions EXCEPT that the vent _______________ .

4033: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling) discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KG?

4034: When a standard in the fire protection regulations for towing vessels is "incorporated by reference," it means that the __________.

4035: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGL?

4036: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that all crew members participate in drills and receive instruction at least once a month. Who is responsible for ensuring that this takes place?

4037: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGT?

4038: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require all crew members to know how to perform each of these tasks EXCEPT ____________ .

4039: The fire protection regulations for towing vessels require the crew to be trained for fire fighting with drills and safety orientations __________.

4040: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require training in all of the following, EXCEPT _____________ .

4041: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

4042: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 1200 brake horsepower?

4043: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GML?

4044: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

4045: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GMT?

4046: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that drills be conducted on board the vessel as if there were an actual emergency. Drills include all of the following, EXCEPT ____________ .

4047: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the centerline. What is the improvement in KGT?

4048: Fire protection and manning regulations for towing vessels state that the Master or person in charge must ensure that all crew members who have not participated in the drills or received the safety orientation _____________ .

4049: The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged ___________ .

4050: The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged ___________ .

4051: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting list angle?

4052: The test of a towing vessel's steering gear control system includes each item EXCEPT ___________ .

4053: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting trim angle?

4054: Which navigational equipment is required to be tested and logged before a towing vessel embarks on a voyage of more than 24 hours?

4055: In the DEEP DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.

4056: Which installed equipment must be tested and logged when a new Master assumes command?

4057: In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.

4058: When the owner or Master inspects his/her towing vessel before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours, he/she must check all terminal gear EXCEPT ___________ .

4059: What must the owner or Master do if any of the towing vessel's required navigational safety equipment fails during a voyage?

4060: After an item of required safety equipment on a towing vessel fails, the owner or Master must consider all of these factors before continuing the voyage, EXCEPT the ___________ .

4061: In the DEEP DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.

4062: The owner or Master of a towing vessel that is operating within a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) area must report all of the following to VTS as soon as practicable EXCEPT ___________ .

4063: In the DEEP DRILLER, the longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) is obtained from the total of the longitudinal free surface moments (FSML) by __________.

4064: If you are the Master of a towing vessel whose only working radar no longer functions, what must you do?

4065: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse free surface correction (FSCT) is obtained from the total of transverse free surface moments (FSMT) by __________.

4066: The most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns is __________.

4067: The DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). Assume ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?

4068: On board an OSV, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.

4069: In the illustration, the sea anchor is number __________. (D014SA )

 4070: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?

4071: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new LM (longitudinal moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

4073: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new TM (transverse moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

4074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0153

4075: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new vertical moments if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

4076: In the illustration shown, the equipment bags are indicated by item number __________. (D014SA )

 4077: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

4078: When shifting to a course where the wind comes more from astern, easing the mainsheet will __________.

4079: Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be reinspected no later than __________.

4080: On a vessel of 12,500 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 35 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

4081: Visual inspections of survival craft on offshore drilling units, to ensure operational readiness, must be conducted at least once a __________.

4082: A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is ____________ .

4083: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

4084: A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is ____________ .

4085: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?

4087: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KMT = 375.38 feet)

4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?

4089: Which piece of navigational safety equipment is NOT required on towing vessels over 12 meters in length, provided that the vessel remains within the navigable waters of the U.S.?

4090: Which instrument may a towing vessel, engaged in towing exclusively on the Western Rivers, use in place of a magnetic compass?

4091: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of salt water ballast 1anks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KML = 348.58)

4092: On which route is a towing vessel over 39.4 feet in length NOT required to carry an echo-sounding device?

4093: Towing vessels of more than 39.4 feet in length must carry charts or maps _____________ .

4094: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-10.5", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0154

4095: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival). What is the new longitudinal location of the center of buoyancy if all the bulk materials are discharged?

4096: Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning radio equipment on towing vessels of 26 feet or more in length?

4097: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?

4098: Which publication(s) must a towing vessel of 12 meters or more in length carry when operating on US waters other than the Western Rivers?

4101: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the transverse metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?

4102: The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.

4103: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in TCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

4104: The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

4105: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

4106: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

4107: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the VCG of the added liquid if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S?

4108: A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

4109: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?

4110: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?

4111: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

4112: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

4113: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

4114: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0155

4115: The inspection of a 50 ft. vessel of 65 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard once in every __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

4116: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations will you find the answer?

4117: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?

4119: A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, you should __________.

4120: Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?

4121: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the weight of the missing load?

4122: Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?

4123: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?

4124: Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?

4125: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moment 51,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load?

4126: Using sheet 25 in the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.

4127: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?

4129: Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless __________.

4131: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), a severe storm threatens. What is the improvement in KGL if all the mud is dumped?

4132: When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?

4133: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the unit?

4134: Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.

4135: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?

4136: If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can be initially and best maintained by using the __________.

4137: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?

4138: Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is __________.

4139: Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.

4140: In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.

4141: How much additional solid weight could be loaded at a VCG of 189.7 feet on the DEEP DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling)? Assume ballast added or discharged to maintain draft is done so at 15 feet above the baseline.

4142: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

4143: While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What would be the new draft?

4144: Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?

4145: Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?

4146: The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.

4147: According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?

4148: The action necessary to transfer the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control in order to use the steering gear room trick wheel, is to __________.

4149: Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

4150: In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly controlled by the __________.

4151: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #1 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?

4152: Coast Guard Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable of moving the rudder __________.

4153: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?

4154: Coast Guard Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________.

4155: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new uncorrected height of the center of gravity?

4157: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

4158: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-02", AFT 20'-10". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No. 8 hatch.

4159: A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine __________.

4160: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

4161: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?

4164: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine about to surface from periscope depth is __________.

4165: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?

4167: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?

4168: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.

4169: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine about to surface from periscope depth is __________.

4170: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.

4171: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

4173: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges all the cement in the P-Tanks. See Table 7. What is the change in KG?

4174: Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

4175: How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet.

4177: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed to 6 feet and the mud weight decreased from 16 to 14 pounds/gallon?

4178: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0156

4181: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at a draft of 60 feet. There is 11.5 feet of drill water in each of the drill water tanks (5P and 5S). What would be the improvement in KGL if 5S is filled from 5P?

4183: What is the shift in KG if all the liquid mud is dumped when the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load #3 (Preparing to Drill)?

4187: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling at 60 feet draft at a corrected KG of 54.0 feet. Ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?

4188: You are the operator of a 295 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Which type of fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel, if its construction was contracted for before August 27, 2003? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

4189: You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)

4190: You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?

4191: The DEEP DRILLER is planning to operate while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 ( Preparing to Drill). What is the margin between KGT and maximum allowable KG?

4192: Alterations or repairs on inspected small passenger vessels must be done __________.

4193: While going on location in 250 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the single amplitude pitch period should be longer than __________.

4194: You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which statement is TRUE?

4195: The motions of the COASTAL DRILLER during a normal transit when wind speeds are less than 70 knots are limited by __________.

4196: You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?

4197: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

4198: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?

4199: A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads in the tropical zone?

4200: A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)

4200: A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)

4201: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the platform pitch period for going on location should be longer than __________.

4202: Your vessel is floating in water of density 1010. The fresh water allowance is 8 inches. How far below her marks may she be loaded so as to float at her mark in saltwater of density 1025?

4203: While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________.

4204: You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the tropical zone after steaming four days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 66. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4205: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

4206: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming two days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4207: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

4208: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will consume 32 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.005, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4209: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days. You will consume 41 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000 and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4210: You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the winter zone after steaming four days. You will consume 35 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.0083, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4211: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in normal transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 6 degrees. What is the minimum roll period which does not exceed design limits of the legs?

4212: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.021, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4213: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of four seconds. What would be the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limit of the legs?

4214: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eight days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of ten days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.016, and the average TPI is 41. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4215: A mat-type jack-up drilling unit is the best selection for __________.

4216: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of nine days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.008, and the average TPI is 53. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4217: A mat-supported jack-up is best suited for drilling in locations with bottom conditions which are __________.

4218: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4219: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eleven days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4220: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 39 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.025, and the average TPI is 49. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4221: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the centerline is __________.

4222: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0157

4223: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum aft extension of the cantilever places the rotary __________.

4224: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eleven days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of fourteen days. You will consume 36 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.025, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4225: The maximum transverse extension of the cantilever for the COASTAL DRILLER places the rotary __________.

4226: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4227: What is the maximum weight that can be placed in the setback area on the COASTAL DRILLER?

4228: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eight days. You will consume 36 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.002, and the TPI is 47. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4229: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of six days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 43. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4230: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will enter the winter zone after an additional three days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

 4231: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?

4232: The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

4233: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in Section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, with the rotary 36 feet aft of the transom and 4 feet to port of the centerline, and with 300 kips in the setback, the maximum hook load is limited to __________.

4234: Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

4235: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as __________.

4237: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the limits in the hook setback conductor tension, and __________.

4238: You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

4239: Either one approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system is required to protect the engine room on towing vessels whose construction was contracted for before __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

4240: Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system are required to protect the engine room on towing vessels whose construction was contracted for on or after __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

4241: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.

4242: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat should __________.

4243: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the load limits in the hook, setback, conductor tension, and __________.

4244: You are the operator of a 290 GRT uninspected towing vessel whose construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. Which type of semi-portable fire-extinguishing system is required on your vessel? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

4245: The maximum load line draft for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

4246: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

4247: The maximum combined drilling load for the COASTAL DRILLER consisting of the combined hook, rotary, setback, and conductor tension, shall not exceed __________.

4249: How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?

4250: A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in salt water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"?

4251: What are the maximum acceptable levels of ice and snow accumulations on the COASTAL DRILLER?

4252: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4253: What is the maximum weight permitted on the cantilever pipe racks for the COASTAL DRILLER?

4254: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4255: What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever?

4256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 30'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 110.8 tons of seawater.

4257: Considering the lightweight changes to the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum permitted hook load permitted when 450 kips are in the setback and 200 kips are in the cantilever pipe rack?

4258: Dacron sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.

4259: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4260: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4261: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 34 feet aft of the transom and 2 feet to port of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.

4262: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4263: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 38 feet aft of transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.

4264: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4265: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is __________.

4266: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4267: For the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum rotary load that can be used when the rotary has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?

4268: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4269: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4270: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

4273: The overturning forces acting on a floating jack-up are generally dominated by __________.

4274: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

4275: The independent-leg drilling unit is the best jack-up rig selection for drilling at locations with __________.

4276: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

4277: Drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER are the combined loads arising from conductor tension, rotary, hook, and __________.

4278: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

4279: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

4280: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 4281: The maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER in normal transit at a draft of 10.5 feet is __________.

4282: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

 4283: When underway at a draft of 10.5 feet in a severe storm, the COASTAL DRILLER has a maximum allowed KG of __________.

4284: Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in a __________.

4285: During an ocean tow when the winds are less than 70 knots, the maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

4286: A vessel which violates the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may be charged a civil penalty of __________.

4287: While in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet, the Coastal Driller has a maximum allowed KG of __________.

4288: The Master or person in charge of a vessel subject to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" who fails to comply with the Act or the regulations thereunder may be charged a civil penalty of __________.

4289: What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?

4290: If you use obscene, indecent, or profane language over the radiotelephone, you can be __________.

4291: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit, stability is acceptable provided that neither the KGL nor the KGT exceed __________.

4292: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________.

4293: Preloading tests the soil to the vertical leg reaction that would be imposed by __________.

4294: By regulation, you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone for a minimum of __________.

4295: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs so that the can tips are __________.

4296: You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". He should respond with __________.

4297: The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should be at __________.

4298: What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?

4299: When jumping into water upon which there is an oil-fire, you should __________.

4301: When leveling the elevated COASTAL DRILLER, you may raise the low corner instead of lowering the high corner __________.

4303: During a long ocean tow of a jack-up the clearance in the upper guide should be reduced to zero to restrain the leg and eliminate the impact loads from dynamic responses. This is best done by __________.

4305: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on location?

4307: To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70 knots?

4311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for stability and __________.

4312: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 14'-07". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0158

4313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for leg strength and __________.

4315: Curve A in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during severe storm conditions during transit based on __________.

4317: Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during normal transit based on __________.

4321: Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________.

4323: Guide tolerances during elevation of the jack-up rig will __________.

4325: Lowering the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER and refloating should be done in favorable weather conditions with wave heights not more than __________.

4326: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 279.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0159

4331: On the COASTAL DRILLER, a noticeable increase in the level indicator while extracting the legs from the soil indicates __________.

4333: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 2 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?

4334: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system?

4335: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 1 degree and a roll period of 7 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?

4336: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5486 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0160

4337: The COASTAL DRILLER, following discharge of preload, should __________.

4341: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated to an air gap of 25 feet in 250 feet of water. The current is 2 knots and the waves are 30 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 6,120 kips. What is the maximum wind for drilling operations?

4345: What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?

4346: The EPIRB on board your vessel is required to be tested __________.

4347: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, leg penetration is assumed to be less than __________.

4355: If the maximum leg penetration of the COASTAL DRILLER is 75 feet, the water depth value in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts must be increased by __________.

4357: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, which of the three leg reactions is required?

4361: On the COASTAL DRILLER, hook load includes the weight of the __________.

4362: The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a vessel increase with the __________.

4363: Scouring is the result of __________.

4371: Where the seabed consists of sand or silt, the most severe potential problem for an independent-leg jack-up can result from __________.

4373: In comparison to electric power, hydraulic power for jacking systems has the advantage of __________.

4373: In comparison to electric power, hydraulic power for jacking systems has the advantage of __________.

4375: On the COASTAL DRILLER, what is NOT considered a drilling load?

4377: The elevating system of the COASTAL DRILLER is normally limited to __________.

4383: In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of elevating the unit with a loading of __________.

4385: While elevated as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), winds are 57 knots and current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wave height allowed for drilling?

4387: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wind for drilling?

4391: Which data is NOT used in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?

4393: Environmental loading consists of the forces caused by wind, waves, and __________.

4397: What maximum wind velocity is assumed when determining the limits of elevated service for the COASTAL DRILLER?

4401: Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.

4402: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6584 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0161

4403: Scouring usually occurs with soils such as __________.

4404: The letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate the __________.

4405: Leg penetration to depths which require pullout forces greater than that which can be supplied by the buoyancy of the hull may exist in __________.

4411: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in a normal transit, the roll period is 9 seconds. What is the limiting angle of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

4413: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in a normal transit, experiences single amplitude rolling of three degrees. What is the minimum period of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

4415: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of 9 seconds. What is the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limits of the legs in good weather?

4416: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

4417: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in an ocean transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 8 degrees. What is the minimum period of motion which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

4421: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in normal transit, the roll period is 8 seconds. What would be the limiting angle of pitch which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

4423: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER experiences a single amplitude roll of 5 degrees. What is the minimum roll period that does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

4435: The COASTAL DRILLER has sufficient reserve stability to overcome damage due to flooding of any one watertight compartment in winds to __________.

4447: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other individuals in the craft should __________.

4453: When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should __________.

4455: What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?

4457: Prior to entering a davit-launched liferaft, you should make sure that __________.

4458: Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required must __________.

4461: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning a MODU, your legs should be __________.

4463: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than __________.

4465: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and KGL less than __________.

4471: A severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER, and a decision is made to evacuate the unit. If practical, all non-essential personnel should be off the unit in advance of the storm's predicted arrival by __________.

4475: While the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the out-of-level alarm indicates that hull inclination exceeds 0.3°. What should you do?

4477: If you see someone fall overboard from a MODU, you should __________.

4481: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 3 inches in seawater, has a displacement of __________.

4483: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KML is __________.

4484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6285 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0162

4485: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KMT is __________.

4486: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.

4487: Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER while floating will change the __________.

4491: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a displacement of 13,553 kips, has a draft of __________.

4493: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, has a displacement of __________.

4495: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet. It discharges 216.43 kips of weight. What is the new draft?

4497: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at the load line draft. It discharges 279.93 kips of weight. The new draft is __________.

4501: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.0 feet. It loads 216.43 kips of weight aboard. What is the new draft?

4503: The COASTAL DRILLER has a change of trim by the head of 2.0 feet. What is the change of draft at the forward draft marks?

4505: The height of the longitudinal metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,810 kips is __________.

4507: The height of the transverse metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,011 kips is __________.

4511: The height of the transverse metacenter of the Coastal Driller at a displacement of 13,050 kips is __________.

4513: When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the LCG?

4515: A survival craft being used to pick up a person who has fallen overboard from a MODU should approach the person __________.

4517: The longitudinal location of the center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER has a value of __________.

4521: While in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet, the COASTAL DRILLER has a KGT of 60.0 feet. What is the GMT?

4523: The capacity of the COASTAL DRILLER preload tanks is __________.

4525: Preload tank 22B on the COASTAL DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of preload. It is decided to complete filling the tank. What is the TCG of the added liquid?

4527: The sounding for Drill Water Tank #18 for the Coastal Driller is 1.25 feet. It is decided to fill the tank. What is the vertical center of gravity for the added liquid?

4533: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this mud?

4534: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5577 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.55 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0163

4535: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this mud?

4537: What is the weight in long tons of 180 barrels of 15 pound per gallon drilling mud?

4541: What is the weight in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the sounding in the tank is 8 feet 2 inches?

4543: What is the sounding in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the weight of drill water in the tank is 388.32 kips?

4545: What is the VCG of the drill water in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 Drill Water Tank, if the weight in the tank is 388.32 kips?

4546: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

4547: What are the vertical moments for 14.0 feet of drill water in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 drill water tank?

4551: What are the transverse moments for 10.5 feet of sea water in preload tank #2 for the COASTAL DRILLER?

4553: What longitudinal moments are created when 379.97 kips of fresh water is placed in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 drill water tank?

4553: What longitudinal moments are created when 379.97 kips of fresh water is placed in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 drill water tank?

4555: The COASTAL DRILLER at a draft of 10.5 feet, transfers a portion of the on board liquids from full drill water tank #23 to empty drill water tank #24. What is the change in the free surface correction?

4557: The sounding level of 12 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 1S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 5.5 feet. What is the weight of the mud?

4561: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What is the weight of the mud?

4563: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 200 kips are discharged from 60 feet AF0 and 30 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?

4565: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water with 2 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 60 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.

4567: When elevated, placing the LCG and TCG at the leg centroid provides __________.

4571: The COASTAL DRILLER, while elevated in 200 feet of water, has 2 knots of current, 50 knots of wind, and 30 foot seas. What is the maximum leg reaction for drilling?

4572: You are underway at sea. A fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.

4574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4824 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0164

4575: What precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

4577: When the COASTAL DRILLER is properly preloaded, each of the leg reactions should be __________.

4583: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 150 feet of water with 0 knots current, 10 foot waves, and wind speeds of 70 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.

4587: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the bow leg reaction?

4591: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 100 feet of water with 0 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 50 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.

4593: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the port leg reaction?

4594: As shown, a frapping line is indicated by number __________. (D016SA )

 4595: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?

4597: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), 236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting starboard leg reaction?

4601: The COASTAL DRILLER is drilling while weighing 15,436 kips. LM are 2,006,680 ft-kips, and TM are -7,718 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

4603: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated while preparing for the passage of a severe storm. With ideal loading, the static loading on each of the three legs would be 4,715 kips. However, the LCG is 121 feet AFO and TCG is 0.5 foot to starboard of the centerline. By how many kips does the starboard leg reaction exceed the ideal loading?

4605: How many independent bilge systems is the COASTAL DRILLER equipped with?

4607: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by hydrostatic alarm switches connected to a remote panel located in the __________.

4611: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by __________.

4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.

4616: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

4617: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case one of the two bilge pits is flooded, the other can operate through a(n)__________.

4621: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the start/stop station for the bilge pumps is located __________.

4622: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-08". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101 tons of seawater.

4623: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the bilge discharge is normally through the __________.

4625: The order to abandon a MODU should only be given by the __________.

4627: On the COASTAL DRILLER, except when pumping from a tank, the bilge system valves should be __________.

4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.

4633: On the COASTAL DRILLER, when afloat, oily bilge discharge should be pumped through the __________.

4635: How much drill water is required for transfer between drill water tanks #25 and #26 in order to correct the list of the COASTAL DRILLER with total transverse moments of -6,800 ft-kips?

4636: What will be released by pulling on line number 5? (D012SA )

 4637: How much drill water should be transferred from tanks #23 and #24 to tank #1 to level the COASTAL DRILLER, in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, if the total longitudinal moments are 1,700,000 ft-kips?

4641: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #1?

4643: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

4644: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 7240 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 273.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0165

4645: What is the change in the vertical moments (excluding free surface effects) for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

4647: What is the increase in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

4651: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning a MODU it will __________.

4652: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 3245 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0166

4653: What is the increase in transverse free surface moments for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

4655: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the drill water in drill water tanks #6 and #25 are discharged, what is the new draft?

4657: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the four bulk tanks are back-loaded to a supply boat, what would be the new draft?

4658: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

4661: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #1 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new LCG?

4662: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.

4663: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #7 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new TCG?

4665: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new VCG?

4667: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

4673: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

4677: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?

4681: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the new KGT if, during the move, 170.9 kips of fuel oil is consumed from Diesel Oil Tanks #13 and #14?

4683: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank #23?

4685: What is the change in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank #23?

4687: What is the decrease in vertical moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from a full drill water tank #23?

4691: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no list, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. LM is 1,699,463 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?

4693: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no trim, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. TM is -6,800 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?

4697: A tank with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with fresh water weighing 62.4 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?

4701: After you activate your emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should __________.

4703: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the stern to re-level the jack-up if 75 kips is applied at the bow?

4705: What is the weight of 100 barrels of 17 pound per gallon drilling mud?

4706: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

4707: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's LCG?

4711: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's TCG?

4713: When the COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load form #3 (drilling), the hook load is placed in the pipe racks. What would be the new variable load?

4715: Sea water remaining in the preload tanks of the COASTAL DRILLER after the preload has been dumped shall be entered in the load form as __________.

4716: What is the purpose of tricing pendants?

4717: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load from #2 (preload). All of the preload is dumped with the exception of 50 kips in preload tank #28. What is the new LCG?

4718: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

4723: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?

4725: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Rig Move). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of tank #20 are transferred to tank #13?

4727: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of tank #19 are transferred to tank #13?

4733: In the COASTAL DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.

4734: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

4735: In the COASTAL DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.

4737: In the COASTAL DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.

4741: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips. What is the weight of the missing load?

4742: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

4743: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?

4744: You operate the lever shown when the lifeboat is __________. (D013SA )

 4745: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?

4746: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 12'-07", AFT 16'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0167

4747: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load?

4748: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 3885 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 278.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0168

4751: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #20. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with this transfer?

4753: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse moments with this transfer?

4755: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in vertical moments with this transfer?

4757: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal free surface moments?

4761: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse free surface moments?

4763: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred between tanks 6 and 7 to level the vessel in list?

4764: You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

4767: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred from tank #1 to tank #26 to level the vessel in trim?

4771: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what would be the new draft?

4773: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what longitudinal moment would have to be created to level the unit in trim at the new draft?

4775: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what transverse moment would have to be created to level the unit in list at the new draft?

4777: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the new KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?

4778: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5540 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0169

4781: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the change in KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?

4783: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds remain less than 70 knots?

4784: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

4785: What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft in a storm?

4786: Which number indicates the hydrostatic release? (D015SA )

 4787: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater than 70 knots?

4791: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds remain less than 70 knots?

4793: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds increase to greater than 70 knots, and the TOC is changed to the recommended value?

4795: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new LCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

4797: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new TCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

4801: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new VCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

4805: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new Longitudinal Free Surface Correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

4807: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

4811: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KMT if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

4812: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0170

4813: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KML if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

4814: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

4815: What is the maximum amount of variables that may be taken aboard the COASTAL DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (drilling)?

4833: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should __________.

4837: When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.

4847: The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.

4851: The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?

5031: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a jack-up drilling rig under tow is considered to be a __________.

5033: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled, semisubmersible drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.

5035: When would a jack-up drilling rig be considered "underway" under the International Rules of the Road?

5037: Where will you find the requirements for the signals that must be sounded by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed through an area of restricted visibility?

5038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater.

5041: When must a MODU display navigation lights while underway?

5042: What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?

5045: Your jack-up is being towed along a shipping channel. You are concerned that a vessel that is overtaking you is coming too close to pass safely. You must __________.

5047: A jack-up drilling rig being towed must __________.

5053: Which shape shown would be displayed by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed more than 200 meters astern of a towing vessel? (DIAGRAM 16 )

 5055: A mobile offshore drilling unit will show the day-shape in DIAGRAM 10 to indicate that it is __________.

5057: A mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is approaching a fog bank. When should fog signals be started?

5061: During a move to a new location, a jack-up drilling unit with personnel on board is towed through a heavy rainstorm. What signal must be sounded by the drilling rig when visibility is restricted?

5062: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8530 T. The 40-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 115' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

5063: What signal must be sounded by a vessel towing a mobile offshore drilling unit through an area of restricted visibility?

5065: Under what condition are you allowed to depart from the rules of the road?

5067: While a MODU is underway, a look-out must be maintained __________.

5068: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 19'-00", AFT 24'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0171

5071: A mobile offshore drilling unit is on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf. It has a length of 220 feet and a breadth of 190 feet. Where must the obstruction lights be located?

5073: An obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf, shall have a lens that is visible over an arc of __________.

5075: What lighting characteristic is required of an obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf?

5077: The requirements for obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units apply on all waters __________.

5081: What color are obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units that are located on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf seaward of the line of demarcation?

5083: When a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf has more than one obstruction light, the lights must be operated to flash __________.

5085: A mobile offshore drilling unit must display obstruction lights when it is on the waters over the Outer Continental Shelf and is __________.

5087: What agency is responsible for enforcing the rules for obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units?

5091: Obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf must be displayed __________.

5092: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water:

5093: A jack-up drilling unit elevated on the Outer Continental Shelf must have a fog horn that will sound __________.

5094: The mechanism that will release the tricing pendant, as shown, is __________. (D012SA )

 5095: Who has the ultimate responsibility for the safety of a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is being towed to a new location?

5097: To have the ultimate authority for a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is under tow, a rig mover must __________.

5098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 20'-04", AFT 23'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0172

5101: When a marine surveyor is employed to assist in the move of a mobile offshore drilling unit, he __________.

5103: A hurricane has recurved to the northeast and its forward speed is 20 knots. Your MODU is located 600 miles northeast of the hurricane's center. How long will it take for the hurricane center to reach your position if it holds its present course and speed?

5105: The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your MODU in the Gulf of Mexico and the northwest wind of a few hours ago has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are located in the __________.

5113: A tropical storm is building strength some distance from your MODU. Waves are coming from the east, with periods increasing from 5 seconds to 15 seconds. The swell is from the east. Where was the storm when these new swells were generated?

5115: What kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your MODU's position?

5121: What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a MODU?

5122: You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

5123: In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally __________.

5124: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 18'-08". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0173

5125: A MODU with the TCG off the longitudinal centerline inclines to an angle of __________.

5127: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for displacement is __________.

5131: In illustration D041DG symbol 1 refers to __________.

5133: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured is __________.

5135: In the illustration, symbol 2 represents __________. (D041DG )

 5137: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly greater than the angle of loll, she will __________.

5153: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 20,000 long tons. She has vertical moments of 1,000,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are placed aboard at a KG of 120 feet?

5154: The sea anchor shown as item number 14 will NOT __________. (D014SA )

 5155: A MODU displacing 10,000 long tons with KG 20.0 feet, uses its crane to lift a 40 long ton load from dockside and place it on board at a VCG of 5.0 feet. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50.0 feet above the keel. During the lift, what is the apparent increase in KG?

5156: Your non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system?

5157: A MODU displacing 10,000 tons uses its crane to lift a 20 ton load, already aboard, to a height of 5 feet above the deck. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50 feet above the load. What is the change in KG?

5157: A MODU displacing 10,000 tons uses its crane to lift a 20 ton load, already aboard, to a height of 5 feet above the deck. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50 feet above the load. What is the change in KG?

5163: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

5175: The DEEP DRILLER, in transit at a seawater draft of 19 feet, enters a fresh water port. What is the new draft?

5177: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?

5181: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 19.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?

5183: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?

5191: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should __________.

5192: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

5193: The DEEP DRILLER is being towed at a 20 foot draft. Vessel motions are within acceptable limits, but the waves begin to hit the horizontal braces. You should __________.

5195: The DEEP DRILLER is under tow at a 20 foot draft. The rig motions are close to exceeding the limits for critical pitch and roll. The rig is also experiencing occasional pounding on the horizontal braces. In this situation you should __________.

5196: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8560 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 95' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 55' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

5197: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has VM of 942,120 ft-tons, and FSML of 36,235 ft-tons. What is the KGL?

5201: If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________.

5203: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapid increasing inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

5205: Among the possible causes of unexpected constant inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

5223: When floating, the appropriate leg horizontal must be aligned in the center of the __________.

5225: If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.

5232: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

5233: During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated by an off-center load, a MODU suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should __________.

5234: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 15'-05", AFT 21'-03". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0174

5234: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 15'-05", AFT 21'-03". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0174

5235: If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.

5245: To maintain a high state of readiness against the possibility of damage and subsequent flooding while aboard the DEEP DRILLER, you should __________.

5247: In case of major damage to column C1P while the DEEP DRILLER is on location, you should pump from port-forward lower-hull tanks using __________.

5261: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

5263: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

5265: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage has proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

5271: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to pump from __________.

5273: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

5274: The type davits shown are __________. (D008SA )

 5275: In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using __________.

5276: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 18'-07", AFT 23'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 92 tons of seawater.

5277: Failure of both port ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To deballast from tank 1P, you may use the __________.

5281: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room while in transit. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may __________.

5283: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use __________.

5285: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1P. You may pump from __________.

5286: A vessel is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

5287: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. You may pump from __________.

5297: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is __________.

5301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in VCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

5302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-05", AFT 19'-07". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0175

5305: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 50.6 feet and a KGL of 51.4 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

5307: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

5308: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

5311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in field transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

5312: As shown, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to the __________. (D016SA )

 5313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

5314: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 18'-08". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0176

5315: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit during a severe storm while at a draft of 9 feet 6 inches, has a KGT of 39.1 feet and a KGL of 39.9 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

5321: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. How much should the KGL be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

5323: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 520,462 ft-kips, FSML are 26,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 25,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

5325: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 546,462 ft-kips, FSML are 18,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 32,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

5327: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. GMT is 98.89 feet. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

5341: For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.

5353: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum total weight shall not exceed __________.

5354: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

5357: During preloading or elevating the COASTAL DRILLER, jacking-up may continue if the total weight is less than __________.

5361: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?

5363: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

5365: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

5373: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

5381: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The bow leg reaction is __________.

5385: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

5386: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

5387: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

5388: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

5407: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the LCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom?

5408: One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.

5411: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What will be the LCG if the preload is dumped?

5412: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0177

5413: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the TCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom, and the drill floor is skidded 8 feet to port?

5415: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload), dumps the preload. However, 138.4 kips remained on board. The LM for the remaining preload is 17,992 ft-kips. What is the new LCG?

5417: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new LCG?

5418: Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved __________.

5421: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new TCG?

5423: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), dumps all the mud in pits 1, 2, 3, and 4. What is the new TCG?

5425: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), dumps all the mud in pits 1, 2, 3, and 4. What is the new LCG?

5427: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new LCG?

5431: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new TCG?

5433: It is vital to the safety of the elevated COASTAL DRILLER that the hull be kept above __________.

5434: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

5435: The COASTAL DRILLER is operating with a wave clearance of about 20 feet. The out-of-level alarm sounds and the unit is found to be inclined 0.5 degree bow down. The recommended course of action is to __________.

5441: The COASTAL DRILLER has suffered a casualty which requires an orderly evacuation of the unit using the lifeboats and liferafts. Among the items to accomplish in preparing to evacuate the unit is __________.

5445: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and forward. Strong wind and high waves are from the starboard quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

5447: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-06", AFT 20'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0178

5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-06", AFT 20'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0178

5451: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and aft. Strong wind and high waves are on the port bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

5455: What percentage of the breaking strength is the generally accepted safe operating load of an anchor cable?

5457: The only wire rope termination which may be made in the field is __________.

5461: Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as the __________.

5462: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0179

5463: A common class of wire rope used for mooring is the 6x19 class. What does the 6 represent?

5465: A common class of wire rope used for mooring is the 6x37 class. What does the 37 represent?

5467: What is an advantage of the 6x19 class of wire rope over the 6x37 class of wire rope of the same diameter?

5471: What is an advantage of the 6x37 class of wire rope over the 6x19 class of wire rope of the same diameter?

5473: Where do fatigue failures of wire rope mooring lines usually occur?

5475: The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the __________.

5477: Standards for fabrication and testing of chain on mobile offshore drilling units are provided by the __________.

5479: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine the __________.

5481: A common means of connecting shots of anchor chain in the field is to use a __________.

5483: The idler sheave which directs and turns the anchor cable from a semisubmersible is known as the __________.

5485: The maximum angular tolerance for a bent link of an anchor chain is __________.

5486: This illustration shows the correct method of securing a __________. (D009SA )

 5487: A measurement device for inspecting anchor chain is the __________.

5491: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that a new anchor chain should be inspected after being in service for __________.

5493: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that connecting links and anchor shackles be inspected using __________.

5495: Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to __________.

5497: Which grade of anchor chain is generally used on floating drilling vessels?

5501: What is a major disadvantage of Di-Lok chain compared with Oil Rig Quality (stud link) chain in floating drilling rig operations?

5503: What are the two main types of stud link chain?

5504: While signaling by flashing light you make an error. You should send __________.

5505: Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used mooring chain?

5506: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 13'-05", AFT 21'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 88 tons of seawater.

5507: The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for __________.

5508: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

5511: When inspecting anchor chain, the American Petroleum Institute recommends checking the length over 5 links every __________.

5513: A link on an anchor chain should be replaced when wear or grinding of surface cracks has reduced the cross section area by __________.

5515: What should be done after repairing a surface crack on a link of anchor chain by grinding?

5517: Grinding to eliminate shallow surface defects should be done __________.

5518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0180

5521: Prior to magnetic particle inspection of anchor chain, the chain should be __________.

5522: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

5523: Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must undergo __________.

5525: What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?

5527: With adaptor blocks/chocks in place on an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be __________.

5531: With adaptor blocks/chocks removed from an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be __________.

5533: Connecting elements of a mooring system should be fabricated from __________.

5535: What effect is achieved from soaking an anchor?

5536: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

5537: Why should you soak an anchor?

5541: What is the "holding power ratio" of an anchor?

5543: What happens ns to the efficiency of an anchor when it is moved from sand to mud?

5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed __________.

5547: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.

5551: Anchor shackles should have a breaking strength that is __________.

5553: The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the __________.

5555: The fluke angle of an anchor system is the angle between the __________.

5557: The holding power of an anchor is the __________.

5561: What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system?

5563: Most large anchors are manufactured with a __________.

5565: What is the bow type anchor shackle primarily used for?

5567: What is the most important difference between the bow type anchor shackle and the D-type anchor shackle?

5568: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out?

5571: Which two components pass through the shank of an LWT anchor?

5573: To develop maximum anchor holding power, the optimum angle between the anchor's shank and the mooring lines is __________.

5574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0181

5575: Increasing the area of the anchor flukes will __________.

5577: What is the advantage of a single streamlined fluke anchor over a double fluked anchor of similar weight?

5585: Cable tension for catenary calculations is taken at the __________.

5586: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

5587: What is the primary disadvantage of a permanent chain chaser system?

5591: The major cause of anchor buoy pendant wire failures is __________.

5595: An anchor winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.

5597: A chain stripper is used to __________.

5598: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

5601: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moving onto a location in shallow water with a very hard bottom. What is the most effective means of maintaining your position at this location during severe weather?

5603: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

5604: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0182

5605: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometer is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

5611: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 8 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

5615: Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses due to __________.

5616: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?

5617: Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________.

5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

5625: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the leeward lines should be paid out, and the windward lines adjusted so that __________.

5627: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the weather lines should be adjusted so that several lines carry about the same tension, and the leeward lines are __________.

5631: In deballasting to survival draft because of extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.

5633: In ballasting to survival draft, while in transit, due to extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.

5637: While in transit during heavy weather, the crew aboard a semisubmersible should be alert to repeated pounding of waves on the lower bracing. If necessary, the unit should be __________.

5643: When evacuating the DEEP DRILLER, preparations should include __________.

5644: You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________.

5645: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension reduces __________.

5647: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension increases __________.

5648: The hydrostatic release on the inflatable liferafts on a fishing vessel must be __________.

5651: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension reduces __________.

5653: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension increases __________.

5655: When the air temperature is just below 32°F, snow FIRST adheres to __________.

5665: When clear ice is present while drilling, the vertical transverse moments of the DEEP DRILLER are increased by __________.

5667: When clear ice is present when the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, the vertical moments are increased by __________.

5668: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 18'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

5671: When assuming the maximum ice weight accumulation on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft, the vertical moments are increased by __________.

5673: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

5677: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

5681: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

5683: You should consider placing the drilling operations of the DEEP DRILLER in standby when __________.

5691: In a storm, the windward lines of a MODU's mooring system provide __________.

5693: In a storm, the leeward lines of a MODU's mooring system will __________.

5694: What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?

5695: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4, (Drilling). In preparing for approaching heavy weather, the four leeward mooring lines are slacked. These actions reduce the __________.

5697: The motion that can significantly increase mooring line tension is __________.

5701: The vessel motion that can significantly affect mooring line tensions on a MODU is __________.

5702: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0183

5705: The design of a spring buoy helps __________.

5707: A mooring system that results in a spread system without anchor buoys is called a __________.

5708: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 18 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.048) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

5711: Installing tandem anchors on the same mooring line is referred to as __________.

5713: What pressure must a spring buoy, moored at a 500 foot depth, withstand?

5715: What can cause a lack of oxygen in a chain locker?

5721: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

5722: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

5725: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain in comparison to the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.

5727: Given the same water depth and line tension, the length of the ground cable of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain compared to the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/ft wire rope mooring line will be __________.

5731: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be __________.

5733: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be __________.

5735: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.

5737: Given the same water depth and line tension, the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system will be __________.

5741: A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an anchor handling vessel is __________.

5743: The safest device used to secure the end of the pendant wire when it is initially passed to the anchor handling vessel is a __________.

5747: If the water depth is 500 feet, the length of the pendant wire from the anchor to the buoy is typically __________.

5751: When piggybacking anchors, the distance between the primary anchor and the secondary anchor is determined by __________.

5752: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0184

5753: The length of chain between the anchor and the end of the pendant line is called the __________.

5755: Why are symmetric mooring patterns frequently used to keep MODU's on station?

5756: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

5756: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

5757: What determines the minimum size of an anchor buoy?

5763: What is the purpose of a chain stopper?

5765: Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________.

5767: A shepherd's crook is used to __________.

5771: A J-chaser is used to __________.

5781: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring line 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about __________.

5783: In storm conditions in 600 feet of water, completely slacking the leeward mooring line of the DEEP DRILLER reduces the tension in that line to about __________.

5785: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 9%. Completely slacking mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the offset to __________.

5786: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0185

5787: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 8%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.

5791: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring lines 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about __________.

5793: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the offset is 7%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.

5795: What is the length of the catenary when the DEEP DRILLER is anchored in 600 feet of water and the anchor line tension is 170 kips?

5805: A permanent chain chasing system is used to __________.

5806: Damage stability is the stability __________.

5811: The unit used to measure anchor line tensions in the offshore drilling industry is the __________.

5813: An ideal mooring system would be __________.

5814: Your drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

5815: What device is used to measure the force exerted on the rig by a leg of the mooring system?

5817: The two main types of load cells used in mooring tension gauges are __________.

5821: Why should you preload a mooring system above your precalculated operating mooring tensions?

5823: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moored on station and is experiencing winds from the north. What will be the effect if you increase the length of the anchor chains you have deployed to the north?

5824: The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of __________.

5825: The tension on an anchor cable increases so that the angle of the catenary to the seabed at the anchor reaches 10 degrees. How will this affect the anchor in sandy soil?

5827: When a MODU is afloat in equilibrium, the horizontal component of mooring line tensions should equal __________.

5835: The initial tension set in the mooring system of a MODU establishes the __________.

5837: What could cause a significant difference between actual chain tension and the tension measured by the tensiometer?

5845: Yawing can be described as __________.

5855: A mat-type drilling unit tows more slowly than a jack-up unit due to __________.

5857: In towing it is desirable for the tug and the MODU to ride wave crests simultaneously because __________.

5858: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

5863: If a MODU under tow starts jumping on its tow line, the most appropriate action to alleviate the condition is to __________.

5864: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0186

5871: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #8 is 190 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?

5883: In selecting a tug for moving a MODU, consideration should be given to its __________.

5893: The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a tug navigating independently because the __________.

5897: The type of shackle used in making up tow lines to a MODU should be __________.

5898: What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International Code of Signals?

5901: With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the __________.

5902: The most likely location for a liquid fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

5903: The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is __________.

5905: The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated __________.

5907: The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.

5911: What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list?

5913: If uniformly distributed in the cantilever pipe rack of the COASTAL DRILLER, how much pipe can be placed in the cantilever pipe rack area when the cantilever has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?

5914: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 25 ft. wide, and 8 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.053) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

5915: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system on board an offshore rig?

5917: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

5921: Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is __________.

5923: The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to maintain required fire streams, or __________.

5924: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0187

5925: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting service, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.

5927: A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space may be sprayed with __________.

5931: If the charted water depth is 200 feet, the limits of service for the COASTAL DRILLER require an air gap of __________.

5933: Each fire hydrant must have at least one spanner and at least one __________.

5934: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?

5935: The size of fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.

5936: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0188

5941: Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.

5945: Each part of the fire-main system located on an exposed deck must be __________.

5946: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 25'-11", AFT 26'-11". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 83 tons of seawater.

5947: Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads that meet the specifications of the __________.

5951: Control valves of a CO2 system may be located within the protected space when __________.

5953: The stamped full weight of a 100 lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged?

5955: After using a CO2 extinguisher on a MODU, it should be __________.

5957: On a MODU, a CO2 extinguisher is checked by __________.

5958: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you are advancing?

5961: A CO2 extinguisher on a MODU which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.

5962: Your drafts are: FWD 25'-09", AFT 28'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

5963: On a MODU, CO2 extinguishers must be weighed __________.

6003: The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU is __________.

6003: The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU is __________.

6004: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0189

6007: On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.

6011: On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are size(s) __________.

6013: On a MODU, size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.

6015: On a MODU, size I and II extinguishers are considered __________.

6021: Semi-portable extinguishers used on MODU's are sizes __________.

6022: You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?

6023: On a MODU, an extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size __________.

6027: On a MODU, firefighting equipment must be inspected once every __________.

6031: On a MODU, a fire drill shall be conducted once every __________.

6033: During a fire drill on a MODU, what action is required?

6035: On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________.

6037: When testing fire hoses on offshore drilling units, each hose must be subjected to a test pressure of at least __________.

6041: On offshore drilling units, the fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space may be sprayed with at least __________.

6042: Canvas sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.

6047: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal length of __________.

6049: While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

6051: The connection facilities for the international shore connection required on board offshore drilling units in international service must be located to provide access __________.

6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

6061: The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.

6065: A fire pump on a MODU requires 175 psi discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. The maximum setting for the relief valve is __________.

6067: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must discharge at least 85 percent of the required amount of CO2 within __________.

6071: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must withstand a bursting pressure of at least __________.

6073: Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________.

6074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0190

6075: On offshore drilling units fitted with CO2 systems, each space that contains a cylinder must be vented and designed to keep temperature in the space at not more than __________.

6076: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right?

6077: Operation of the valve control release on a fixed CO2 system must immediately __________.

6083: A fixed CO2 system on a MODU with a capacity of over 300 lbs (136 kilograms) CO2 which protects spaces other than tanks must have __________.

6084: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

6085: On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide or other approved system must be installed __________.

6087: Portable Halon extinguishers used on MODU's may use __________.

6088: What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?

6091: Due to the hazards involved with Halon extinguishers on a MODU, the size II extinguisher may only be used __________.

6093: On offshore drilling units where foam systems are installed on the heliport, the system must be able to discharge continuously for at least __________.

6095: Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a MODU, each machinery flat in the protected space must have a(n) __________.

6101: What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling facilities?

6102: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0191

6105: The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.

6106: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0192

6107: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is __________.

6115: If a mobile offshore drilling rig has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried?

6121: The inspection of portable extinguishers on a MODU must be __________.

6123: On offshore drilling units, the minimum required number of fireman's outfits which must be carried is __________.

6124: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 4 ft. deep is half filled with fuel oil (S.G. 0.962) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

6125: What is the minimum required number of fire axes that must be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

6127: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of persons required to be trained in the use of fireman's outfits is __________.

6131: How many fireman's outfits are required on a MODU?

6133: What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?

6157: Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited __________.

6175: It is the responsibility of the Master or person in charge of a MODU to ensure that __________.

6177: Fires on a MODU must be reported to the Coast Guard if there is death, injury resulting in more than 72 hours incapacitation, or property damage in excess of __________.

6187: A fire in a ballast pumproom can be brought under control with minimal impact on stability by __________.

6191: Fighting a rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses could reduce the stability of the rig by __________.

6193: What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?

6195: Each person on the rig has a designated area to proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is shown clearly on the rig's __________.

6196: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance?

6197: Fighting a rig fire in the ballast pumproom with hoses would adversely affect the stability of the rig most by __________.

6201: The two courses of action if the underwater hull of a MODU is severely damaged are to plug the openings and to __________.

6213: When patching holes in the hull of a MODU, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as __________.

6225: The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is called __________.

6233: When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.

6241: The objective of shoring the damaged area of a MODU is to __________.

6245: On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.

6246: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

6247: Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of liquid mud handling areas presents what possible hazard?

6248: Your drafts are: FWD 26'-03", AFT 30'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

6249: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

6251: Explosive and flammable gasses are most likely to be encountered on a MODU __________.

6253: The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to have __________.

6255: Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.

6257: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should __________.

6261: When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning a MODU?

6265: During severe storms when survival becomes a major concern, it may become necessary to relieve high anchor tensions on the windward side of the unit by __________.

6271: During storm conditions on a MODU, the mooring tensions should be adjusted so that __________.

6273: During a storm, the chance of fatigue failure of a mooring line will increase as __________.

6274: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

6275: During a storm, the mooring line on a MODU should be long enough so that the angle between the anchor shank and the ocean floor is __________.

6276: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

6277: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 26'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 77 tons of seawater.

6291: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must either reposition it at greater range or __________.

6303: The most doubtful and unpredictable factor in a mooring system is the __________.

6305: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must back it up with a piggyback (backing) anchor or __________.

6306: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

6307: Using high working tensions in the mooring system reduces the __________.

6308: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

6313: The holding power of an anchor increases when the __________.

6387: The vertical height and density of the drilling fluid are used to determine the __________.

6393: Lost circulation can cause a kick or blowout by __________.

6395: The term "lost circulation" refers to situations when drilling fluid is lost by __________.

6397: A well kick while drilling from a MODU will cause __________.

6401: Why must the drilled hole be filled with drilling mud when tripping the drill string out of the hole?

6402: Small passenger vessels in cold water ocean routes, that do not meet the standards for collision bulkheads or subdivision in subchapter S, must carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

6413: While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost circulation and loses 900 bbls. of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. How much ballast must be taken on to maintain 60 foot draft?

6415: While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost circulation and loses 460 barrels of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. What is the resulting draft if no additional ballast is taken on?

6421: While drilling at 4,000 feet with casing set to 2,000 feet, the well kicks with mud weight in the hole. Mud pumps are shut down and the blowout preventer is closed. Compared to the drilling situation, the pressure on the casing seat will be __________.

6423: The most accurate method for measuring drilling mud required to fill the hole when drill stem is removed is by use of a __________.

6425: The test for determining the formation fracture pressure after drilling out a seat is called a __________.

6426: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

6445: What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps?

6455: Most drill ships and barges have a walled opening below the derrick, open to the water's surface and through which various drilling tools can pass down to the sea floor called a __________.

6467: The series of valves used to control the return flow in well control operations is called the __________.

6473: On an offshore drilling rig, the pumps which circulate drilling fluid through the drill string while drilling are called the __________.

6475: The pneumatic containers which store bulk dry mud additives and cement on a MODU are called __________.

6481: In MODU operations, hoisting and lowering pipe in and out of the drilled hole is the main function of the __________.

6483: In a conventional drilling system, imparting rotation to the drill string is a function of the __________.

6485: The main function of the drawworks on a MODU is to __________.

6487: For most MODU engines, the fuel is __________.

6491: How wide must the safety net be that is required on the unprotected perimeter of the helicopter landing deck on a MODU?

6492: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 16'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 73 tons of seawater.

6493: A helicopter making a round trip from a helodeck with refueling capabilities to an unmanned platform will take 45 minutes each way. The helicopter should be carrying enough fuel to last __________.

6495: A small fuel spillage has occurred during helicopter refueling. After the leak has been stopped and fire-control personnel have been notified and are standing by, the next step is to __________.

6496: In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?

6497: The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the blades turning is __________.

6501: At a refueling area or fuel facility, smoking or any flame or spark is prohibited __________.

6503: If, during helicopter refueling operations, fuel is spilled on clothing, the person should first __________.

6505: A MODU helicopter landing deck on which fueling operations are conducted must have a fire protection system that is capable of discharging at 100 psi pressure a foam spray of at least __________.

6507: Especially in adverse weather, risk of collision with an offshore supply vessel increases when the vessel is moored to what side of the unit?

6513: Consideration should be given in planning for the mooring orientation in a new location so that in adverse weather a crane is available to off-load the supply vessel on what side of the unit?

6515: While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in strength and changes direction significantly, you should __________.

6517: Prior to backloading portable tanks or drums onto an offshore supply vessel, check that each tank is __________.

6521: When cargo aboard a jack-up in transit becomes adrift, the tow vessel should be asked to __________.

6523: On the cargo manifest, the total weight of a box containing cargo is the __________.

6525: On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the __________.

6527: On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of a box containing cargo is the weight of the __________.

6531: On the cargo manifest, the weight of the cargo inside a box is called the __________.

6533: When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use facial respirator masks and __________.

6537: When pumping fuel between an offshore supply vessel (OSV) and a MODU, there must be direct VHF radio contact between the offshore supply vessel engineer and the __________.

6543: Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label?

6545: Flammable liquids should have what kind of label?

6547: Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label?

6551: When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.

6553: While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel, the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. You should __________.

6555: The chemicals in sacks aboard MODU's are palletized to reduce __________.

6563: When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use goggles and __________.

6567: On offshore drilling units, the number of industrial personnel permitted to be on board during drilling operations is found on the __________.

6571: To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

6573: To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

6575: To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

6577: According to the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, "industrial personnel" are considered to be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole purpose of carrying out the industrial business of the unit, except for __________.

6580: The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as __________.

6581: If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested by __________.

6583: When weight-testing a davit-launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the test weight must be equivalent to the weight of the raft, its required equipment, and __________.

6585: When weight-testing a davit launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the deadweight equivalent for each person in the allowed capacity of the raft is __________.

6593: What organization is approved by the Coast Guard for certifying cranes on mobile offshore drilling units?

6594: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2500 brake horsepower?

6595: How often must a rated load test be performed on a crane on a MODU?

6603: A weathertight door on a MODU must not allow water to penetrate into the unit in __________.

6604: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

6605: All fire hoses on mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at least __________.

6607: To determine the number of Able Seamen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

6611: Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required number on a MODU must __________.

6613: What class of bulkhead is required around the galley on a MODU?

6615: Where are self-closing doors required on a MODU?

6617: On offshore drilling units, sleeping spaces for the regular personnel employed on board may not berth more than __________.

6618: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6048 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0193

6619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.89 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0194

6621: Locations on a MODU where flammable hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to drilling operations are defined as __________.

6623: Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.

6624: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is ___________,

6625: Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the standards of the __________.

6626: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

6627: A cutoff valve in the fire-main system of a MODU may be closed to protect the portion of the system on an exposed deck from __________.

6631: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.

6631: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.

6633: For a MODU not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected rocket-type line throwing appliance is a __________.

6635: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on a MODU?

6637: Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how many must be equipped with a water light?

6641: On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?

6643: How many adult life jackets are required on board a MODU?

6645: Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio apparatus that meets the requirements of the __________.

6646: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.

6647: For means of abandonment of a MODU, which type of embarkation does not require prior approval by the Coast Guard?

6651: The factor of safety, based on the elastic limit of the material, for the forks used on power operated industrial trucks aboard a MODU must be at least __________.

6653: Diesel powered industrial trucks on a MODU that are provided with safeguards to the exhaust, fuel, and electrical systems are designated __________.

6655: Power operated cranes used on a MODU must not be powered by __________.

6657: The design specifications for cranes and crane foundations on MODU's are set and published by the __________.

6660: Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

6661: On a self-elevating drilling unit, draft marks must be located __________.

6663: A branch line valve of a fire extinguishing system on a MODU must be marked with the __________.

6665: On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.

6667: On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.

6671: Each hand portable fire extinguisher on a MODU must be marked with __________.

6673: Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with __________.

6675: According to the MODU regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________.

6677: The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU must be approved by the __________.

6681: On a MODU, a door that is required to be marked "KEEP CLOSED" is designed to __________.

6683: How must each storage tank for helicopter fuel on a MODU be marked?

6684: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 19'-04", AFT 21'-02". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 68 tons of seawater.

6685: On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?

6686: Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.

6687: A MODU must have a self-contained breathing apparatus to be used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this requirement, you may use __________.

6693: The litter on a MODU must be able to __________.

6695: Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.

6697: For use as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit, each MODU must be equipped with a __________.

6703: The person-in-charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must be designated by the __________.

6705: The immersion suit requirements for MODU's apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean above __________.

6707: The immersion suit requirements apply to MODU's operating in all waters above __________.

6711: Immersion suits must be stowed __________.

6715: The person in charge shall insure that each lifeboat on a MODU is lowered to the water, launched, and operated at least once every __________.

6721: Each hand portable, semi-portable and fixed fire extinguishing unit on a MODU must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.

6724: In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?

6725: The person responsible for maintaining clean and sanitary conditions in the accommodation spaces of a MODU is the __________.

6731: During the required periodic abandon ship drill aboard a MODU, each person not assigned duties in the muster list is __________.

6733: The person in charge of a MODU shall insure that the fuel tank of each motor propelled lifeboat is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every __________.

6735: On a MODU, each EPIRB or SART must be tested at least once __________.

6737: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

6742: With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.

6743: The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the __________.

6745: Fire axes required on MODU's must be stored in the enclosure for fire hoses with the location marked "________".

6747: How many people on board a MODU must be trained in the use of the fireman's outfit?

6753: If not attached to the nozzle, each low-velocity spray applicator on a MODU must be stowed __________.

6755: Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a MODU must be stowed __________.

6757: On Offshore Drilling units, in addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth location, life jackets must be stowed at each work station and __________.

6761: Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or, from the date of manufacture, not later than __________.

6765: A qualified person must be assigned as the second in command of a lifeboat on a MODU if the lifeboat has a capacity of more than __________.

6767: A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.

6767: A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.

6772: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.

6785: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit __________.

6786: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency is __________.

6791: At the required fire drill conducted aboard a MODU, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.

6792: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.

6793: The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________.

6795: Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have an official logbook shall __________.

6797: Where must you record the date of each emergency training drill conducted on a MODU?

6801: Where must the 0mster or person in charge of a MODU record the date of each test of emergency lighting and power systems and the condition and performance of the equipment?

6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.

6806: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

6807: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows __________.

6811: A mobile offshore drilling unit crane certificate is required to be maintained __________.

6813: The Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit shall ensure the crane record book shows __________.

6817: How long must the records of tests and inspections of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU be retained on board?

6821: How long shall the Master or person in charge of a MODU maintaining an unofficial logbook retain this logbook on board?

6823: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.

6825: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.

6827: What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit after conducting a fire drill?

6831: After conducting an abandonment drill, the Master or person in charge of a MODU shall log __________.

6833: If a drill required by regulations is not completed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the Master or person in charge must __________.

6837: With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile offshore drilling units, what must the Master or person in charge log?

6838: What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?

6841: What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after conducting an abandonment drill?

6843: With regard to the opening and closing of watertight integrity appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, what must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook?

6845: After conducting a boat drill on a mobile offshore drilling unit, what must the Master or person in charge enter in the in the logbook?

6847: What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after conducting a boat drill?

6853: Regulations require that line throwing equipment on mobile offshore drilling units be tested at regular intervals. What entry should be made in the logbook?

6855: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows the __________.

6856: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

6858: A hydraulic accumulator is designed to __________.

6861: Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

6863: When are fore and aft draft readings required to be entered in the unofficial logbook of a MODU?

6867: When must the Master or person in charge of a MODU log the position of load line marks in relation to the surface of the water in the logbook?

6871: Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made?

6895: Who is responsible for reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit?

6897: Who shall insure that all records required by regulations are retained on board a mobile offshore drilling unit involved in a casualty?

6901: In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is responsible to make records available to the Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty?

6903: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding under what condition?

6905: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding when it __________.

6907: On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for __________.

6908: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it is usually off-center and __________.

6911: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.

6913: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.

6915: When a MODU is involved in a casualty, the cost of property damage includes __________.

6917: Injuries resulting in loss of life or incapacitation, aboard vessels, must be reported to the __________.

6921: The notice of casualty to a MODU must include __________.

6925: After a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, what record must be kept on board?

6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.

6931: A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must include __________.

6933: Under the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, you must submit a casualty report for which occurrence?

6937: A casualty report of an intentional grounding of a MODU is required under what condition?

6941: On offshore drilling units, any reports of a casualty that are made are required to be retained on board for a period of at least __________.

6943: A written report of casualty to a MODU shall be made __________.

6945: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit?

6946: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 25'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

6947: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a MODU?

6953: After reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, which record must be retained on board?

6955: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board a MODU for how long after the report of a casualty?

6957: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board for at least 3 months after a MODU is involved in a casualty or until advised that they are no longer needed on board by the __________.

6961: A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must be made in writing to which office?

6965: In the case of a casualty involving a MODU, the Master, owner, agent or person in charge shall make the records required by regulation available upon request to __________.

6967: A MODU must report a collision with an aid to navigation maintained by the Coast Guard to which office?

6981: The emergency power system for the DEEP DRILLER should be placed in operation when the weather forecast predicts winds greater than 90 knots and when __________.

6985: The COASTAL DRILLER, while operating with minimal wave clearance, is inclined 0.5 degrees bow down. Lowering the stern may place the hull in the wave action. The recommended course of action is to __________.

6987: Severe airway burns can cause __________.

6991: The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.

7003: When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________.

7005: Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with __________.

7006: What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?

7007: What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?

7021: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.

7023: Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________.

7023: Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________.

7025: A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be___ __________.

7027: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.

7031: Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.

7032: Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________.

7033: A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injured. The symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma may include __________.

7035: If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.

7037: Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.

7041: A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should __________.

7043: While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.

7046: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

7047: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

7051: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.

7052: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0195

7053: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by __________.

7055: Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

7056: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

7057: Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.

7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

7061: The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

7062: You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?

7063: The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.

7065: What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?

7066: What does blowing tubes accomplish?

7067: An effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board is known as the __________.

7068: Deballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG?

7071: The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.

7072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 15'-06", AFT 18'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 62 tons of seawater.

7073: Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?

7075: Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?

7077: Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?

7081: In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________.

7083: What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?

7093: Normal mouth temperature is __________.

7096: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

7097: What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?

7105: Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.

7113: Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.

7121: CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.

7127: Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an alarm which sounds __________.

7128: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.

7129: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.

7131: A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent __________.

7135: What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?

7143: Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________.

7147: What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?

7307: All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that __________.

7311: What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?

7313: What is the MOST important thing you should do before transmitting on a marine radio?

7317: When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.

7318: A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.

7321: The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?

7323: Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.

7325: One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.

7331: Routine radio communications should be no more than __________.

7333: You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?

7335: When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?

7337: If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.

7341: If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?

7343: What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?

7345: What is the average range of vessel-to-vessel VHF-FM radio communications?

7351: The range of a SSB transmission is MOST affected by __________.

7353: The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power output wattage of the radio because __________.

7355: When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?

7365: What is the minimum required GMT for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?

7367: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP DRILLER while on location is __________.

7371: The condition where a MODU on the end of a tow line is riding a wave crest at the same time as its tug rides a wave crest is known as riding in __________.

7373: When a semisubmersible rig under tow experiences pounding on the forward transverse brace, the surest way to alleviate the condition would be to __________.

7375: When a semisubmersible rig under tow veers from side to side on its tow line, the best way of controlling the action is to __________.

7377: A semisubmersible rig under tow should be ballasted down if __________.

7381: One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is to __________.

7385: To assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU, preparation should include __________.

7387: Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of excess __________.

7388: All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?

7391: Personnel boarding a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU should be checked to assure they are not in possession of or wearing __________.

7393: When a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming waterborne, the raft is released by __________.

7395: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.

7397: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.

7401: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.

7403: If you must jump from a MODU, your posture should include __________.

7405: VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?

7405: VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?

7407: Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?

7411: What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?

7412: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

7413: Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?

7415: What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?

7417: You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan-Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?

7421: After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. will ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?

7427: What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?

7431: What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?

7431: What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?

7575: The upward pressure of displaced water is called __________.

7577: The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and the __________.

7578: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should __________.

7581: For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.

7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.

7587: The geometric center of the underwater volume is known as the __________.

7591: Stability is determined principally by the location of the center of gravity and the __________.

7593: The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called the __________.

7595: For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives the __________.

7597: In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through __________.

7601: At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is the __________.

7603: Initial stability refers to stability __________.

7605: For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.

7607: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.

7613: GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because __________.

7617: When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.

7621: Which statement is TRUE about metacentric height?

7623: The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the __________.

7625: The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.

7631: At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.

7635: At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

7637: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly less than the angle of loll, she will __________.

7641: In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.

7643: When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the __________.

7645: What abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?

7647: The abbreviation GM is used to represent the __________.

7648: Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of the following equipment EXCEPT __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

7651: When positive stability exists, GZ represents the __________.

7655: In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.

7657: The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.

7663: Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.

7665: Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.

7667: Subtracting GM from KM yields __________.

7675: To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.

7677: Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.

7681: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

7682: One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.

7683: Increasing free surfaces has the effect of raising the __________.

7685: The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

7687: When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.

7693: Increasing the number of slack liquid tanks has the effect of raising the __________.

7695: Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.

7697: The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.

7701: After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.

7703: The average of the forward and after drafts is the __________.

7713: Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, you should __________.

7725: Reserve buoyancy is the __________.

7727: When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.

7737: The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.

7747: In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.

7785: The result of multiplying a weight by a distance is a __________.

7786: The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________.

7787: A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.

7805: A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?

7841: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the anchor chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.

7843: After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?

7845: When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, the air flows __________.

7847: When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.

7951: What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system for powering drilling rig machinery?

7977: Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________.

8015: In case of damage to the DEEP DRILLER on location, the immediate objective is to reduce the unexpected inclination and return the unit to __________.

8035: When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.

8036: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

8045: At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.

8047: An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.

8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.

8053: At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last __________.

8054: A thrust block is designed to __________.

8055: When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.

8061: When drilling from a MODU the weight in air of tubular goods on the racks is reduced when run into the drilled hole because of the effect of __________.

8061: When drilling from a MODU the weight in air of tubular goods on the racks is reduced when run into the drilled hole because of the effect of __________.

8063: Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguishers used on MODU's should have the propellant cartridge weighed every __________.

8071: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total environmental force would be __________.

8073: A person who holds a foreign license can serve as the ballast control operator to meet manning requirements on a MODU on waters outside U.S. jurisdiction until the __________.

8075: A semisubmersible is more likely to experience structural stresses during heavy weather when __________.

8077: Progressive flooding on a MODU is controlled by securing watertight boundaries and __________.

8081: What additional precautions should be taken when making temporary repairs to a MODU that is operating when hydrogen sulfide is present?

8091: When preparing a MODU for heavy weather, fuel oil day tanks should be __________.

8093: What is the displacement of the DEEP DRILLER with a draft of 19.5 feet in fresh water?

8103: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.

8105: What is the port leg reaction for the COASTAL DRILLER if the total weight is 15,000 kips, LCG is 120 feet, and TCG is 1.0?

8107: What is the minimum required GML for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?

8115: When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, you should __________.

8117: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps by using the __________.

8118: Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?

8121: While at operating draft, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps with the __________.

8123: To effectively use the crossover system on the DEEP DRILLER to pump from the low side using a high side ballast pump, transverse inclinations should not exceed __________.

8125: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the starboard pump room. Both starboard bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the performance of the bilge pumps by using the __________.

8127: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?

8131: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of drill water tank #17 are transferred to drill water tank #18?

8147: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 53.16 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. Although there are no environmental forces, trim is 2.0 feet by the stern. What is the value of LCG?

8151: Laying down drill pipe from the derrick of a semisubmersible on location reduces the __________.

8153: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet and a total vertical moment of 1,012,598 foot-tons, pumps 2,068.7 long tons of ballast overboard. The VCG of the discharged ballast is 15.0 feet. What is the new height of the center of gravity?

8155: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.

8156: Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________.

8157: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?

8161: A semisubmersible, displacing 20,500 long tons, has vertical moments of 1,060,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are discharged from a VCG of 120 feet?

8163: The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in the __________.

8165: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

8167: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 10S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

8171: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

8173: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 100 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.

8175: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 150 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.

8177: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 200 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.

8181: When the COASTAL DRILLER is afloat, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by __________.

8183: When extracting the legs from the soil, the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER may be pulled down until the draft is __________.

8184: What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?

8185: When the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by __________.

8186: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 20'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

8187: The maximum variable load for the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated in a severe storm is __________.

8191: During a severe storm while the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, on board loads must be shifted so that the TCG is on the centerline and the LCG is __________.

8193: In a severe storm while elevated, the drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER must be considered as __________.

8195: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in transit, expects the winds to increase to 75 knots. In order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements, the tip-of-can (TOC) position should be at __________.

8197: If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), the variable loads would have to be reduced by __________.

8198: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 15 ft. deep is half filled with oil cargo (S.G. 0.948) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

8201: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 12.38 feet to 60.5 feet is __________.

8203: While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 1.20 feet to 60.50 feet is __________.

8205: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 12.38 feet to __________.

8207: While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 1.20 feet to __________.

8211: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the minimum total weight shall not be less than __________.

8213: What fitting should you install in the rig piping to a pump to facilitate disconnecting the pump for servicing?

8215: In the piping systems of a MODU, what type of valve gives the least resistance to fluid flow when fully open?

8217: What is the purpose of a striker plate?

8221: What is the purpose of a vent header?

8222: Which will improve stability?

8223: What is the purpose of a check valve?

8225: On what type of pump would you find an impeller?

8235: What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?

8257: When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the tape should be lowered and brought back quickly to __________.

8261: When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to __________.

8263: When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates the tank __________.

8263: When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates the tank __________.

8275: In a wire rope mooring system, the fairlead sheave should be a minimum of __________.

8277: An effective braking system for windlasses on rigs in deep water is a(n) __________.

8281: In storm conditions, when the DEEP DRILLER is in 600 feet water depth, and the high-line tension (HLT) is 350 kips, completely slacking the two leeward mooring line tensions reduces the HLT to __________.

8283: When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?

8285: The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened if __________.

8287: Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the __________.

8288: What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?

8293: Failure of both port-side ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To dewater from the port forward tanks, you should use the __________.

8295: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.

8297: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.

8303: On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering H2S during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute concentration of H2S at the __________.

8305: Since accumulations of H2S gas on a MODU can be dangerous to personnel, it is important to know that H2S gas is __________.

8307: The sense of smell cannot be depended upon to detect H2S because __________.

8311: High concentrations of H2S gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.

8313: The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of H2S is __________.

8315: The airborne concentrations of substances (such as H2S) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.

8317: The minimum concentration of H2S which can cause death if a person is exposed for even an instant is __________.

8321: The maximum concentration of H2S to which workers may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is __________.

8323: The Lethal Concentration of H2S that will cause death with short-term exposure is a minimum of __________.

8325: If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have a low level concentration alarm to alert personnel when H2S concentrations first reach a maximum of __________.

8327: When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?

8331: When H2S is burned (flared) on a MODU, what can you expect to occur?

8332: What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?

8333: Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.

8335: Requirements for H2S preparation and equipment usage aboard MODU's in U.S. offshore waters are administered by the __________.

8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?

8341: Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.

8342: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

8343: The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sulfide is greatest for __________.

8345: For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and __________.

8347: All diesel engines are classified as __________.

8351: What is a pinion in a jacking system?

8353: What power source actuates a solenoid valve?

8355: What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?

8357: What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?

8361: What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine?

8363: Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when __________.

8367: How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?

8371: Each cylinder in a two stroke cycle engine experiences combustion __________.

8373: How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?

8375: Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.

8377: What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?

8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters?

8383: What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?

8384: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?

8385: What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?

8387: On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable?

8391: What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?

8392: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.

8393: Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or __________.

8395: What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?

8397: What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?

8403: What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?

8405: The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

8407: If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should __________.

8411: What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?

8412: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height, you should __________.

8415: The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and __________.

8417: Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause __________.

8421: If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?

8431: The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the __________.

8433: The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of __________.

8435: A MODU which is required to carry an Oil Record Book must log in the book __________.

8437: A MODU required to carry an Oil Record Book must maintain the book on board for __________.

8440: Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

8441: The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not apply to MODU's that __________.

8443: The requirement to carry an Oil Record Book does not apply to a MODU that __________.

8445: Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have an International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate when the unit __________.

8447: Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a MODU?

8477: You are on a semisubmersible being towed and are concerned that a fishing vessel is not taking sufficient action to avoid you. To signal your concern, you should __________.

8481: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AF0 has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?

8483: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?

8485: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.43 feet. What is the trim angle?

8487: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 19 feet, has a KGL of 59.91 feet and an LCG of 1.57 feet. What is the trim angle?

8491: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 50 feet, has a KGT of 52.12 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port of the longitudinal centerline. What is the list in feet?

8493: What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?

8505: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the improvement in KGL?

8511: An elevated jack-up weighs 17,000 kips. Its center of gravity is located 110 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). What would be the new LCG if the cantilever (weight 900 kips) and drill floor (weight 800 kips) were skidded 70 feet aft?

8513: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to port of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to starboard?

8515: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________.

8517: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips. LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The port leg reaction is __________.

8521: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?

8523: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

8527: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

8533: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, what action should you take FIRST?

8535: You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.

8537: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

8541: The process of waiting a period of time before pretensioning an anchor is known as __________.

8543: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the environmental force due to the wind would be __________.

8545: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the total environmental force would be __________.

8547: What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?

8551: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one spanner and at least one __________.

8553: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.

8555: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.

8557: Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at __________.

8561: On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.

8563: How often must CO2 systems be inspected to confirm cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge?

8575: If a man falls overboard from a rig under tow, you should FIRST __________.

8576: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

8577: The indication of a slipping anchor is a(n) __________.

8581: Survival practice in the mooring system is to slack off the tensions on the leeward side and __________.

8583: After cranes have been installed on offshore drilling units the hooks, hook block, slings, rib and other rigging must be load tested. This test must be performed once each __________.

8584: When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should __________.

8585: A MODU must have on board a first-aid kit that is approved by the __________.

8587: The person assigned to command a lifeboat or inflatable liferaft on a MODU shall have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat or liferaft. The list shall include each person's __________.

8591: Prior to burning or welding on a fuel tank on a MODU, regulations require that an inspection be made. An entry in the unofficial logbook is required if this inspection is made by __________.

8593: Who is responsible for insuring that the accommodations on a mobile offshore drilling unit are maintained in a clean and sanitary condition?

8595: When a survival craft drill is held, the person in charge must insure that __________.

8597: On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested __________.

8601: Offshore drilling units must have at least two ring buoys with water lights that, when released from the mounting rack, activate a __________.

8603: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats must be lowered to the water and maneuvered at least once every __________.

8605: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat motors shall be operated in the ahead and astern position at least once each __________.

8615: The LWT anchor has two angular positions for the flukes. These are __________.

8621: What is the transverse shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?

8623: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and displacement 9,000 short tons?

8625: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?

8627: What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?

8631: What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?

8635: A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to __________.

8637: Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?

8643: The analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregards the beneficial effects of countermeasures and __________.

8645: In the analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregarded are the beneficial effects of moorings and __________.

8647: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the tank sounding level and port forward inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1P is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

8651: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the sounding level and port aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10P has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.

8653: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1S is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

8655: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped on the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10S has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.

8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

8661: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

8662: When may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?

8663: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

8665: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) loads an additional 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 2 feet and the list to port is 3 feet. What is the draft at the port forward draft mark?

8671: The plans, for use during emergencies aboard the DEEP DRILLER, are readily available in the __________.

8673: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft. What is the value of GMT?

8675: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons. What is the new draft?

8681: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, loads 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard aft draft mark?

8683: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 61.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 59.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG?

8685: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board. What is the new draft?

8687: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 200 long tons on board. What is the new draft?

8688: Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

8691: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new draft?

8693: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 65.00 feet. What is the GMT?

8695: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new displacement?

8697: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, loads 200 long tons. What is the new displacement?

8699: What are the transverse moments for the contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

8701: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 19 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 9S by pumping from tank 8S by opening valves 20 and __________.

8702: An oil fire is classified as class __________.

8703: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 1P after opening valves 6 and __________.

8705: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2S by pumping from tank 1S after opening valves 6 and __________.

8707: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). If port valves 24 and 2 are mistakenly opened, the change in inclination will be increasing trim by the __________.

8711: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast from the forward-starboard column using starboard pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.

8712: Jettisoning weight from topside __________.

8713: Port ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast the forward-port column using port ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.

8715: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. To deballast from tank C2SA using starboard ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open the manual valve and which motor driven valves?

8716: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

8717: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the uncorrected height of the center of gravity?

8721: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the transverse free surface correction to KG?

8723: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the LCG?

8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?

8731: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is TCG?

8733: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new LCG?

8734: All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________.

8735: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of FSML for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank #5P are transferred to Tank #5S?

8737: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the mud weight was changed from 16 to 14 pounds per gallon?

8747: If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated, the setback in the derrick should be lowered and placed in the pipe rack. Its weight should be accounted for as __________.

8751: When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of __________.

8753: The maximum weight for the COASTAL DRILLER in severe storm conditions is __________.

8755: While elevated, the COASTAL DRILLER prepares for a severe storm. When the setback is lowered and placed in the pipe racks, it is considered as part of the __________.

8757: The routes to be used during evacuation of the COASTAL DRILLER are shown in the __________.

8761: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

8763: After deploying the anchor, a permanent chain chaser is __________.

8767: In securing deck loads for an ocean tow, drill pipe should be __________.

8771: Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has been detected on the drill floor. The abandon rig signal has been sounded. To evacuate the rig, the crew should use __________.

8773: The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.

8775: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected forward inclination. The wind and waves are light from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

8777: On a MODU, an obvious indicator of lost circulation of drilling fluid is __________.

8781: To determine the number of certificated Lifeboatmen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

8782: Control of fire should be addressed __________.

8783: When using a hand held smoke signal aboard a survival craft, you should activate the signal __________.

8793: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and aft. Strong winds and high waves are from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

8807: The prohibition against displaying lights which may be confused with required navigation lights applies __________.

8817: A jack-up has 8 inches of trim by the stern. Calculations show that the moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 500 foot-kips. To level the unit, how far must a weight of 50 kips be transferred toward the bow?

8821: A jack-up is trimmed six inches by the bow. The moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 1200 foot-kips. Transferring 200 kips of drill water from a tank with an LCG of 20 feet to a tank with an LCG of 140 feet results in a final trim of __________.

8823: The draft at the forward draft mark of a jack-up is 11 feet 3 inches while the draft at the aft draft mark is 12 feet 9 inches. The value of trim is __________.

8825: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel?

8827: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the heel?

8831: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the new starboard draft?

8833: A jack-up level at 12.5 feet draft transfers 100 kips of drill water from a tank with a TCG of -30 feet to a starboard tank with a TCG of 70 feet. The resulting starboard draft is 13 feet. The moment required to change list one inch (MCL1") is __________.

8835: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 foot-kips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet. How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet?

8837: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,200 foot-kips intends to transfer 100 kips of weight in a transverse direction. How far should the weight be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.5 to 11.0 feet?

8843: A semisubmersible in transit is at a draft of 19 feet. The depth of the lower hulls is 21 feet. How much bunker fuel at 54.0 lbs/cu ft could be taken on and still provide one foot of freeboard if the TPI is 52.3?

8845: A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60?

8847: A semisubmersible 300 feet long and an LCF of 0 (amidships) is in transit with hulls awash and an MT1" of 87.67 foot-tons. Work on the BOP (weight 263 long tons) requires that it be moved aft 12 feet. What is the resulting trim change?

8848: Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________.

8849: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently bolted flange oil hose coupling?

8851: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has an allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the GML?

8853: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has a maximum allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG?

8855: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival, how much ballast would be required?

8861: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 2 and 9 will be full and that port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 will be slack. What would be the new value of the total longitudinal free surface moments (FSML)?

8863: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What is the new KGL?

8865: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Although winds are less than 70 knots, excessive motion requires ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What will be the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?

8867: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. How much ballast is required to ballast to 32 feet?

8871: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, what is the new KG?

8873: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new KGL?

8875: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Excessive motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?

8877: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Severe motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new GML?

8881: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). How much additional deck load can be placed aboard without exceeding the deck load limit?

8883: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Additional deck load may be placed aboard. If the maximum permissible deck load were placed in the pipe racks at a VCG of 130 feet, the KG increases __________.

8885: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft?

8887: In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.

8891: Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?

8893: AMVER is a system which provides __________.

8895: The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by the __________.

8897: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.

8901: The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________.

8903: The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.

8905: When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.

8907: When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know __________.

8911: If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of __________.

8913: In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline that used principally for __________.

8917: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 17 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 8S by pumping from tank 9S and opening valves 18 and __________.

8923: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4. While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 9P by also opening valves 6 and __________.

8925: A vessel behaves as if all of its weight is acting downward through the center of gravity, and all its support is acting upward through the __________.

8927: On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to __________.

8971: The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.

8973: For a floating vessel, the result of subtracting KG from KM is the __________.

8977: The important stability parameter, KG, is defined as the __________.

8981: The important initial stability parameter, GM, is the __________.

8983: The time required to incline from port to starboard and back to port again is called __________.

8985: The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.

8987: The tendency of a vessel to return to its original trim after being inclined by an external force is __________.

8991: The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.

8993: The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.

8994: Two types of anchor shackles which are currently available are __________.

8997: Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.

9001: The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely is __________.

9002: On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of each accommodation space must be located above __________.

9021: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

9067: The TCG of a vessel may be found by dividing the displacement of the vessel into the __________.

9087: No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.

9091: The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing __________.

9093: In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?

9097: When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?

9098: When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should __________.

9101: Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by __________.

9105: Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified location on a MODU must provide a complete change of air every __________.

9107: The amount of Halon remaining in an extinguisher is determined by __________.

9111: Inspection of a Halon extinguisher involves checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and __________.

9113: After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be __________.

9115: An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft?

9121: The blocking or absence of fire dampers can cause __________.

9125: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________.

9129: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.

9130: When administering first aid you should avoid __________.

9137: Fighting a fire in the galley poses the additional threat of __________.

9153: The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.

9155: In plugging submerged holes on a MODU, rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to __________.

9167: To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.

9185: The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

9187: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

9191: After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________.

9192: The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be __________.

9193: Drinking salt water will __________.

9195: When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________.

9197: In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________.

9205: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed __________.

9217: Apparent wind speed blowing across a MODU under tow can be measured by a(n) __________.

9227: The longitudinal free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 12,000 kips is 1.20 feet. What would be the new FSCL if 2,400 kips of solid variable loads are added?

9231: The transverse free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 24,000 long tons is 1.0 foot. When the MODU is deballasted by discharging 8,000 long tons of ballast, the FSMT decreases by 4,000 ft-long tons. What is the new FSCT?

9233: A ballast tank in a floating MODU has a maximum FSML of 7,000 ft-long tons. If the tank is converted to drill water storage, what would be the new maximum FSML?

9235: The longitudinal free surface moments of a drilling mud pit aboard a MODU displacing 24,000 long tons in sea water is 1,200 ft-long tons. If the sounding level in the mud pit is reduced from 8 to 6 feet and the mud weight increases from 10 to 12 lbs/gallon, what is the new FSML for the mud pit?

9237: A MODU floating in sea water while displacing 20,000 long tons has transverse free surface moments of 7,500 ft-long tons and longitudinal free surface moments of 10,000 ft-long tons. The maximum virtual rise in the height of the center of gravity due to free surfaces is __________.

9241: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, discharges 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?

9243: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?

9245: The object of plugging holes below the waterline on a MODU should be to __________.

9247: What type of test determines the pressure at which the formation immediately below the last set casing will take fluid?

9251: For well control, the American Petroleum Institute recommends that hydraulic units have sufficient horsepower to close the annular preventer in __________.

9253: At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well head, __________.

9255: A low pressure annular preventer which is used to direct flow of kick fluids away from the rig floor is called a __________.

9257: The shear rams of a MODU blowout preventer stack are used in emergency well control to __________.

9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.

9263: A casing string that is run below the previous casing string, but does not extend to the wellhead is called a __________.

9265: Oil well casing will fail when the external pressure exceeds the internal pressure by a differential equal to the casing's rated __________.

9267: Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. What should this entry include?

9271: You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.

9273: After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.

9275: A jack-up displacing 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. The legs weighing 3,500 kips are lowered 100 feet. What is the new KG?

9276: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

9277: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?

9281: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 106 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are loaded at 20 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are loaded 149 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?

9282: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.

9283: A jack-up with displacement of 10,000 kips has its LCG 100 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 200 kips are loaded at 60 feet AFO and 100 kips are discharged from 20 feet AFO, what is the new LCG?

9285: A floating jack-up with displacement of 16,200 kips has its LCG 110.37 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are discharged from 120 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are discharged from 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?

9287: What is the longitudinal shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons is moved ten feet to port and 30 feet forward on a MODU with a displacement of 8,960 long tons?

9291: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?

9293: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. The drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10.0 feet to starboard. The change in TCG is __________.

9295: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the bow to level the jack-up if 150 kips are loaded at the transom?

9301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet. What would be the value of uncorrected KG?

9303: When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.

9306: When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?

9307: When a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.

9311: Basic emergency care for third degree electrical burn is to __________.

9313: When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to __________.

9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.

9317: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

9321: In battery charging rooms, exhaust ventilation should be provided __________.

9323: A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.

9325: Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________.

9327: Accumulations of oily rags should be __________.

9331: Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.

9333: After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to __________.

9335: The disadvantage of using CO2 is that the __________.

9337: Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.

9341: Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

9342: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

9347: CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?

9351: Halon from extinguishers used on a class B fire, should be directed __________.

9357: Halon extinguishers used on a class C fire should be directed at the __________.

9361: The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon extinguishers is __________.

9362: You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the __________.

9363: The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to __________.

9365: When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.

9367: A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______.

9371: Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.

9373: If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________.

9375: After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.

9377: After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________.

9381: If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.

9382: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.

9383: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.

9385: When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________.

9387: When should you use distress flares and rockets?

9391: Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?

9397: CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.

9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.

9412: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

9413: When anchoring in an area with a hard bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.

9414: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

9415: A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are called __________.

9425: Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?

9427: In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to __________.

9431: Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.

9432: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

9435: For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.

9437: A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.

9441: The moment of a force is a measure of the __________.

9443: The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.

9445: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the __________.

9447: When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.

9451: Initial stability is indicated by __________.

9453: At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.

9454: If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST __________.

9455: The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.

9457: The center of buoyancy is located at the __________.

9463: The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.

9465: When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.

9467: When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting moment is __________.

9471: What is used as an indicator of initial stability?

9473: What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies?

9477: The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.

9481: The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.

9483: A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.

9485: The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.

9487: The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of __________.

9491: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.

9493: On a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline results in a(n) __________.

9495: Reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduces the __________.

9497: Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the upward-acting buoyant force and the __________.

9501: Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and the __________.

9503: Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel: the center of buoyancy and the __________.

9505: With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

9507: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

9511: In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.

9513: In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

9515: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________.

9517: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

9521: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

9523: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.

9525: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity a vessel has which type of stability?

9527: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability?

9528: You are in Inland Waters of the United States. You may discharge overboard __________.

9531: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.

9533: Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.

9535: When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.

9537: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is __________.

9541: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is __________.

9543: Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.

9545: An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.

9547: A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.

9551: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability?

9553: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.

9557: Longitudinal moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.

9561: Vertical moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.

9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

9563: The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.

9564: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

9565: The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into the __________.

9567: The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.

9571: The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.

9573: A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the __________.

9575: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are 6,206 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?

9577: When is the density of the water required to be logged in the logbook of a MODU?

9581: The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.

9583: Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits must wear the immersion suit in a boat drill, or participate in a drill which includes donning the suit and being instructed in its use at least once every __________.

9585: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.

9587: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

9591: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new draft if all the bulk materials are discharged?

9593: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 717,500 cubic feet. What is the displacement?

9595: A non-symmetrical tank aboard a MODU contains 390 tons of ballast at a VCG of 9.85 feet. Ballast weighing 250 tons and a VCG of 12.0 feet is discharged. The vertical moments for the remaining ballast is __________.

9597: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), when an unexpected, slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.

9601: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.

9603: During the passage of a severe storm the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft is __________.

9604: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

9605: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds less than 70 knots, has a draft of 10 feet 8 inches. The VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

9606: You are fighting a Class B fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

9607: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?

9611: A crew member reports that the high-pressure alarm light of a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is illuminated. The most probable cause of this condition would be that __________.

9612: What would be a major consequence of the refrigeration system for a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system remaining inoperable?

9613: When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?

9614: The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.

9621: You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

9622: You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

9623: You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?

9624: You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.

9631: Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.

9632: In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.

9633: Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?

9634: A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.

9641: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

9642: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

9643: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

9651: In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

9652: When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

9661: In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2 __________.

9662: Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?

9671: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

9672: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

9673: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

9682: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

9700: The regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel are found in __________.

9701: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

9702: Which of the following is/are NOT required on Ro-Ro vessels, regarding spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

9703: Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

9704: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

9705: Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

9706: Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

69354: Which casualty involving a mobile offshore drilling unit would require a report to be filed?